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VET413 Infectious + Immunology > 6+8+11 Nematodes 1/2/3 > Flashcards

6+8+11 Nematodes 1/2/3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a definitive host?

A

The host where adult/sexually mature parasites reside

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2
Q

What is a dead-end host?

A

A host where the progression of the parasite life cycle ends

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3
Q

What is an intermediate host?

A

A host that is required for immature or nonreproductive parasites to develop

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4
Q

What is a paratenic host?

A

An intermediate host where no development happens

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5
Q

What is a patent infestation/infection?

A

An infection where larvae/eggs are present and can be diagnosed

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6
Q

What is an occult infestation/infection?

A

An infection where eggs/larvae are not being produced, therefore the parasites are missing key diagnostic features

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7
Q

What is a vector?

A

An arthropod that transfers a parasite to the definitive host

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8
Q

What are the characteristics of nematodes?

A

-A pseudocoelom
-A GI tract
-Separate sexes
-A cuticle of varying thickness

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9
Q

What phylum of parasites has separate sexes?

A

Phylum nematoda

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10
Q

T or F: Most nematodes are pretty small

A

F - There is HUGE size variation and they can be tiny up to 30 ft long

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11
Q

How do most nematodes migrate in the definitive host?

A

GI tract –> liver –> lungs –> ascend trachea –> swallowed –> back to GI

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12
Q

What kind of lesions do Ascaris suum and other ascarids produce in the liver?

A

Milk spots (foci of fibrosis)

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13
Q

At what point are ascarid eggs infective?

A

Roughly 2 weeks after they are shed, once the eggs are embryonated

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14
Q

Where in the GI tract do Ascaris suum live?

A

The small intestine

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15
Q

How is Ascaris suum diagnosed?

A

Fecal float or worms on necropsy

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16
Q

What species does Ascaris suum effect?

A

Pigs

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17
Q

T or F: ascarid eggs are not hearty in the environment

A

F; they are very hearty

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18
Q

What species does Parascaris equorum effect?

A

Horses

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19
Q

T or F: most ascarids are density dependent.

A

True

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20
Q

What organism causes a “summer cold” (cough, nasal discharge) in horses?

A

Parascaris equorum

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21
Q

How is Parascaris equorum diagnosed?

A

Fecal float or worms on necropsy

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22
Q

T or F: Resistance for Parascaris equorum can be acquired.

A

T, foals are the most susceptible

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23
Q

How is Toxocara canis usually transmitted?

A

Transplacental or transmammary

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24
Q

How is Toxocara cati usually transmitted?

A

Transmammary or via infected prey

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25
Q

T or F: Kittens often have Toxocara cati infections.

A

False

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26
Q

At what life stage are dogs susceptible to Toxocara canis?

A

Puppies; immunity is reached by 3-6 months and larvae arrest in tissue

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27
Q

At what life stage are cats susceptible to Toxocara cati?

A

Their entire life

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28
Q

What are the clinical signs of Toxocara in dogs?

A

Unthrifty, pot belly, rough hair coat

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29
Q

Toxocara spp. (are/are not) zoonotic.

A

Are

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30
Q

How are Toxocara spp. diagnosed?

A

Fecal float, worms in vomitus or feces

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31
Q

What species are affected by Toxascaris leonina?

A

Dogs and cats

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32
Q

Immunity (can/can not) be developed against Toxascaris leonina.

A

Can not

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33
Q

How do Ancylostoma spp. gain entry to the host?

A
  1. Ingestion of infective largae
  2. Penetration into the skin, tracheal migration, follow lymphatics or vasculature to heart/lungs, coughed up and swallowed
  3. Transmammary transmission in dogs
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34
Q

What species is most commonly affected by hookworms, and what species affects them?

A

Dogs - Ancylostoma caninum

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35
Q

Do hookworm eggs hatch in the host or in the environment?

A

The environment – the larvae enter the host

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36
Q

Which eggs are more environmentally resistant, hookworm larvae or ascarid eggs?

A

Ascarids – hookworm eggs are susceptible UV and dessication

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37
Q

What are the clinical consequences of Ancylostoma caninum infection?

A

Hemorrhagic anemia, iron and protein loss, weakness, emaciation, diarrhea, melena

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38
Q

What parasite(s) encyst in the tissue of adult dogs and do not cause active disease?

A

Toxocara canis
Ancylostoma caninum

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39
Q

What parasite causes summer sores in horses?

A

Habronema megastoma

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40
Q

How are Habronema spp. transmitted?

