2016 final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true in lactic acidosis?

A) high anion gap metabolic acidosis and elevated strong anion difference
B) increased apparent strong anion difference
C) normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

?

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2
Q

Which of the following is true regarding nuclear study of renal obstruction?

A) washout after lasix administration excludes obstruction
B) the most common indication for nuclear study of the kidney is increased urinary
pressure caused by obstruction (something close to this but the meaning is the same)

A

B) the most common indication for nuclear study of the kidney is increased urinary
pressure caused by obstruction (something close to this but the meaning is the same)

Note: A is wrong because only “rapid” washout will exclude obstruction, since “delayed” washout does occur in case of obstruction and the use of Lasix

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3
Q

What will cause hyperkalemia?

A) volume expansion
B) excessive exercise
C) aldosterone secretion

A

B) excessive exercise

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4
Q

What will increase ADH?

A) recumbence
B) early pregnancy

A

B) early pregnancy

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5
Q

Which structure develops from endoderm and mesoderm at birth?

A) penis
B) urinary bladder
C) membranous part of the urogenital sinus

A

B) urinary bladder

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6
Q

A patient was suffering from hemoptysis, urine tests showed RBCs What is used to get the diagnosis?

A) immunoglobulin electrophoresis
B) ANCA antibodies

A

B) ANCA antibodies

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7
Q

A 57 years old female with adult polycystic kidney disease presented with flank pain, her hemoglobin dropped from 11 to 7, what is the mechanism

A) retroperitoneal hemorrhage
B) infected cyst
C) cystitis
D) kidney stone

A

A) retroperitoneal hemorrhage

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8
Q

which type of enzyme is associated with stone formation?

A) Urease
B) Oxidase

A

A) Urease

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9
Q

a tumor in the urinary-genital tract composed of papillary structures covered by transitional epithelium

A) Chromophobe renal carcinoma
B) Clear cell carcinoma
C) Papillary renal cell carcinoma
D) Urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis
E) Adenocarcinoma of the prostate
A

D) Urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis

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10
Q

42 years old female presented with pain radiating from the back to the superior pubic area, renal stone was suspected and an ultrasound showed a stone partially obstructing the lower part of the ureter. The stone is probably lodged in the part where the ureter crosses which structure:

A) Inferior vena cava
B) Common iliac artery
C) Internal iliac artery
D) Femoral vein

A

B) Common iliac artery

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11
Q

which of the following microscope immunofluorescence patterns in the glomeruli is characteristic of lupus nephritis

A

Full house

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12
Q

which of the following pathological features best describes ischemic acute tubular injury

A) Distal convoluted tubule is the most vulnerable
B) Dharacterized by polyurea in the initial stages
C) Intratubular casts obstruct the tubular lumen
D) Usually pyelonephritis occurs if remains untreated
E) Progression to ESRD is common

A

C) Intratubular casts obstruct the tubular lumen

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13
Q

40 years old lady presented with acute renal injury/ failure and skin rash. Her urinalysis showed eosinophiluria. What is the diagnosis

A) Severe dehydration
B) Vasculitis
C) Lupus nephritis
D) drug allergy

A

D) drug allergy

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14
Q

a young healthy person had large sodium intake. What will prevent the development of hypernatremia

A) Decreased Na uptake from the CD
B) ADH release
C) Thirst center activation
D) Increased volume

A

A) Decreased Na uptake from the CD

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15
Q

what supports a glomerular source of proteinuria

A) Hypoalbuminemia
B) Proteinuria 1-2 grams/day
C) Polyurea
D) Negative dipstick

A

A) Hypoalbuminemia

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16
Q

scenario about someone with pulmonary edema and shortness of breath. What is the action of furosemide

A

Inhibit the action of NKCC2

17
Q

what can impact the drainage of the left testes, adrenal gland, kidney

A) Left renal vein
B) Superior mesenteric artery

A

A) Left renal vein

18
Q

what is the factor that cause renal release of albumin in nephrotic syndrome

A) Loss of the negative charge of the GBM
B) Damage to collagen 4 of GBM
C) Splitting of GBM

