Wild Brilliance Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following amino acids is most important for proper thyroid function?

a. L-lysine
b. L-tyrosine
c. L-tryptophan
d. L-leucine

A

L-tyrosine

L-tyrosine is the precursor for thyroid hormone synthesis.

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2
Q

In order to differentially diagnose autoimmune hypothyroidism, which of the following tests would you order?

a. Antithyroglobulin and antiendomesial antibodies
b. Antimyoglobin and antithyroglobulin antibodies
c. Antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies
d. Antithyroglobulin and antinuclear antibodies

A

Antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies

Antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies are diagnostic for autoimmune hypothyroidism, in the presence of elevated TSH.

Microsomes are found inside thyroid cells. The body produces antibodies to microsomes when there has been damage to thyroid cells. The antithyroid microsomal antibody test measures these antibodies in the blood.

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3
Q

Based on her current hypothyroidism symptoms, you would expect her labs to reveal?

a. Elevated free T3
b. Decreased TSH
c. Elevated TSH
d. Elevated total T4

A

Elevated TSH

Explanation: This patient has symptoms of hypothyroidism, which probably is autoimmune in etiology. Her symptoms of insomnia, anxiety, and elevated heart rate preceding the fatigue and weight gain point to autoimmune (Hashimoto) thyroiditis. At this stage in her case, with symptoms of hypothyroidism, her TSH will be elevated, and her T3 and T4 will most likely be reduced.

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4
Q

During her visit with you, your patient begins to become emotional while talking about her fatigue, saying that she feels overwhelmed and depressed sometimes. She starts crying and reaches for a tissue. Which of the following responses would be best?

a. Say to her, ‘Your depression is probably just because of the hypothyroidism. I wouldn’t worry about it.’
b. Say to her, I can tell this is difficult for you, and wait in silence until she is ready to continue speaking.
c. Keep your eyes on your medical notes because making eye contact can make her even more uncomfortable.
d. Make her feel more at ease by changing the subject and discussing another aspect of her medical history.

A

Say to her, I can tell this is difficult for you, and wait in silence until she is ready to continue speaking.

Explanation: When patients are having difficulty emotionally with a certain subject during the medical intake, it is usually best to simply acknowledge the fact that it is an emotional subject, and to listen to them speak, or let them cry if they need to. Most of the time, it is best not to try to fix the problem right away, or to change the subject. Please do not dismiss what your patients tell you, as in option D; this can create an impression of disrespect, and it can also potentially set you up to miss a diagnosis.

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding thyroid hormone medications?

a. Synthetic T3 is used more often than synthetic T4 in thyroid medications because it has a longer half life in the body.
b. The synthetic active ingredient in triiodothyronine is chemically identical to the natural hormone TSH.
c. The synthetic active ingredient in levothyroxine is chemically identical to the hormone T4.
d. Dessicated thyroid medication contains only T3, which is synthesized into biologically active T4 in the cells.

A

The synthetic active ingredient in levothyroxine is chemically identical to the hormone T4.

Explanation: The active ingredient in levothyroxine (Synthroid) is chemically identical to T4. There are fillers, additives, and colors in the tablet, but the active ingredient is exactly the same as T4.

Dessicated thyroid (Armour Thyroid) medication contains both T3 and T4. Synthetic T4 is used far more frequently than T3, because the half-life of T4 is significantly longer. T4 is converted into the more physiologically active T3 by deiodination in the periphery.

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6
Q

Which of the following herbs can affect the thyroid gland to reduce the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

a. Melissa officinalis
b. Larrea tridentata
c. Calendula officinalis
d. Medicago sativa

A

Melissa officinalis

Explanation: Melissa officinalis may be prescribed for hyperthyroidism, in conjunction with Lycopus, Leonurus, and Lithospermum. These herbs are not likely to affect thyroid function in people without hyperthyroidism.

Remember the 3 L’s for Thyroid!

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7
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment given the likely diagnosis?

a. Prescription of spironolactone
b. Surgical removal of likely pituitary mass
c. Recommending intramuscular vitamin B12 injections
d. Administration of Hypericum perforatum tincture

A

Surgical removal of likely pituitary mass

Explanation: Given the totality of the evidence in the case, it is most likely he has a pituitary mass that needs to be surgically removed.

Medical therapy may also be necessary, using cortisol synthesis inhibitors like ketoconazole, mitotane, or methyrapone.

Spironolactone is not appropriate in this case, it is used to treat hyperaldosteronism.

Hypericum has no place here, nor do vitamin B12 injections.

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8
Q

What does the impaired left lateral eye abduction indicate?

a. A lesion of the left cerebral cortex
b. A lesion of the left retinal artery
c. A lesion of the left abducens nerve
d. A lesion of the left trigeminal nerve

A

Abducens nerve lesions typically impair abduction of the eyeball.

Lesions of the trigeminal nerve would affect the masseter or temporal muscles on that side, and are very often associated with painful trigeminal neuralgia.

Cerebral cortex lesions typically cause problems ranging from hemiparesis to problems speaking, facial deviation, hearing loss, abnormal movements, and many other problems depending on which lobe is affecting, nothing like what this patient is experiencing.

And a retinal artery lesion sufficient to cause many of his problems would be visible on fundoscopy in most cases. This problem is likely due to increased intracranial pressure from a mass impinging the left ocular nerve.