A

Muscid fly maggots ingest eggs from manure and transfer Habronema larvae to lips or oral mucosa

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41
Q

What can infection with Habronema megastoma look like?

A

Summer sores (sores on skin)
Gastric nodules (larvae deposited on lips by flies are ingested and create nodules in the stomach; usually not causing active dz)

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42
Q

How is Habronema megastoma diagnosed?

A

Fecal flotation, biopsy, or necropsy

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43
Q

What is the common name of Oxyuris equi?

A

Pinworm

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44
Q

How is Oxyuris equi diagnosed?

A

Tape method

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45
Q

How will horses infected with Oxyuris equi present?

A

Pruritic, unkempt tail, patchy alopecia at tail head

46
Q

What species do Strongyles most often affect?

A

Horses

47
Q

How are cyathostomes transmitted and how do they cause disease?

A

Eggs are shed in feces and hatch into larvae in the environment. Larvae are ingested along with forage, and cause severe enteritis by emerging from cysts in the GI mucosa.

48
Q

What are general mechanisms by which large strongyles cause clinical disease?

A

Larval migration
Blood loss from feeding

49
Q

What clinical disease does Strongylus vulgaris cause?

A

Vasculitis

50
Q

What species of strongyles tend to cause more bleeding?

A

Strongylus edentatus and Strongylus equinus

51
Q

How will a horse with a cyathostome infection present?

A

Diarrhea, emaciation, weight loss

52
Q

Describe the migration of Strongylus vulgaris within the host.

A

Ingested larvae –> travel along wall of cranial mesenteric artery –> enter cecum or colon when mature

53
Q

What can Strongylus vulgaris cause during it’s vascular migration?

A

Thrombosis and aneurisms

54
Q

Where do trichostrongyles reside in the host?

A

Abomasum

55
Q

What species are most commonly affected by trichostrongyles?

A

Grazing ruminants

56
Q

What species are included in the “HOT” complex?

A

Haemonchus spp.
Ostertagia spp.
Trichostrongylus spp.

57
Q

What lesions and clinical signs do Haemonchus contortus cause?

A

Abomasal ulceration, chronic hemorrhage (leading to anemia and edema from hypoproteinemia), ill thrift, “bottle jaw” (edema of the neck d/t head position when grazing)

58
Q

What is the McMaster technique used for?

A

Determining parasite burdens (eggs #/gram feces)

59
Q

_________ __________ (genus and species) is the most important GI nematode of cows.

A

Ostertagia ostertagia

60
Q

What does ostertagiasis do to the abomasum?

A

Interstitial inflammation, mucosal metaplasia and hyperplasia, thickened appearance (may be like “Moroccan leather”), nodules

61
Q

Describe Type I ostertagiasis and what age/species it affects.

A

Acute, direct development of larvae, rapidly acquire a lot of larvae that mature at day 21 of the pre-patent period. Affects young cattle in pastures with high contamination.

62
Q

Describe Type 2 ostertagiasis and what age/species it affects.

A

Postponed development; larvae go into hypbiotic arrested state in mucosa that later ends. Can occur in older cattle.

63
Q

How can you differentiate between Thelazia and Ancylostoma when they are affecting the eye?

A

Thelazia will be on the eye, Ancylostoma will be in the eye

64
Q

What clinical sign will Thelazia spp. cause?

A

Conjunctivitis, rarely uveitis

65
Q

What is the intermediate host for Thelazia spp?

A

Flies

66
Q

Halicephalobus gingivalis is a facultative parasite of which species?

A

Horses and humans

67
Q

How does Halicephalobus gingivalis infect its host?

A

Enters via oral abrasions

68
Q

What body system does Pearsonema plica infect?

A

The urinary tract

69
Q

What clinical signs does Pearsonema plica cause?

A

Cystitis, occasional pyelonephritis

70
Q

What is the intermediate host for Pearsonema plica?

A

Earthworms

71
Q

What is the common name of Stephanurus dentatus?

A

Swine kidney worm

72
Q

How are Staphanurus dentatus eggs shed, and what is their vector?

A

Shed in urine; earthworm is vector

73
Q

Stephanofilaria stilesi causes what kind of clinical presentation in what species?

A

Midline dermatitis in cattle

74
Q

How do you treat Stephanofilaria stilesi?

A

You don’t; it’s self limiting

75
Q

What is the intermediate host for Staphanofilaria stilesi?

A

The horn fly

76
Q

What species are affected by Onchocerca spp?

A

Horses and cattle

77
Q

What clinical presentation does Onchocerca spp. cause?

A

Dermatitis

78
Q

What species are MOST affected by Dioctophyme renale?

