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CFoM > 01b: Peripheral Blood > Flashcards

01b: Peripheral Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Peripheral blood is a mixture of:

A
  1. Cellular elements
  2. Metabolites
  3. Proteins
  4. Fluids
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2
Q

T/F: peripheral blood is slightly viscous.

A

True

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3
Q

How many L of peripheral blood can be found in a typical adult?

A

6 L (about 7-8% body weight)

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4
Q

Which tissue type is examined more often for diagnostic purposes than Peripheral blood, which is (Y) tissue?

A

Y = connective

None! Connective tissue is examined most often for clinical diagnostic purposes

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5
Q

What are the key functions of blood?

A
  1. Plasma: Maintains microenvironment of tissues/cells in body
  2. Transport system
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6
Q

Blood is extracted for clinical analysis via which routine, invasive procedure?

A

Venipuncture

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7
Q

Which (artery/vein) is most common for blood extraction?

A

Median cubital vein

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8
Q

What’s the fate of blood that’s placed in tube without anticoagulant?

A

Will coagulate (clot); result in clumped cells in serum

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9
Q

You draw blood into tube with anticoagulant. Describe the layers you see.

A

No layers prior to centrifugation

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10
Q

Following centrifugation, a blood sample with anticoagulant will have which layers?

A

(From top layer)

  1. Plasma
  2. Platelets
  3. “Buffy coat” (WBC)
  4. Erythrocytes/hematocrit
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11
Q

Bottom layer of centrifuged blood sample is (RBC/WBC/other), also called (X).

A

RBC;

X = hematocrit

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12
Q

Centrifuged blood sample with anticoagulant is (X)% plasma and (Y)% platelets.

A 
X = 50-65
Y = less than 1
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13
Q

Centrifuged blood sample with anticoagulant is (X)% WBC and (Y)% RBC.

A 
X = 1
Y = 35-45 (women) or 40-50 (men)
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14
Q

Plasma is primarily composed of (X).

A

X = water (90%)

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15
Q

9% of plasma is composed of (X).

A

X = Protein

Albumin, globulins, clotting factors, complement proteins, lipoproteins

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16
Q

1% of plasma is made up of:

A
  1. Blood electrolytes
  2. Gasses
  3. Glucose
  4. Hormones
  5. Other regulatory agents
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17
Q

T/F: To analyze hormone levels, the most important layer in blood sample is the hematocrit.

A

False

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18
Q

CBC, aka (X), is important for clinical analysis. What’s being measured/observed?

A

X = complete blood count

  1. Hemoglobin concentration
  2. RBC (%)
  3. WBC count
  4. Platelet count
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19
Q

A high count of immature RBC, aka (X), indicates that:

A

X = reticulocytes

Bone marrow is releasing reticulocytes at faster rate than their maturation rate

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20
Q

In CBC, what’s a normal reticulocyte count/fraction?

A

Less than 2%

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21
Q

What’s the key difference between ribosomes in RBC and in reticulocytes?

A

RBC don’t have ribosomes. Reticulocytes do

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22
Q

T/F: CBC only really looks at the complete count/fraction of various elements in a blood sample.

A

False - also looks at RBC and WBC morphology

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23
Q

Briefly explain method of analysis by Flow Cytometry.

A

Blood cells pass single file through laser beam

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24
Q

In Flow Cytometry, the cells travel (parallel/perpendicular/at angle) to laser beam.

A

Perpendicular

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25
Q

Where is the detector placed in Flow Cytometry?

A

Two detectors:

  1. Directly in front of laser beam
  2. At angle to laser beam
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26
Q

Which characteristics of blood cells can be plotted using Flow Cytometry?

A
  1. Cell size (via forward scatter of laser light)

2. Cell granularity (via side scatter of laser light)

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27
Q

Variation in relative (X) of blood elements can indicate pathology.

A

X = morphology or proportions

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28
Q

Which cells contain respiratory pigment.

A

Erythrocytes

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29
Q

Most peripheral cells, (X)%, are:

A

X = 99

RBC (erythrocytes)

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30
Q

Typical survival time for erythrocytes is:

A

120 days

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31
Q

Describe morphology of erythrocyte nucleus.

A

Erythrocytes are anucleate cells (and devoid of typical organelles)

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32
Q

RBCs shaped like (X) for what reason?

A

X = biconcave disc

Enhance surface area (shorter diffusion distance) and easy to deform without changing surface area

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33
Q

About (X)% of the RBC volume is hemoglobin.

A

X = 33

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34
Q

Hb can be found on/in which part of RBC?

A

In cytoplasm

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35
Q

The existence of various blood groups is due to:

A

Surface antigens and serum antibodies of RBC

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36
Q

You are likely to count about 5 million (X) cells per microliter of normal blood sample.

A

X = red blood cells

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37
Q

You are likely to count about 4-10 thousand (X) cells per microliter of normal blood sample.

A

X = white blood cells

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38
Q

T/F: A 50% increase in WBC count is not clinically significant.

