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RENAL module - 4th year > 2013 final > Flashcards

2013 final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice to diagnose urethral stricture?

A

Ascending urethrography

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2
Q

What is the initial investigation to diagnose a renal mass?

A

Ultrasound

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3
Q

It is located inferolateral to the empty urinary bladder.

a. Vas deferens
b. Vesical venous plexus
c. Ureter
d. Prostate
e. Sigmoid colon
f. Rectum
g. Median umbilical ligament

A

b. Vesical venous plexus

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4
Q

It originates from the apex of the urinary bladder.

a. Vas deferens
b. Vesical venous plexus
c. Ureter
d. Prostate
e. Sigmoid colon
f. Rectum
g. Median umbilical ligament

A

g. Median umbilical ligament

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5
Q

It is related to the superior surface of empty urinary bladder in males.

a. Vas deferens
b. Vesical venous plexus
c. Ureter
d. Prostate
e. Sigmoid colon
f. Rectum
g. Median umbilical ligament

A

e. Sigmoid colon

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6
Q

What is the least dilatable part of the urethra that is vulnerable to rupture?

A

Membranous urethra

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7
Q

What is the anatomical factor that prevents vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) normally?

A

Obliquity of the intravesical segment of the ureter

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8
Q

Which vessel prevents the ascent of horseshoe kidney into the adult position?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

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9
Q

A hard structure was felt by the physician during palpation of the lower rectum in a male patient. What is this structure?

A. Prostate
B. Vas deferens
C. Seminal vesicle
D. Sigmoid colon

A

A. Prostate

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10
Q

Which drug causes acute interstitial nephritis as a hypersensitivity reaction?

A

NSAIDs

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Furosemide?

A

Inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransport

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12
Q

Which drug causes acute renal failure by preglomerular vasoconstriction?

A

Cyclosporine

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13
Q

Which drug causes rhabdomyolysis when administered in combination with enzyme inhibitors?

A

Livostatin

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14
Q

Gleason grading system of prostate cancer is based on which character?

A. Mitotic activity
B. Degree of differentiation
C. Perineural invasion

A

B. Degree of differentiation

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15
Q

A nodule was detected in the peripheral zone of the prostate gland. What is the diagnosis?

A. Prostate cancer
B. Acute prostatitis
C. BPH

A

A. Prostate cancer

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16
Q

A testicular tumor showed sheets of uniform tumor cells divided into lobules by fibrous septa with lymphocytes and plasma cells. What is the diagnosis?

A

Seminoma

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17
Q

Histopathological examination of a testicular tumor showed large cells with indistinct borders and pleomorphic large nuclei. What is the diagnosis?

A

Embryonal carcinoma

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18
Q

Which of the following causes hypernatremic hypovolemia with urine Na+ less than 20?

A. Diarrhea
B. Conn’s syndrome
C. Cushing syndrome

A

A. Diarrhea

19
Q

What is meant by the “two-hit model” in ADPKD?

A

1 germline mutation and 1 somatic spontaneous mutation

20
Q

A 45-year-old woman presented with proteinuria. Her kidney biopsy showed nodular sclerosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Diabtetic glomerosclerosis

21
Q

What is the ideal sample to diagnose Escherichia coli urinary tract infection?

A. Midstream urine
B. 3 early morning urine samples
C. Terminal portion of urine

A

A. Midstream urine

22
Q

What is the causative agent of chronic pyelonephritis?

A. Ecoli with K1 antigen
B. Ecoli0157
C. ETEC

A

A. Ecoli with K1 antigen

23
Q

Choose the causative agent in: A 26-year-old newly married female complains of cystitis after her honeymoon. The
organism is novobiocin resistant.

A. E. coli
B. S. saprophytics 
C. S. epidermidis 
D. P. mirabilis
E. P. vulgaris
A

B. S. saprophytics

24
Q

Choose the causative agent in: A patient presented with flank pain. A staghorn calculus was noted on his X-ray. Bacterial
culture revealed an organism that is urease positive and indole positive.
A. E. coli
B. S. saprophytics
C. S. epidermidis
D. P. mirabilis
E. P. vulgaris

A

E. P. vulgaris

25
Q

Which of the following criteria is used to diagnose acute renal failure?