A

A) Loss of the negative charge of the GBM

19
Q

A surgeon approaches the kidneys posteriorly. Between which levels of the spinal cord would be the 2 horizontal incisions

A) T11-L3
B) T12-L4

A

A) T11-L3

20
Q

what is the best urine sample to diagnose Schistosoma haematobium UTI

A) Mid-stream urine
B) Terminal portion of urine

A

B) Terminal portion of urine

21
Q

patient with hypertension with no symptoms had small kidneys on ultrasound and renal artery stenosis. What would be the next step

A) CT angiography
B) CT KUB
C) MRI
D) MCUG

A

A) CT angiography

22
Q

which of the following is least likely to cause red cast in urine

A) Amyloid
B) Renal cellular carcinoma
C) Pyelonephritis
D) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

A) Amyloid

23
Q

Early sign of diabetic nephropathy

A

Microalbuminuria

24
Q

Female with poorly controlled diabetes and glucosuria. Previously she had pain with urination and Klebsiella was isolated. Her vision is 20/100. What will be found in a renal biopsy

A) Nodular hyalinosis
B) Proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

A) Nodular hyalinosis

25
Q

the most common kidney tumor associated with Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

A

Clear cell carcinoma

26
Q

young boy with previous history of fever and pharyngitis presented with nephrotic syndrome. What is the composition of the glomerular deposits or what is the mechanism of deposits formation

A) Immune complex against organism antigens
B) Immune complex against intrinsic antigens

A

A) Immune complex against organism antigens

27
Q

25 year old newly married lady developed a urinary tract infection. What is the microorganism of concern

A) S. saprophyticus
B) E.coli

A

A) S. saprophyticus

28
Q

which of the following is true about the actions of Ang II

A) Decrease the single effect
B) Increase the oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries

A

B) Increase the oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries

29
Q

60 years old woman presenting with hematuria. She had hemoptysis for the last 2 months. Chest X-ray showed middle and lower zone cavities. What should be done further for investigation

A) ASO titer
B) Urography
C) ANCA antibodies
D) HbA1c

A

C) ANCA antibodies

30
Q

what is considered negligible in a normal glomerulus

A) Oncotic pressure of bowman’s space
B) Hydrostatic pressure of bowman’s space
C) Surface area of filtration

A

A) Oncotic pressure of bowman’s space

31
Q

The apex of the renal medulla opens to which of the following

A) Minor calyx
B) Major calyx
C) Collecting duct

A

A) Minor calyx

32
Q

What is the excretion rate of substance X that is freely filtered and secreted: Px=1, RPF= 660, Creatinine clearance= 90 , Tm of secretion= 80

A) 170
B) 100
C) 130
D) 0

A

A) 170

33
Q

which of the following provides parasympathetic innervation for micturition

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

34
Q

a man had a road traffic accident where he lost a large amount of blood, after which he died. What do you expect to see on examination of the kidneys

A) Papillary necrosis
B) Diffuse cortical necrosis
C) Apical blunting
D) Diffuse necrosis of the kidneys

A

B) Diffuse cortical necrosis

35
Q

history of someone who lost 1 liter of sweat in the desert with no access to water. What will be expected to occur

A) Hypernatremia
B) Swelling of osmoreceptors

A

A) Hypernatremia

36
Q

what is the mechanism of metabolic acidosis development as consequence of chronic hypophosphatemia

A) Decreased H secretion
B) Decreased NH4 synthesis
C) Decreased urea secretion

A

A) Decreased H secretion

37
Q

A 40-year-old man presented with hypertension, hematuria, and testicular and pelvic pain. The testicular venous plexus was dilated. Obstruction of which of the following structures might be the cause?

A

left renal vein

38
Q

someone with negative urine strong ion difference. What is the diagnosis

A) Diarrhea caused metabolic acidosis
B) Ketoacidosis
C) Renal tubular acidosis

A

A) Diarrhea caused metabolic acidosis