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RENAL module - 4th year > 2011 module exam > Flashcards

2011 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

A 12-yr old boy presents with proteinuria and hematuria associated with periorbital puffiness, ankle edema, scrotal edema, and basal crepitations in the lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Post-strept glomerulonephritis
  • IgA nephropathy
A

• Post-strept glomerulonephritis

Note: due to the presence of extensive edema and age, post-strept GN is thought to be the correct answer. The picture shows an actual case of post-strept GN; please note the age and presentation.

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2
Q

What structure is formed by the union of the major calyces?

A

Renal pelvis

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3
Q

What structure can be injured during resection of the kidney?

A

• Ilioinguinal nerve

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4
Q

What provides parasympathetic innervation for micturition?

A

• Pelvic splanchnic

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5
Q

What acts as a physical barrier in the glomerular basement membrane?

  • Lamina Densa of basement membrane
  • Lamina rara of basement membrane
  • slit diaphragm
A

• Lamina Densa of basement membrane

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6
Q

What results from the failure of the collecting ducts to fuse with the tubular system of the nephron (renal vesicle)?

  • Polycystic kidney
  • Agenesis of the kidney
A

• Polycystic kidney

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7
Q

Which embryological structure will form the median umbilical ligament?

A

• Urachus

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8
Q

At which vertebral level are the horizontal lines of kidney Morris parallelogram drawn?

A

• T11 and L3

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9
Q

What are the extensions of the renal cortex into the renal medulla called?

A

• Renal columns

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10
Q

Which of the following describes the abnormality in horseshoe kidney?

A

• Fusion of the inferior poles of both kidneys

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11
Q

How does ADH help concentrate the medullary interstitium?

  • Reduces blood flow in the vasa recta
  • Increases permeability of CD to water
A

• Reduces blood flow in the vasa recta

Note: increasing the permeability of CD to water would concentrate urine not the interstitium

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12
Q

What increases the filtration through the glomerulus?

  • Increased protein leakage
  • Mesangial contraction
A

• Increased protein leakage

Note: proteins would pull water along with them increasing filtration

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13
Q

What increases potassium secretion in the distal tubule?

A

• Opening of ROMK channels

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14
Q

If someone is placed on a low potassium diet, he will probably develop hypokalemia. What would explain that?

A

• The kidney can’t reduce potassium excretion to less than 1%

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15
Q

Where does the largest drop in hydrostatic pressure take place in the kidney?

A

• Afferent arteriole

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16
Q

Which of the following increases GFR given all other factors are held constant?

A

• Increase in cardiac output

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17
Q

What stimulates renin release?

  • Hypotension
  • Alpha receptor agonist
  • Beta antagonist
A

• Hypotension

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18
Q

What results in an increase in ANP synthesis and release?

A

Stretch of volume atrial receptors

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19
Q

Which of the following occurs in volume contraction?

A

• Increased activity of Na/K ATPase

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20
Q

Which of the following has the highest clearance?

  • Penicillin
  • Creatinine
  • Urea
A

• Penicillin

Note: creatinine is filtered and slightly secreted while penicillin is filtered and completely secreted resulting in a higher clearance from blood

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21
Q

What characteristic facilitates diversion of blood from kidney to vital organs?

  • Increased sympathetic outflow severely reduces blood flow to the kidney
  • Renal blood flow is 40% of resting cardiac output
A

• Increased sympathetic outflow severely reduces blood flow to the kidney

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22
Q

Why would renal ischemia cause large rise in urea?

A

• large amount of blood is needed to be filtered through the kidney to excrete waste products

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23
Q

What is the key step involved in increased hydrogen reabsorption in the proximal tubule in volume contraction?

A

• Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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24
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the thick ascending loop of Henle?

A

• Sodium is reabsorbed by Na-K-C-C symporter

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25
Q

Which of the following is an effect of angiotensin?

A

• Increased peritubular oncotic pressure

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26
Q

What is the main absorptive pathway for potassium in the proximal tubule?

A

• Paracellular pathway

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27
Q

Which characteristic explains a constant renal blood flow despite fluctuations in blood pressure?

A

• RBF is autoregulated

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28
Q

When someone increases his sodium intake to 140 mEq/day and maintains it for few days. What is likely to occur?

  • Body weight gain of 1 Kg
  • Increase in mean arterial pressure
A

• Body weight gain of 1 Kg

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29
Q

Leakage of what would increase if nephrin is defective in GBM?

A

• Albumin

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30
Q

What is the filtered load of substance x if Px = 0.05 mg/ml, clearance of
inulin = 110 ml/min, and x is 60% bound to albumin?

A

• 2.2 mg/min

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31
Q

Whatisthegainoffreewaterif:Uosm=1300,Posm=270,andV= 0.6 ml/min?

