01b: Peripheral Blood Flashcards
1
Q
Peripheral blood is a mixture of:
A
- Cellular elements
- Metabolites
- Proteins
- Fluids
2
Q
T/F: peripheral blood is slightly viscous.
A
True
3
Q
How many L of peripheral blood can be found in a typical adult?
A
6 L (about 7-8% body weight)
4
Q
Which tissue type is examined more often for diagnostic purposes than Peripheral blood, which is (Y) tissue?
A
Y = connective
None! Connective tissue is examined most often for clinical diagnostic purposes
5
Q
What are the key functions of blood?
A
- Plasma: Maintains microenvironment of tissues/cells in body
- Transport system
6
Q
Blood is extracted for clinical analysis via which routine, invasive procedure?
A
Venipuncture
7
Q
Which (artery/vein) is most common for blood extraction?
A
Median cubital vein
8
Q
What’s the fate of blood that’s placed in tube without anticoagulant?
A
Will coagulate (clot); result in clumped cells in serum
9
Q
You draw blood into tube with anticoagulant. Describe the layers you see.
A
No layers prior to centrifugation
10
Q
Following centrifugation, a blood sample with anticoagulant will have which layers?
A
(From top layer)
- Plasma
- Platelets
- “Buffy coat” (WBC)
- Erythrocytes/hematocrit
11
Q
Bottom layer of centrifuged blood sample is (RBC/WBC/other), also called (X).
A
RBC;
X = hematocrit
12
Q
Centrifuged blood sample with anticoagulant is (X)% plasma and (Y)% platelets.
A
X = 50-65 Y = less than 1
13
Q
Centrifuged blood sample with anticoagulant is (X)% WBC and (Y)% RBC.
A
X = 1 Y = 35-45 (women) or 40-50 (men)
14
Q
Plasma is primarily composed of (X).
A
X = water (90%)
15
Q
9% of plasma is composed of (X).
A
X = Protein
Albumin, globulins, clotting factors, complement proteins, lipoproteins
16
Q
1% of plasma is made up of:
A
- Blood electrolytes
- Gasses
- Glucose
- Hormones
- Other regulatory agents
17
Q
T/F: To analyze hormone levels, the most important layer in blood sample is the hematocrit.
A
False
18
Q
CBC, aka (X), is important for clinical analysis. What’s being measured/observed?
A
X = complete blood count
- Hemoglobin concentration
- RBC (%)
- WBC count
- Platelet count
19
Q
A high count of immature RBC, aka (X), indicates that:
A
X = reticulocytes
Bone marrow is releasing reticulocytes at faster rate than their maturation rate
20
Q
In CBC, what’s a normal reticulocyte count/fraction?
A
Less than 2%
21
Q
What’s the key difference between ribosomes in RBC and in reticulocytes?
A
RBC don’t have ribosomes. Reticulocytes do
22
Q
T/F: CBC only really looks at the complete count/fraction of various elements in a blood sample.
A
False - also looks at RBC and WBC morphology
23
Q
Briefly explain method of analysis by Flow Cytometry.
A
Blood cells pass single file through laser beam
24
Q
In Flow Cytometry, the cells travel (parallel/perpendicular/at angle) to laser beam.
A
Perpendicular
25
Where is the detector placed in Flow Cytometry?
Two detectors:
1. Directly in front of laser beam
2. At angle to laser beam
26
Which characteristics of blood cells can be plotted using Flow Cytometry?
1. Cell size (via forward scatter of laser light)
| 2. Cell granularity (via side scatter of laser light)
27
Variation in relative (X) of blood elements can indicate pathology.
X = morphology or proportions
28
Which cells contain respiratory pigment.
Erythrocytes
29
Most peripheral cells, (X)%, are:
X = 99
RBC (erythrocytes)
30
Typical survival time for erythrocytes is:
120 days
31
Describe morphology of erythrocyte nucleus.
Erythrocytes are anucleate cells (and devoid of typical organelles)
32
RBCs shaped like (X) for what reason?
X = biconcave disc
Enhance surface area (shorter diffusion distance) and easy to deform without changing surface area
33
About (X)% of the RBC volume is hemoglobin.
X = 33
34
Hb can be found on/in which part of RBC?
In cytoplasm
35
The existence of various blood groups is due to:
Surface antigens and serum antibodies of RBC
36
You are likely to count about 5 million (X) cells per microliter of normal blood sample.
X = red blood cells
37
You are likely to count about 4-10 thousand (X) cells per microliter of normal blood sample.