A

A rise in serum creatinine more than 26 μmol/L within 24 hours

26
Q

Patients with which tubular defect present with nephrolithiasis?

A

Cystinuria

27
Q

What stimulates aldosterone secretion?

A

Hyperkalemia

28
Q

A patient had the following results: PAH clearance (RPF) = 550 ml/min, Creatinine clearance (GFR) = 110 ml/min, Glucose concentration in the plasma = 5 mg/ml
What is the plasma clearance of glucose?

A. 0
B. 35
C. 175

A

B. 35

29
Q

Which of the following activates the thirst center?

A. Increased osmolarity of blood
B. Increased ADH level
C. Low blood pressure

A

A. Increased osmolarity of blood

30
Q

What is the compensatory mechanism in metabolic alkalosis?

A

Hypoventilation with CO2 retention

31
Q

A 60-year-old male who is vomiting persistently will develop which acid-base disorder?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

32
Q

What decreases K+ secretion?

A

Sequestration of ROMK channels

33
Q

What increases Na+ reabsorption in volume contraction?

A. Decreased colloid pressure in peritubular capillaries
B. Dereased hydrostatic pressure in peritubular capillaries
C. Increased GFR

A

B. Dereased hydrostatic pressure in peritubular capillaries

34
Q

What depolarizes the membrane of principle cells and increases potassium secretion?

A

Increased Na delivery to macula densa

35
Q

What is responsible for regulation of K+ secretion under high K+ diet?

A

Both BK and ROMK

36
Q

Choose the factor responsible for the following events during volume expansion:
Increased free water clearance

A

ADH is suppressed

37
Q

Choose the factor responsible for the following events during volume expansion:
Decreased renin release

A

Increased perfusion pressure in the afferent arteriole

38
Q

Choose the factor responsible for the following events during volume contraction:
Decreased ANP release.

A. Angiotensin II
B. ADH
C. Aldosterone
D. Decreased stretch of the atrial receptors

A

D. Decreased stretch of the atrial receptors

39
Q

Choose the factor responsible for the following events during volume contraction:
Increased Na reabsorption in the collecting duct.

A. Angiotensin II
B. ADH
C. Aldosterone
D. Decreased stretch of the atrial receptors

A

C. Aldosterone

40
Q

EBM: The strongest feature that increases the validity of an RCT and makes treatment arms equal
on all factors except for the treatment.

A. No drop-outs
B. Blinding
C. Intention to treat
D. Stratification
E. Randomization
A

E. Randomization

41
Q

EBM: This feature prevents systemic error (bias) in outcome assessment in an RCT.

A. No drop-outs
B. Blinding
C. Intention to treat
D. Stratification
E. Randomization
A

B. Blinding

42
Q

EBM: A screening test for iron deficiency anemia has a pretest probability pf 90%. What is the effect of decreasing pretest probability from 90% to 10%?

A. sensitivity:increased,
specificity:decreased,
PPV:decreased,
NPV:increased

B. sensitivity:decreased,
specificity:increased,
PPV:increased,
NPV:decreased

C. sensitivity:same,
specificity:same,
PPV:decreased,
NPV:increased

D. sensitivity:same,
specificity:same,
PPV:increased,
NPV:decreased

A

C. sensitivity:same,
specificity:same,
PPV:decreased,
NPV:increased

43
Q

EBM: An RCT usually has a description of the baseline characteristics (age, sex, race … etc.) based on the treatment status (treatment group and placebo group). What is the main purpose of providing this table?

A. To show that confounding effect was minimized
B. To show that random error was controlled
C. To show the efficacy of the treatment
D. To show the statistical difference in different groups

A

A. To show that confounding effect was minimized

RENAL module - 4th year (17 decks)

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