  • -2.3L
  • 2.3L
A

• -2.3L

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32
Q

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria and polydipsia. Uosm = 72, Posm = 110, V= 6. ADH levels were not detectable. What does he have?

  • Psychogenic diabetes insipidus
  • Central diabetes insipidus
A

• Psychogenic diabetes insipidus

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33
Q

If a substance is freely filtered and secreted. Px = 1, RPF = 600 ml/min, GFR = 110 ml/min, and Tm = 100. What is the amount excreted?

A

• 210 mg/min

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34
Q

Which of the following is associated with increased free water clearance?

A

• Suppressed ADH levels

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35
Q

Which of the following is associated with increased hydrogen secretion in the proximal tubule in metabolic acidosis?

A

• Endothelin

36
Q

What increases hydrogen secretion in the distal tubule?

A

• Aldosterone

37
Q

What takes place if someone is placed on high potassium diet?

A

• Opening of ROMK and BK channels

38
Q

Which of the following is true regarding ADH ability to concentrate urine?

A

• It increases permeability of IMCD to urea

39
Q

How does metabolic alkalosis develop in a patient with hyperkalemia?

A

• Aldosterone activates K/H exchanger as well as N/H exchanger in the distal tubule

40
Q

A patient suffers from a severe myocardial infarction followed by congestive heart failure where his blood was sampled. Few days later he continues to suffer from a state of severe hypoperfusion where his blood was sampled for the second time.

What do you expect to detect in the first sample?

A

• Elevated plasma anion gap

Note: high anion gap metabolic acidosis resulting from increased
production of lactic acid immediately after hypoperfusion of tissues

41
Q

What do you expect to detect in the second sample?

A

• High blood concentration of uric acid

Note: the persistence of the hypoperfusion results in renal failure and accumulation of waste products including uric acid

42
Q

what is the condition in a patient with:
low blood pH, high PCO2, and normal [HCO3]?

  • Acute sedative overdose
  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A

• Acute sedative overdose

Note: the lack of metabolic compensation (normal [HCO3]) indicates an acute cause of respiratory acidosis; in COPD, the compensation would be very prominent (high [HCO3])

43
Q

ABG in a patient was as follows: pH is low, PaCO2 is low, [HCO3] is low, anion gap was normal. What most likely explains his condition?

A

• Accidental ingestion of HCL

44
Q

A history of a patient was given and is indicative of metabolic alkalosis; what is true regarding the compensatory mechanisms in this patient?

A

• The kidney stops producing new bicarbonate

45
Q

A diabetic patient who developed metabolic acidosis and went into a coma; (ABG and acid-base profile of the patient were given (on calculation, urinary anion gap yielded a value of -2, and osmolal gap was high), and urine sodium was low. What is true regarding the compensatory mechanisms of this patient?

  • Ammonium excretion has largely increased
  • The low urinary anion gap indicates no acid excretion
A

• Ammonium excretion has largely increased

Note: both answers were pretty confusing, and it was difficult to choose between them. Hence, we asked Prof. Zoran who we thought had written the question, and his explanation was as follows:
Although the urinary anion gap is low, it doesn’t necessarily indicate no acid excretion because low urine sodium results in an apparent decrease in UAG (UAG = (Na + K) – Cl). In addition, since the osmolal gap reflects the amount of ammonium excretion (NH4 = osmolal gap/2) and is found to be high, the answer highlighted above is most likely to be the correct one.

46
Q

A 10-yr old boy presented with heavy proteinuria and edema. A kidney biopsy revealed a normal histology. What is expected to show ultrastructuarlly?

A

• Complete effacement of foot processes

47
Q

A renal mass was incidentally found in an asymptomatic patient. Microscopy revealed a tumor with abundant mitochondria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

• Oncocytoma

48
Q

A renal tumor showed cells with perinuclear halo. What is it most likely to be?

A

• Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma

49
Q

Which renal tumor would show abundant mitochondria and eosinophilic cytoplasm?

A

• Oncocytoma

50
Q

What is expected to be seen in a patient with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

• Neutrophils in glomerular capillary loops

51
Q

Which gene is mutated in ARPKD?

A

• PKHD1

52
Q

A patient presents to the clinic with colic pain. An x-ray was taken which showed a radio-opacity which later was found to be a stone. What is the composition of the stone most likely to be?

A

• Calcium oxalate

53
Q

Which of the following features characterizes yolk sac tumors?

A

• Schiller-Duvall bodies

54
Q

Which of the following tumors is not associated with intratubular germ cell neoplasia?

A

• Teratoma

55
Q

Which of the following tumors is associated with Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome?