A

True - must be 4-5x normal count to suggest pathology

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39
Q

List the various types of WBC, from most to least relative % in blood.

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Eosinophils
  5. Basophils
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40
Q

PMN, aka (X), is another name for (Y).

A

X = polymorphonuclear neutrophil

Y = neutrophils

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41
Q

What’s a band cell?

A

Immature neutrophil

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42
Q

The body’s first line of defense.

A

Neutrophils

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43
Q

Aggressive phagocytes, aka (X), make up (Y)% of WBC.

A 
X = neutrophils
Y = 60-70
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44
Q

T/F: You’ll primarily see increase of neutrophils in chronic bacterial infections.

A

False - acute infections

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45
Q

How long do neutrophils last in blood/tissue?

A

Under 1 day in blood: 1-5 days in connective tissue

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46
Q

Name the one functional compartment of neutrophils.

A

There are 4 functional compartments:

  1. Bone marrow production
  2. Bone marrow storage
  3. Circulating blood cells
  4. Marinating blood cells
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47
Q

T/F: neutrophils are the most numerous of the agranulocyte WBC in blood.

A

False - neutrophils are granulocytes

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48
Q

List stages of extravasation of (RBC/WBC) from (X) to (Y).

A

WBC; from vascular lumen to interstitium

  1. Rolling
  2. Activation/adhesion
  3. Lateral migration
  4. Diapedesis
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49
Q

List the types of diapedesis.

A
  1. Paracellular (WBC migrates through gap between endothelial cells)
  2. Transcellular (WBC makes and travels through pore in endothelial cell)
50
Q

A bar body is (X) and can be found in which cell type?

A

X = inactivated X chromosome

Seen as small protrusion at end of neutrophil nucleus

51
Q

In which patient population can one find a bar body?

A

Females only

52
Q

Describe normal morphology of neutrophil nucleus.

A

Segmented with 2-6 lobes

53
Q

T/F: the arrangement of lobes of nucleophil nucleus is dynamic in living cells.

A

True

54
Q

T/F: neutrophil nucleus normally changes shape and position, but changing number of lobes indicates pathology.

A

False! Dynamic arrangement includes number of nucleus lobes as well

55
Q

List granules present in nucleophils.

A
  1. Azurophilic
  2. Cell-specific neutrophilic
  3. Tertiary
56
Q

Azurophilic granules contain:

A

Lysosomes

57
Q

Cell-specific neutrophilic granules contain:

A

Enzymes and antimicrobial agents

58
Q

Tertiary granules in neutrophils contain:

A

Gelatinases and collagenases (facilitate migration)

59
Q

Without (X), neutrophil migration would be compromised.

A

X = tertiary granules

60
Q

T/F: Neutrophil target specificity is fairly low.

A

True

61
Q

Describe specific action by tertiary neutrophil granules in the cell’s ability to (X).

A

X = migrate

Granules secreted; breakdown collagen and glycans that make up ECM

62
Q

Upon reaching its target, the neutrophil will:

A

engulf target (i.e. bacteria) via phagocytosis

63
Q

What’s a phagosome?

A

Intracellular vacuole that holds the phagocytosed target of neutrophil

64
Q

List a key different, if any, between the phagosome environment and the cytoplasm environment.

A

Reduced pH in phagosome

65
Q

(X) cells are responsible for fever during infection. Explain.

A

X = neutrophils

Secrete Interleukin-1 (a pyrogen that generates heat) after phagocytosis of target

66
Q

Pyrogens target:

A

Thermoregulatory centers in brain

67
Q

T/F: IL-1 directly targets thermoregulatory centers in brain.

A

False - indirectly, via intermediary

68
Q

In a neutrophil, what’s the fate of the engulfed target?

A
  1. Killed via enzymes and ROS (specific granules)

2. Digested via lysosomal enzymes (azurophilic granules)

69
Q

About how many times can a neutrophil divide before it dies?

A

Can’t divide - terminally differentiated and doesn’t undergo mitosis

70
Q

Pus is formed from:

A

Neutrophil’s semidigested material and tissue fluid

71
Q

Eosinophils primarily function in response to:

A

Inflammation and parasitic infections

72
Q

Which WBC are responsible for “dampening down” inflammatory responses?

A

Eosinophils

73
Q

How long are eosinophils in blood/tissue?

A

Less than 1 day in blood; 2 weeks in connective tissue

74
Q

What’s the primary function of eosinophils in peripheral blood?

A

No function in blood; function in connective tissue

75
Q

Eosinophil morphology: nucleus (is/isn’t) segmented and typically (X).

A

Is;

X = bilobed

76
Q

List granules present in eosinophil.

A
  1. Azurophilic

2. Specific eosinophilic

77
Q

Which specific part of (X) cell responsible for targeting parasitic infections?

A

X = eosinophil

Internum of the specific eosinophilic granules

78
Q

Describe the coffee-bean look of (X) granules.

