139 Influenza Flashcards

1
Q

What is the phenotype model for frailty?

A
Five variables - 3 or more = frail
W/L
Self reported exhaustion
Low energy
Slow gait
Weak grip strength
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2
Q

What is the cumulative deficit model of frailty?

A

92 variables of symptoms + signs + lab results.

Frailty index calculated

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3
Q

What is meant by the term ‘medical futility’?

A

Interventions that are unlikely to produce any significant benefit for the patient

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4
Q

What is meant by the term quantitative medical futility?

A

The consultant is the expert in balancing the benefits and burdens of the treatment

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5
Q

What is meant by the term qualitative medical futility?

A

The pt is the ‘expert’ in balancing the benefits and burdens of the treatment

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6
Q

What is the ‘error’ theory of ageing?

A

Accumulation of errors in the process of information flow from genes to proteins resulting in faulty proteins that do not function normally resulting in impaired cell function and death.

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7
Q

What is the ‘free-radical’ theory of ageing?

A

Ageing is due to cells accumulating damage from free radicals over time

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8
Q

What is the immune theory of ageing?

A

Gradual deterioration of the immune system brought about by natural age advancement.

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9
Q

What is meant by ‘neuroendocrine theory of ageing’?

A

That ageing is caused by a progressive loss of sensitivity by the hypothalamus and related structures in the brain to negative feedback inhibition

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10
Q

What does stiffening of the walls of the vessels along with increased vascular resistance in the elderly lead to?

A

Hypertension –> left ventricular hypertrophy

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11
Q

What could the reduction of atrial pacemaker cells in the elderly lead to?

A

AF

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12
Q

Why do the elderly often get postural hypotension?

A

Their veins are stiffer and so are less able to buffer the effect of pooling of the blood in the venous system - unable to shift the fluid back to the heart.

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13
Q

What percentage of brain mass is lost by age 80?

A

30%

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14
Q

What is the outcome of a loss of baroreceptor sensitivity in the elderly?

A

They are less able to cope with abrupt changes in physiology

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15
Q

What is presbyacusis?

A

Age related hearing loss - most marked at higher frequency

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16
Q

What is enophthalmos?

A

Posterior displacement of the eyeball

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17
Q

What change happens to the basement membrane in the glomerulus in the elderly? Leading to…?

A

Becomes more permeable –> albuminuria and proteinuria is a normal finding

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18
Q

What type of epithelium does the uroepithelium change into during ageing?

A

Stratified squamous

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19
Q

Which factors contribute to reduced food intake and impaired mastication in the elderly? (7 listed)

A
Reduced saliva production
Masticatory muscle loss
Tooth loss and poor dental hygiene 
Decrease in taste buds and therefore sensation
Decrease in sense of smell
Atrophy of jaw
Tongue enlargement
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20
Q

What are the clinical features of delerium? (7 listed)

A
Impaired consciousness
Disorientation
Behaviour changes
Slowed thinking
Altered perceptions - visual hallucinations
Mood disturbances
Memory impairment
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21
Q

What can increased serum ADH in the elderly lead to?

A

Chronic hyponatraemia

22
Q

Why are the elderly more likely to suffer from hypothermia?

A

Impaired shivering
Impaired cutaneous vasoconstriction
Impaired hepatic thermogenesis

23
Q

Achlorhydria occurs in the elderly. What is it and why is it a problem?

A

Reduction in stomach acid production

Affects the absorption of drugs

24
Q

Why is there a decrease in first pass metabolism in the elderly?

A

Partly due to decreased hepatic blood flow

25
Q

What happens to the proportion of body fat with age?

A

Increases

26
Q

What is the risk of an increased proportion of body fat with age? (pharmacokinetics)

A

Increased distribution of hydrophilic drugs

27
Q

Why might elderly patients appear to have a normal serum creatinine when they have renal impairment?

A

They have a decreased muscle mass

28
Q

What does the Cockroft- Gault equation calculate?

A

Creatinine clearance

29
Q

What is xanthopsia?

A

Yellow vision

30
Q

What is the principal infection caused by rotavirus? Enveloped/non-enveloped?

A

Gastroenteritis in children

Non- enveloped

31
Q

Does influenza have DNA or RNA?

A

-ssRNA

32
Q

Does HSV have RNA/DNA?

A

dsDNA

33
Q

What are the stages in the life cycle of a virus?

A
Attachment
Penetration and uncoating
Replication
Assembly
Maturation
Release
34
Q

How are herpes and poxvirus able to infect more than one type of host cell?

A

They use more than one type of cell

35
Q

What are the 3 methods of viral penetration?

A
  1. Viral translocation
  2. Surface fusion
  3. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
36
Q

How and why does the virus containing endosome become more acidic?

A

Fusion with cellular lysosomes and H+ pumped into the endosome. Conformational change –> viral coat fuses with membrane of the endosome –>viral genome into the cytoplasm of the host cell

37
Q

Which enzyme is needed for viral RNA replication (usually taken into host by the virus)?

A

RNA polymerase

Although -ssRNA viruses can act as mRNA –> RNA polymerases =first things to be made

38
Q

Where in the host cell are the viral proteins necessary for capsid assembly anchored?

A

In the internal membranes of the organelles of the host cells

39
Q

What causes lysis of a host cell infected with a virus?

A

Normal functions of a cell not met

40
Q

Which virus has an RNA genome but replicates in the nucleus and not the cytoplasm of its host cell?

A

Influenza

41
Q

Why does HSV make its own enzymes for DNA replication instead of using the hosts?

A

Allows a faster replication when the host cells are ‘resting’

42
Q

What is the MOA of immunoglobulins when treating eg rabies/VSV/HepB?

A

Block the attachment of viruses to host cells by attaching to the viral structures which are necessary for this.

43
Q

What is the MOA of the antiviral Palivizumab? What is it used to treat?

A

Blocks the attachment of the virus to host cell by binding to the fusion GP on RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)

44
Q

What is the MOA of the antiviral amantadine? What is it used to treat?

A

Prophylactic Tx of influenza - interferes with viral protein M2 (proton pump) –>acidification of the endosome doesn’t happen.

45
Q

Which step in the lifecycle of a virus does aciclovir interfere with?

A

Replication

46
Q

How does the antiviral aciclovir interfere with replication of HSV/VZV virus?

A

Structurally similar to guanisine so incorporated into the viral DNA and prevents replication downstream

47
Q

What is the antviral gancyclovir used to treat?

A

CMV pneumonias in immunocompromised patients

48
Q

What are the SE of the antiviral gancyclovir?

A
neutropaenia
anaemia
thrombocytopaenia
leucopaenia
pancytopaenia
diarrhoea, dyspnoea, damage to liver/kideys
tremor
49
Q

Which step in the lifecycle of a virus does oseltamivir inhibit?

A

Release

50
Q

What is the MOA of the antiviral oseltamivir?

A

Inhibits viral neuramindase - required for budding and release of the virus

51
Q

What are the side effects of the antiviral oseltamivir?

A

nausea, headache, cough, abdo pain

52
Q

When should oseltamivir be given?

A

Within 48 hours of symptoms only when high rates in the community