X = white blood cells
38
T/F: A 50% increase in WBC count is not clinically significant.
True - must be 4-5x normal count to suggest pathology
39
List the various types of WBC, from most to least relative % in blood.
1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophils
5. Basophils
40
PMN, aka (X), is another name for (Y).
X = polymorphonuclear neutrophil
Y = neutrophils
41
What's a band cell?
Immature neutrophil
42
The body's first line of defense.
Neutrophils
43
Aggressive phagocytes, aka (X), make up (Y)% of WBC.
```
X = neutrophils
Y = 60-70
```
44
T/F: You'll primarily see increase of neutrophils in chronic bacterial infections.
False - acute infections
45
How long do neutrophils last in blood/tissue?
Under 1 day in blood: 1-5 days in connective tissue
46
Name the one functional compartment of neutrophils.
There are 4 functional compartments:
1. Bone marrow production
2. Bone marrow storage
3. Circulating blood cells
4. Marinating blood cells
47
T/F: neutrophils are the most numerous of the agranulocyte WBC in blood.
False - neutrophils are granulocytes
48
List stages of extravasation of (RBC/WBC) from (X) to (Y).
WBC; from vascular lumen to interstitium
1. Rolling
2. Activation/adhesion
3. Lateral migration
4. Diapedesis
49
List the types of diapedesis.
1. Paracellular (WBC migrates through gap between endothelial cells)
2. Transcellular (WBC makes and travels through pore in endothelial cell)
50
A bar body is (X) and can be found in which cell type?
X = inactivated X chromosome
Seen as small protrusion at end of neutrophil nucleus
51
In which patient population can one find a bar body?
Females only
52
Describe normal morphology of neutrophil nucleus.
Segmented with 2-6 lobes
53
T/F: the arrangement of lobes of nucleophil nucleus is dynamic in living cells.
True
54
T/F: neutrophil nucleus normally changes shape and position, but changing number of lobes indicates pathology.
False! Dynamic arrangement includes number of nucleus lobes as well
55
List granules present in nucleophils.
1. Azurophilic
2. Cell-specific neutrophilic
3. Tertiary
56
Azurophilic granules contain:
Lysosomes
57
Cell-specific neutrophilic granules contain:
Enzymes and antimicrobial agents
58
Tertiary granules in neutrophils contain:
Gelatinases and collagenases (facilitate migration)
59
Without (X), neutrophil migration would be compromised.
X = tertiary granules
60
T/F: Neutrophil target specificity is fairly low.
True
61
Describe specific action by tertiary neutrophil granules in the cell's ability to (X).
X = migrate
Granules secreted; breakdown collagen and glycans that make up ECM
62
Upon reaching its target, the neutrophil will:
engulf target (i.e. bacteria) via phagocytosis
63
What's a phagosome?
Intracellular vacuole that holds the phagocytosed target of neutrophil
64
List a key different, if any, between the phagosome environment and the cytoplasm environment.
Reduced pH in phagosome
65
(X) cells are responsible for fever during infection. Explain.
X = neutrophils
Secrete Interleukin-1 (a pyrogen that generates heat) after phagocytosis of target
66
Pyrogens target:
Thermoregulatory centers in brain
67
T/F: IL-1 directly targets thermoregulatory centers in brain.
False - indirectly, via intermediary
68
In a neutrophil, what's the fate of the engulfed target?
1. Killed via enzymes and ROS (specific granules)
| 2. Digested via lysosomal enzymes (azurophilic granules)
69
About how many times can a neutrophil divide before it dies?
Can't divide - terminally differentiated and doesn't undergo mitosis
70
Pus is formed from:
Neutrophil's semidigested material and tissue fluid
71
Eosinophils primarily function in response to:
Inflammation and parasitic infections
72
Which WBC are responsible for "dampening down" inflammatory responses?
Eosinophils
73
How long are eosinophils in blood/tissue?
Less than 1 day in blood; 2 weeks in connective tissue
74
What's the primary function of eosinophils in peripheral blood?
No function in blood; function in connective tissue
75
Eosinophil morphology: nucleus (is/isn't) segmented and typically (X).
Is;
| X = bilobed
76
List granules present in eosinophil.
1. Azurophilic
| 2. Specific eosinophilic
77
Which specific part of (X) cell responsible for targeting parasitic infections?
X = eosinophil
Internum of the specific eosinophilic granules
78
Describe the coffee-bean look of (X) granules.