A

X = specific eosinophilic

Internum contains compounds to target parasitic infections; externum contains compounds to reduce inflammation

79
Q

Internum of (X) granules contains:

A

X = specific eosinophilic

  1. Major basic protein
  2. Eosinophilic cationic protein
  3. Parasitic neurotxins
80
Q

Externum of (X) granules contains:

A

X = specific eosinophilic

  1. Aryl sulfatase
  2. Histaminase
  3. Acid phosphatase
81
Q

Basophils are primarily responsible for:

A

Vascular disturbances associated with hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis

82
Q

(X) WBC play a role in constriction of (Y) smooth muscle.

A 
X = basophils
Y = pulmonary
83
Q

T/F: Basophils function and primarily remains in peripheral blood.

A

True

84
Q

Basophilic granules contain (X) which can cause:

A

X = pharmocologic agents

  1. Widespread vasodilation
  2. Decrease in blood volume (blood vessel leakiness)
85
Q

Morphology of basophil: the nucleus (is/isn’t) segmented and typically (X).

A

Is;

X = bilobed

86
Q

List granules present in basophil.

A
  1. Azurophilic

2. Specific basophilic

87
Q

Specific basophilic granules contain:

A
  1. Histamine
  2. Heparin
  3. Eosinophil chemotaxic factor
  4. Neutrophil chemotaxic factor
88
Q

(X) cells behave like basophils. What’s the key structural feature of the membrane?

A

X = mast

IgE Ab to allergens decorate outside of the cells

89
Q

Upon detection of (X) by Ab on mast cell, which series of events occurs?

A

X = allergen

  1. All Ab clump
  2. Intracellular vacuoles migrate to cell periphery and fuse membranes
  3. Massive exocytosis of histamines, heparin, etc.
90
Q

The “garbage collector” of WBC.

A

Monocyte

91
Q

Monocytes are produced by:

A

Bone marrow AND mitosis of other monocytes

92
Q

Monocytes primarily function as:

A
  1. Active phagocytes

2. Antigen-presenting cells

93
Q

Which WBC are crucial to immune system’s ability to adapt?

A

Monocytes

94
Q

(X) cells process antigenic material and present it to (Y).

A 
X = monocytes
Y = lymphocytes
95
Q

Basophil content is relatively high in (X) state.

A

X = chronic infection

96
Q

The “park rangers” of WBC.

A

Lymphocytes

97
Q

Which structural features characterize lymphocytes?

A

Large, heterochromatic nucleus and very little cytoplasm

98
Q

Each lymphocyte is programmed to detect how many different kinds of (X)?

A

X = antigenic epitopes

Only one type

99
Q

Which cell type(s) is/are able to leave and enter circulation multiple times?

A

Only lymphocytes

100
Q

The majority of lymphocytes are specifically (X) cells.

A

X = T-cells (80%)

101
Q

Lymphocytes function in the body’s adaptive (X) responses.

A

X = humoral and cell-mediated immune

102
Q

A thrombocyte, aka (X), has what type of nucleus morphology?

A

X = platelet

Non-nucleated!

103
Q

Platelets are produced from (small/large) (X) cells, which reside in (Y).

A

Very large
X = megakaryocyte
Y = bone marrow

104
Q

Shape of platelet:

A

Biconvex disc

105
Q

Lifespan of platelet:

A

7-10 days

106
Q

T/F: Platelets spend entire lifespan in circulation.

A

False - 2/3 in circulation, 1/3 in spleen

107
Q

You are likely to count about 0.5-1 million (X) cells per microliter of normal blood sample.

A

X = platelets

108
Q

Describe key components of platelet ultrastructure.

A
  1. Hyalomere
  2. Granulomere
  3. Open canalicular system
109
Q

Hyalomere of (X) cell is composed of:

A

X = platelet

  1. 8-12 marginal MT (maintain shape)
  2. Actin and myosin (retraction)
110
Q

The (X) of the platelet allows surface area to increase by factor of (Y).

A 
X = open canalicular system
Y = 4
111
Q

List contents of granulomere.

A
  1. Mitochondria
  2. Glycogen
  3. Granules
112
Q

Which types of granules are found in platelets?

A
  1. Alpha
  2. Delta
  3. Lambda
113
Q

Alpha granule functions in:

A

Clot formation

114
Q

Delta granule functions in:

A

Clot support

115
Q

Lambda granule functions in:

A

Clot breakdown

116
Q

Alpha granule contains:

A

Fibrinogen, PDGF, coagulation factors, etc.

117
Q

Delta granule contains:

A

Calcium, ADP/ATP, serotonin, histamine, etc.

118
Q

Lambda granule contains:

A

Lysosomes (acid hydrolases)

119
Q

The outer layer of platelet is called (X) and contains (Y_.

A 
X = glycocalyx
Y = glycoproteins and glycolipids
120
Q

T/F: The glycocalyx is the clear layer of platelets.

A

False - hyalomere is clear

121
Q

Which components of blood plasma is absent in blood serum?

A

Clotting factors

122
Q

T/F: Circulating levels of Ab can be determined from blood serum.

A

True

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