128 Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 4 types of hormones

A
  1. peptide
  2. aa derivatives
  3. steroid
  4. eicosanoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are peptide hormones water soluble or lipid soluble?

A

Water soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

From which 2 sites is the peptide hormone somatostatin secreted from?

A

Hypothalamus and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which 2 peptide hormones does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A

Vasopressin

Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which peptide hormone is secreted from the placenta?

A

hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which 3 peptide hormones are released from the pancreas?

A

Glucagon

Insulin

Somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are steroid hormones synthesises?

A

Adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where do the steroid hormones bind to receptors?

(cellular)

A

Nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex

A
  1. Zona glomerulosa
  2. Zona fasciculata
  3. Zona reticularis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which steroid hormone is secreted from the Zona Glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex?

A

Aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the role of aldosterone?

A

Control of BP - acts on the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney to increase resorption of H2O and increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism by which aldosterone is released from the Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex?

A

RAAS system –> renin secreted from the kidneys in response to electrolyte conc of the blood. This converts angiotensiogen into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I into angiotensin II by ACE secreted by the lungs. Angiotensin II makes adrenal cortex secrete aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which glucocorticoid is secreted by the Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is cortisol secreted from?

A

Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of cortisol? (3 listed)

A
  1. Control of carbohydrate metabolism
    • increases aa conc in the blood by inhibiting protein synthesis in tissues
    • promotes use of fat for energy
    • stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
  2. Inflammatory response - suppresses by preventing Tcell proliferation
  3. Stress response - ie redistributing glu to the areas which need it most
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which steroid hormones are secreted from the zona reticularis in the adrenal cortex?

A

Sex hormones: androgens and oestrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which amino acid are the catecholamines derived from?

A

Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which catecholamines are secreted by the adrenal medulla?

A

NA and adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which amino acid derived hormones are secreted from the thyroid gland?

A

T3 - triiodothyronine

T4 - thyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are eicosanoids and what are they derived from?

A

Hormones/signalling molecules derived from PUFAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which eicosanoid is involved with inflammation and pain sensation?

A

prostaglandin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which eicosanoid is involved with the increase of vascular permeability and vasodilation during inflammation?

A

thromboxanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which enzymes catalyse oxygenation of fatty acids to produce eicosanoids?