X = specific eosinophilic
Internum contains compounds to target parasitic infections; externum contains compounds to reduce inflammation
79
Internum of (X) granules contains:
X = specific eosinophilic
1. Major basic protein
2. Eosinophilic cationic protein
3. Parasitic neurotxins
80
Externum of (X) granules contains:
X = specific eosinophilic
1. Aryl sulfatase
2. Histaminase
3. Acid phosphatase
81
Basophils are primarily responsible for:
Vascular disturbances associated with hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis
82
(X) WBC play a role in constriction of (Y) smooth muscle.
```
X = basophils
Y = pulmonary
```
83
T/F: Basophils function and primarily remains in peripheral blood.
True
84
Basophilic granules contain (X) which can cause:
X = pharmocologic agents
1. Widespread vasodilation
2. Decrease in blood volume (blood vessel leakiness)
85
Morphology of basophil: the nucleus (is/isn't) segmented and typically (X).
Is;
| X = bilobed
86
List granules present in basophil.
1. Azurophilic
| 2. Specific basophilic
87
Specific basophilic granules contain:
1. Histamine
2. Heparin
3. Eosinophil chemotaxic factor
4. Neutrophil chemotaxic factor
88
(X) cells behave like basophils. What's the key structural feature of the membrane?
X = mast
IgE Ab to allergens decorate outside of the cells
89
Upon detection of (X) by Ab on mast cell, which series of events occurs?
X = allergen
1. All Ab clump
2. Intracellular vacuoles migrate to cell periphery and fuse membranes
3. Massive exocytosis of histamines, heparin, etc.
90
The "garbage collector" of WBC.
Monocyte
91
Monocytes are produced by:
Bone marrow AND mitosis of other monocytes
92
Monocytes primarily function as:
1. Active phagocytes
| 2. Antigen-presenting cells
93
Which WBC are crucial to immune system's ability to adapt?
Monocytes
94
(X) cells process antigenic material and present it to (Y).
```
X = monocytes
Y = lymphocytes
```
95
Basophil content is relatively high in (X) state.
X = chronic infection
96
The "park rangers" of WBC.
Lymphocytes
97
Which structural features characterize lymphocytes?
Large, heterochromatic nucleus and very little cytoplasm
98
Each lymphocyte is programmed to detect how many different kinds of (X)?
X = antigenic epitopes
Only one type
99
Which cell type(s) is/are able to leave and enter circulation multiple times?
Only lymphocytes
100
The majority of lymphocytes are specifically (X) cells.
X = T-cells (80%)
101
Lymphocytes function in the body's adaptive (X) responses.
X = humoral and cell-mediated immune
102
A thrombocyte, aka (X), has what type of nucleus morphology?
X = platelet
Non-nucleated!
103
Platelets are produced from (small/large) (X) cells, which reside in (Y).
Very large
X = megakaryocyte
Y = bone marrow
104
Shape of platelet:
Biconvex disc
105
Lifespan of platelet:
7-10 days
106
T/F: Platelets spend entire lifespan in circulation.
False - 2/3 in circulation, 1/3 in spleen
107
You are likely to count about 0.5-1 million (X) cells per microliter of normal blood sample.
X = platelets
108
Describe key components of platelet ultrastructure.
1. Hyalomere
2. Granulomere
3. Open canalicular system
109
Hyalomere of (X) cell is composed of:
X = platelet
1. 8-12 marginal MT (maintain shape)
2. Actin and myosin (retraction)
110
The (X) of the platelet allows surface area to increase by factor of (Y).
```
X = open canalicular system
Y = 4
```
111
List contents of granulomere.
1. Mitochondria
2. Glycogen
3. Granules
112
Which types of granules are found in platelets?
1. Alpha
2. Delta
3. Lambda
113
Alpha granule functions in:
Clot formation
114
Delta granule functions in:
Clot support
115
Lambda granule functions in:
Clot breakdown
116
Alpha granule contains:
Fibrinogen, PDGF, coagulation factors, etc.
117
Delta granule contains:
Calcium, ADP/ATP, serotonin, histamine, etc.
118
Lambda granule contains:
Lysosomes (acid hydrolases)
119
The outer layer of platelet is called (X) and contains (Y_.
```
X = glycocalyx
Y = glycoproteins and glycolipids
```
120
T/F: The glycocalyx is the clear layer of platelets.
False - hyalomere is clear
121
Which components of blood plasma is absent in blood serum?
Clotting factors
122
T/F: Circulating levels of Ab can be determined from blood serum.
True