A

• Sertoli cell tumor

56
Q

ABG in a patient was as follows: pH is normal, PaCO2 is normal, [HCO3] is normal. Which statement is true?

A

• On calculation, anion gap is found to be elevated

57
Q

A patient was admitted to the OT to undergo brain surgery where he started to hyperventilate and fell unconscious. ABG: pH is high, PaCO2 is low, [HCO3] is low. What condition did he develop?

A

• Acute respiratory alkalosis

58
Q

A patient with renal failure has chronic congestive heart failure and started to hyperventilate. His ABG was as follows: pH is high, PaCO2 is low, and [HCO3] is low. What is his condition most likely to be?

A

• Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

59
Q

A patient had a nasogastric tube. The nurse noted that the NGT is draining a large amount of coffee ground secretions. His ABG was as follows: pH is high, PaCO2 is normal, [HCO3] is high. What did he develop?

A

• Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

60
Q

A patient came to the clinic and a mass was detected on rectal examination accompanied by hematuria. How can the diagnosis be confirmed?

A

• Transrectal ultrasound biopsy

61
Q

What causes obstruction to flow of urine through the urethra?

A

• Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate

62
Q

What confers a high risk for carcinoma of the prostate?

A

• High grade intraepithelial prostate neoplasia

63
Q

What is a complication of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

• Hydroureter and hydronephrosis

64
Q

A man was on a drug for 10 years and developed renal failure. What would the renal biopsy reveal?

A

• Lymphocytic infiltrate

65
Q

A woman was using a drug for few days when she developed rash, eosinophiluria and renal failure. What is the most likely cause of her condition?

A

• Drug allergy

66
Q

A man was found to have bacteriuria. What is expected to show histologically in the kidney?

A

• Neutrophilic infiltration

67
Q

A patient was using a drug for 10 years. He developed renal failure. What can be seen in the renal biopsy?

A

• Lymphocytic infiltration

68
Q

A man was using a drug for three days when he developed acute renal failure. What is expected to show histologically?

A

• Eosinophilic infiltrate

69
Q

A 65-yr old man presents with hematuria without dysuria. A 2-cm sessile friable mass was found in the dome of the bladder?

  • Tubulocystic glandular structures
  • Pleomorphic urothelium with papillary folds
A

• Tubulocystic glandular structures

Note: The dome of the bladder is the typical site for adenocarcinoma of the bladder; the question was not of Dr. Salah’s, and it wasn’t in any of the notes either

70
Q

A 35 yr-old woman presents with a 2-yr history of hematuria without hypertension or proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Thin membrane disease
  • Lupus nephritis
A

• Thin membrane disease

71
Q

A patient was found to have non elevated anion gap acidosis, and her urine sodium was < 10 mEq/L. what is the most likely cause of her acidosis?

A

• Diarrhea

72
Q

A patient was found to have a high anion gap metabolic acidosis with wide osmolal gap. What is the most likely cause of his acidosis?

A

• Methanol poisoning

73
Q

What is true regarding renal tubular acidosis?

A

• Distal RTA is associated with stone formatio

74
Q

What would be a feature of a benign cyst?

A

• It has a homogenous content

75
Q

A patient developed lower limb edema and ascites; there was no pulmonary edema or heart gallop. What would be the first step to manage him?

  • Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload
  • Biopsy his kidney
  • Tap his ascites
A

• Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload

76
Q

Which drug can be administered along with loop diuretics to preserve potassium balance?

A

• Amiloride

77
Q

How would non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) result in acute renal failure?

A

• They cause increased intraglomerular resistance

78
Q

Which drug can increase serum creatinine in hypertensive diabetic patients?

  • Captopril
  • cyclosporine
A

• Captopril

79
Q

Which drug can form crystals in the renal tubules leading to obstruction of urine flow?

A

• Acyclovir

80
Q

Which drug can cause rhabdomyolysis when used with cytochrome P450 inhibitors?

A

• Levostatin

81
Q

A woman with urinary tract infection. Here urine was sampled and yielded a bacteria that do not produce nitrate. What is the most likely causative agent?

  • Group B streptococci
  • E. coli
A

• Group B streptococci

82
Q

A patient was found to have a staghorn calculus, and his urine was found to be alkaline. What is the most likely associated infectious agent?

A

• Proteus mirabilis

83
Q

Which of the following features is associated with formation of all types of stones?

A

• Reduced solubility of salts

84
Q

Which transporter is mutated in patients with familial renal glycosuria?

A

• SGLT2

85
Q

What predispose to nephrolithiasis in patients with cysteinuria?
• Reduced reabsorption of cysteine
• Reduced solubility of cysteine

A

• Reduced reabsorption of cysteine

RENAL module - 4th year (17 decks)

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