A

COX (cyclooxygenase) and LOX (lysil oxidase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which nucleus in the hypothalamus is responsible for circadian rhythm?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In the stress response, which hormone is released from the hypothalamus to act on the anterior pituitary?
CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) --\>ant pit secretes ACTH --\> acts on the adrenal cortex --\> secreted cortisol
26
Where is calcitonin secreted from?
Thyroid gland
27
What is the function of calcitonin? (3 ways in which it acts)
Acts to reduce serum [Ca2+] - opposite effect to PTH * Inhibits Ca2+ absorption by the intestines * Inhibits osteoclast activity in bones * Inhibits renal tubular cell reabsorption of Ca2+ allowing it to be excreted in the urine
28
What is the function of PTH?
To increase serum [Ca2+] by: * stimulating osteoclastic bone resorption * It enhances active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from distal tubules and the thick ascending limb * It enhances the absorption of calcium in the intestine by increasing the production of activated vitamin D
29
Which cells produce PTH?
Chief cells of the parathyroid gland
30
Which cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon?
α cells of the pancreas
31
Which cells secrete insulin in the pancreas?
β cells
32
What is the effect of glucagon secretion by the pancreas?
Causes glucose production by the liver - glycogenolysis and gluconeogensis therefore prevents **hypo**glycaemia
33
What is the effect of insulin secretion by the βcells in the pacreas?
Reduction in glucose plasma levels - prevents gluconeogenesis by the liver and increases glucose transport into cells. Prevents **hyper**glycaemia
34
Which investigations should be performed when suspecting differentiated thyroid Ca? (4 listed)
* USS * FNAC (fine needle aspiration and cytology) * serum thyroglobulin * whole body scans
35
What is the treatment for thyroid Ca?
Thyroid surgery/ radioiodine Rx (Iodine 131)
36
How can a goitre present?
Neck mass with compression symptoms
37
Which disease is associated with a goitre?
Hyperthyroidism
38
Which blood test should be performed when diagnosing a goitre?
TSH
39
What is the cause of primary hypothyroidism?
Insufficient TH produced by the thyroid
40
What is the diagnosis? * low metabolic rate * sensitivity to cold * poor memory * increased weight * elevated THS * low TH
Primary hypothyroidism
41
What would a low TSH level and low TH level indicate?
Secondary hypothyroidism
42
What is the treatment for primary hypothyroidism?
Thyroxine
43
Excess production of chatecolamines caused by adrenal/extra-adrenal tumour. What is the disease?
Pheochromocytoma
44
Which conditions are associated with pheochromocytoma? (4 listed)
* Von Hippel Lindau syndrome * phakomatoses * neurofibromatosis * multiple endocrine neoplasmas
45
Which investigations should be performed to diagnose pheochromacytoma?
* 24 hour urine --\> would show increased chatecholamines and metabolites
46
What is the diagnosis: excess aldosterone production from the adrenal cortex causing endocrine HTN ?
Conn's syndrome
47
What signs and symptoms are present in Conn'd syndrome? (3 listed)
* HTN * hypokalaemia * metabolic alkalosis
48
Which invesigations should be performed to confirm diagnosis of Conn's syndrome?
* 9am rennin and aldosterone --\> would show loe rennin and high aldosterone * U&EC * CT/MRI * MIBG scan - to rule out pheochromocytoma
49
What is a MIBG scan?
Iobenguane = radioisotope also referred to as MIBG used in scintography method called MIBG scan. Its a similar molecule to NA and so is useful for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma/neuroblastoma
50
What is spironolactone used to treat?
Conn's syndrome if bilateral hyperplasia of adrenals
51
What is the treatment for Conn's syndrome if there's an adenoma present? What if bilateral hyperplasia?
* adrenalectomy if adenoma * low salt diet and spironolactone if bilateral hyperplasia
52
What is the most likely diagnosis? * Hyperpigmentation * general malaise * N&V * hypoglycaemia * postural hypotension * W/L * hyponatraemia * hyperkalaemia * inadequate cortisol response to synacthen * increased ACTH
Addisons disease
53
What is the treatment for Addisons disease?
* hydrocortisone - 10mg BD * fludrocortisone - 0.1mg OD
54
What is the immediate treatment of an Addisonian crisis?
100mg hydrocortisone IV
55
What syndrome is caused by excess cortisol production cause dby adrenal tumours, pituitary tumours or ectopic ACTH production?
Cushings
56
What is the diagnosis? - * central obesity * buffalo hump * moon face * HTN * poor wound healing * thin skin * hirsuitism * depression * fatigue
Cushing's syndrome
57
In Cushings, where is the disease if the ACTH levels are high?
Pituitary
58
In Cushings, where is the disease if ACTH is low?
Adrenals
59
What investigation should be performed to diagnose Cushing's?
* 24 hour dex test * give low dose dexamethasone at night - in normal individuals, it should cause cortisol suppression * cortisol not suppressed in Cushing's at 9am the next day
60
What condition is metyrapone used to treat?
Cushing's
61
What is the MOA of metyrapone in the treatment for Cushing's syndrome?
To reduce cortisol and corticosterone production by inhibiting the 11-ß-hydroxylation reaction
62
What condition is associated with a deficiency in 21 hydroxylase?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
63
Which pathway is 21-hydroxylase involved with in the adrenal cortex?
Glucocorticoid pathway ending in production of Aldosterone
64
Which condition causes reduced aldosterone secretion in children and excess androgen production in adults?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
65
What investigations should be performed when diagnosing congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Synacthen
66
What is the cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Adenoma/hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
67
What signs and symptoms are associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
Generally asymptomatic but can have symptoms of hypercalcaemia: * Stones, moans and groans... * kidney stones * tiredness * muscle weakness * dehydration * N&V * bone pain * arrhythmias
68
What investigations should be performed to diagnose primary hypoparathyroidism? (4 listed)
* serum PTH (high) * serum Ca2+ (high) * serum P04- (low) * urinary Ca2+ (high)
69
What is usually the cause of hypoparathyroidism?
Surgery - e.g. partial/complete thyroidectomy
70
What is the diagnosis? - * increased neuromuscular excitability * tingling in the extremities * tetany * epileptic convulsions * prolonged QT intervals * cataracts * low PTH * low Ca2+, high phosphate
Hypoparathyroidism
71
What symptoms are associates with hypomagnasaemia? (hint: causes low PTH secretion) 6 listed
* Increased neuromuscular excitibility * tingling in extremities * tetany * epileptic convulsions * prolonged QT intervals * cataracts
72
What can cause hypomagnasaemia?
* D&V * PPIs
73
What is 'knuckle knuckle dimple dimple' a characteristic of?
Albrights Hereditary Dystrophy in pseudohypoparathyroidism - short 4th and 5th metacarpals
74
What is the treatment for pseudohypoparathyroidism?
VitD
75
What can cause primary hypogonadism in males? (4 listed)
* Klinefelters * Castration * chemoTx * chronic liver/kidney disease
76
What are the signs and symptoms in primary hypogonadism in ♂
* small/ absent testes * gyneacomastia * infertility * decreased libido * decreased hair * osteoporosis
77
What is the treatment for primary hypogonadism in males?
* Testosterone * sildenafil * infertility Tx
78
What investigations should be performed to diagnose primary hypogonadism in males?
* bloods * testosterone (low) * LH (high) * FSH (high) * seminal analysis
79
What could primary amenorrhoea indicate?
Turners Foetal androgen deficiency
80
What is the treatment for precocious puberty?
LHRH
81
What could cause premature ovarian failure?
* previous chemo * organ specific immune disease
82
What are the S&S of PCOS?
* hirsuitism * acne
83
What is the treatment for PCOS?
* metformin * oestrogen and progesterone * infertility treatment