Zuku Review questions Flashcards
A 10 y.o. MN mixed breed dog is presented with a 2 month history of progressive left thoracic limb lameness. Radiographs and an ultrasound of the affected limb are shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) septic arthritis
b) fragmented coronoid process
c) joint neoplasia
d) degenerative joint disease
e) rheumatoid arthritis
c) joint neoplasia
Neoplasia involving the elbow joint.
Radiograph: geographic lysis involving the distal humerus, proximal ulna, and to a lesser degree the proximal radius. Areas of bone loss are multifocal with relatively well circumscribed borders. The anconeal process is absent. There is a large soft tissue swellng centred around the left elbow.
Ultrasound: heterogenous, hyperechoic lesions surrounding the caudal aspect of the elbow and also extending medially and laterally. There are severe defects within the bone and the mass lesions extends into the bone.
FNA and cytology of the lesion revealed marked mesenchymal proliferation and marked atypia with increased plasma cells and recent haemorrhage - possible sarcoma.
A six year old female cocker spaniel is presented with a 2 day history of lethargy.
Exam reveal petechiae and ecchymoses on the buccal mucosa, ventral abdomen, and inner pinnae. There is hyphaema OD.
Prothombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
b) von Willebrand’s disease
c) Hepatic insufficiency
d) Immune-mediated thrombocytopaenia
e) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
There were lab results but could not access them.
D) Immune-mediated thrombocytopaenia
Immune-mediated thrombocytopaenia is the most common cause of spontaneous bleeding in dogs. May be primary (idiopathic; most common) or secondary to infection/ neoplasia/ drugs.
Most common in middle-aged females; cockers, poodles, and Old English Sheepdogs predispoed.
Dogs with DIC have thrombocytopaenia and a prolonged PT and aPTT.
Which one of the following can be an underlying cause for the problem seen in this turtle?
a) mycoplasmosis
b) nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
c) septicaemia cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD)
d) vitamin A deficiency
e) Pasteurella multocida
d) Vitamin A deficiency
This is an aural abscess, which can occur secondarily to Vitamin A deficiency.
Captive terrestrial box turtles are most at risk, usually due to diets containing little Vitamin A.
Other presentations of hypovitaminosis A include froth from nose (a sign of respiratory disease) and renal disease.
An obese eight-year-old Labrador Retriever is presented for annual vaccinations.
The owners claim that they have restricted his diet and try to exercise him but he still keeps the weight on.
There is alopecia on the dorsum of his tail and he has an unusual worried facial expression.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Hypoadrenocorticism
b) Hyperadrenocorticism
c) Sarcoptic mange
d) Hypothyroidism
e) Male pattern alopecia
d) hypothyroidism
Tail alopecia and tragic facial expression are characteristic signs of hypothyroidism in dogs.
Other areas of bilateral alopecia common in hypothyroidism are the ventral and lateral trunk, caudal thighs, ventral neck and dorsum of the nose.
Hyperadrenocorticism commonly has truncal alopecia and also presents with obesity. It is most common in toy dog breeds.
A 12 y.o. male neutered WHWT is presented after he disappeared from home for six hours and returned with a left hindlimb lameness.
A pelvic radiograph taken on presentation is shown below.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
a) NSAID and rest
b) Closed reduction and Ehmer sling
c) Tibial tubercle transposition and Robert-Jones bandage
d) Triple pelvic osteotomy
e) Femoral head and neck excision
b) Closed reduction and Ehmer sling
Conservatively treat coxofemoral (hip) luxation with closed reduction and Ehmer sling.
Typically presents as a non-weight bearing lameness, usually after blunt force trauma (e.g. being hit by a car). Craniodorsal luxation of the femoral headis most common.
Closed vs open reduction: closed reduction and Ehmer sling if injury is <48hr old, patient is stable for anaesthesia, and hip structure is normal. 50% success rate.
Open reduction if closed reduction is unstable or has failed.
Carefully monitor post-reduction for irritation/ wounds and ischaemia caused by the Ehmer sling.
Where, anatomically, is the predominant abnormality located in these radiographs from an 11 year old English sheepdog?
a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Spleen
d) Right kidney
e) Pancreas
b) stomach
The stomach is markedly enlarged and filled with fluid and gas. There is mineral opacity material with a sharp edge in the body and pylorus.
There are small mineral opacities (gravel sign) in the dependent portion of the stomach. The enlarged stomach is causing a mass effect and displacing the other organs caudally, however peritoneal detail is good.
The radiographs show evidence of pyloric outflow obstruction such as a mass, stricture, polyp, or granuloma.