A

Dogs and mink

79
Q

What organ(s) do Dioctophyme renale adults reside in?

A

The right kidney (because they migrate out of the duodenum. If you infect both kidneys, the host dies)

80
Q

Dioctophyme renale requires an __________ (intermediate host species) and ___________ (paratenic host species).

A

Aquatic oligochaete; fish/frog/other small aquatic creature

81
Q

What parasite species can cause zoonotic cutaneous larval migrans?

A

Ancylostoma caninum

82
Q

What parasite species can cause zoonotic ocular larval migrans?

A

Toxocara canis and toxacara cati

83
Q

Which parasite species can cause zoonotic visceral larval migrans?

A

Toxocara canis
Toxocara cati
Baylisascaris procyonis

84
Q

Where are lungworms eggs or larvae shed?

A

Feces

85
Q

How are lungworms diagnosed?

A

Baermann apparatus

86
Q

Why is Parelaphostrongylus tenuis dangerous in aberrant hosts?

A

Larvae get lost in the CNS

87
Q

Meningeal worms are a major issue in ______ (wildlife species) and can cause infections in ________ (domestic species).

A

White tailed deer; camelids

88
Q

What do Muellerius capillaris lesions look like?

A

Small granulomatous nodules on the dorsal aspect of the lungs

89
Q

What is the intermediate host for Muellerius capillaris?

A

Snail or slug

90
Q

What species is affected by Muellerius capillaris?

A

Goats

91
Q

What species are affected by Dictyocaulus spp?

A

Ruminants and horses

92
Q

What clinical disease does Dictyocaulus viviparous cause?

A

Bronchointerstitial pneumonia and bronchitis, atelectasis, edema, emphysema

93
Q

Where do Dictyocaulus viviparous live in their host species?

A

In the mainstem bronchi or distal trachea

94
Q

Describe the lifecycle of lungworms.

A

Adult worms lay eggs in the lungs, which are then coughed up and swallowed. Larvae pass in feces then leave the fecal matter to crawl onto vegetation in their infective L3 stage. After ingestion, larvae migrate back to the lungs and mature.

95
Q

What age of animal is most likely to present with dictyocauliasis, and how will they present?

A

Young animals present with tachypnea, splayed-leg posture, and dependent head position

96
Q

What species are infected with Aeleureostrongylus abstrusus?

A

Cats

97
Q

What species of intermediate hosts do lungworms require?

A

Slugs or snails

98
Q

What clinical disease does Aeleurostrongylus abstrusus cause?

A

Multifocal interstitial pneumonia

99
Q

T or F: Dirofilaria immitis are lungworms.

A

T

100
Q

Describe the life cycle of heartworm.

A

Adult worms in pulmonary arteries produce microfilaria that enter vasculature –> mosquito takes bloodmeal from infected animal –> L1 larvae migrate to the mosquito’s midgut and develop to L3 –> L3 larvae migrate to head/proboscis –> L3 larvae enter new host when the mosquito takes a blood meal –> adult worms live in pulmonary artery

101
Q

What is the difference between a cat with 1-2 adult heartworms and a dog with 1-2 adult heartworms?

A

This amount of worms can be fatal in the cat

102
Q

Heartworm infection in cats is typically _______ (patent/occult).

A

Occult

103
Q

What types of lesions and clinical disease can heartworms cause?

A

Arterial endothelium and smooth muscle thickening, possible thromboembolism, pulmonary hypertension, R sided heart failure, coughing/dyspnea, ascites, exercise intolerance

104
Q

How long can Dirofilaria immitis microfilaria survive in the vasculature?

A

Up to 2 yrs

105
Q

Can you treat a cat for heartworm?

A

No, due to the thromboembolic implications

106
Q

If you were to transfuse microfilaria-infected blood from one dog into a recipient dog, would the recipient dog develop a heartworm infection? Why or why not?

A

No, because the microfilaria MUST pass through the mosquito to be infective

107
Q

Why is it important to know about Dipetalonema reconditum?

A

Because it is non-pathogenic, but looks like heartworm microfilaria on blood smears

108
Q

What is the common name of Trichuris spp.?

A

Whipworms

109
Q

Where do adult and larval Trichinella spiralis live?

A

Adult –> small intestine
Larvae –> encysted in muscle

110
Q

How do you get trichinellosis?

A

Ingestion of encysted Trichenella spiralis larvae in meat

111
Q

T or F: Ancylostoma caninum migrates through the liver.

A

False

VET413 Infectious + Immunology (26 decks)

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