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9
Q

He has significant facial swelling, a mild buffalo hump, truncal obesity, and bilateral non-tender gynecomastia. Optic exam reveals decreased left pupillary light response, defective left lateral eye abduction, and impaired lower field defects in the left eye. Fundoscopic exam was normal. The most likely diagnosis is ____________.

a. Adrenal Cushing’s disease
b. Pituitary Addison’s disease
c. Pituitary Cushing’s disease
d. Adrenal Addison’s disease

A

Pituitary Cushing’s disease

Explanation: The combination of weight gain (in the pattern of centripetal obesity and buffalo hump), uncontrollable hypertension, moon facies, and easy bruising (secondary to skin thinning, thus exposing the capillaries to more trauma) are all strong signs he has Cushing’s disease.

The signs pointing to a mass impinging the optic nerve easily fits with it being a pituitary macroadenoma that is hypersecreting ACTH. This occurs in only about 10% of patients with Cushing’s disease, with the vast majority of the rest being due to iatrogenic steroid use or adrenal lesions.

Addison’s disease more typically causes weight loss, abdominal pain, weakness, and darkening of the skin.

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10
Q

Which imaging study is indicated and why?

a. CT; to rule out degeneration of the optic chiasm
b. US; to rule out swelling in the ventricles of the brain
c. No imaging is indicated
d. MRI; to rule out a mass impinging on the L ocular nerve

A

MRI; to rule out a mass impinging on the L ocular nerve

Explanation: Almost all of the signs on the ocular exam point to a lesion impinging on the left ocular nerve. It could be a retinal problem, but with normal fundoscopy that is extremely unlikely.

MRI is the best and safest imaging to assess if this is correct.

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11
Q

In office, the child reports feeling tired and you notice that he is slumped forward. His mother reports that she has a hard time getting him to drink water, which she has been working on since she thought he was getting sick. She also notes that he does not do well with bad news and often will have an upset stomach and loose stools. Based on these observations and his presentation, what which homeopathic remedy would be most beneficial?

a. Belladonna
b. Cina
c. Chamomile
d. Gelsemium

A

d. Gelsemium

Explanation: Gelsemium is the most correct answer based on his primary symptoms of being sluggish, weak, and tired. Gelsemium is also thirstless and is worse from fright and bad news, often resulting in diarrhea. Belladonna is also thirstless, but the rest of the picture does not fit the patient. Cina and chamomile are common children’s remedies but do not fit this patient’s case.

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12
Q

Patient presents with his mother for fatigue. His mother reports that he appears more sluggish and weaker than usual. She is concerned that he is not participating in activities that he usually enjoys. This occurred abruptly approximately two weeks ago. His mother initially thought he was developing an infection but became worried when his symptoms worsened. He has been having difficulty sleeping at night, stating that his back has been hurting. She has additionally noticed increased bruising, which she initially attributed to rough play.

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION: Oral temperature: 101.6 deg F (38.7 deg C). HEENT exam reveals gum pallor, all other findings were within normal limits. Lymph exam negative for lymphadenopathy. Lungs clear to auscultation. Heart auscultation reveals regular rate and rhythm. Abdominal exam reveals hepatosplenomegaly

  1. You are suspicious of malignancy. Based on the information given, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Acute myelogenous leukemia

  1. Based on your working diagnosis, what lab testing do you need to diagnose the patient?

a. A complete metabolic panel and serum CRP
b. A lumbar puncture
c. A complete blood count with a differential and peripheral smear
d. A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy

A
  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Explanation: ALL is the most likely diagnosis based on the presentation and age of the patient. ALL typically occurs in patients aged 2-9 and is characterized by acute development of fatigue, fever, anemia, bone pain, and hepatosplenomegaly. Lymphadenopathy may also be present although it was absent in this patient. CLL is most common in elderly patients and often is asymptomatic, except for hypercoagulability. The lack of non-tender lymphadenopathy decreases the likelihood of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. Although AML shares many symptoms with AML, it most typically occurs in patients over 65.

  1. bone marrow aspirate and biopsy

Explanation: ALL is diagnosed with a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy. However, a complete blood count with a differential and peripheral smear is often the first step if you are suspicious of ALL. A lumbar puncture may be used to detect central nervous involvement in patients who have ALL.

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13
Q

In addition to a referral to an oncologist, you decide to recommend the following nutritional supplementation to improve sleep:

a. Magnesium glycinate 150mg an hour before bed
b. Phosphatidylcholine 200 mg twice per day
c. Molybdenum 60 mcg three times per day
d. Carnitine 300 mg after dinner

A

Magnesium glycinate 150mg an hour before bed

Explanation: Magnesium is the best option to promote sleep in this child, especially as magnesium is often depleted in patients with Leukemia.

Carnitine and phosphatidylcholine are primarily used for improving cognition, but not for sleep.

The dose of molybdenum is too high for a child and is not indicated for sleep.

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14
Q

PATIENT:
43-year-old white woman, 5’8”; (172.7 cm), 145 lbs (65.8 kg)
PRESENTATION:
She presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of periodic wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, and chest discomfort. She reports these symptoms occur less than twice a week and occasionally at night. She did not have any of these symptoms before she moved into a remodeled home six months ago.

Which of the following is most likely to be considered in your differential diagnosis?

a. Heart failure
b. Asthma
c. Panic disorder
d. Carcinoid syndrome

Which of the following findings would support one of the diagnoses in your differential?

a. A reduced residual volume (RV)
b. Normal chest x-ray
c. Eosinophilia
d. Increased FEV1

A week later, the patient returns to your office with respiratory distress, tachypnea, and tachycardia. Auscultation of the lungs reveals a prolonged expiratory phase with high-pitched wheezes during inspiration and most of expiration. There are coarse rhonchi in addition to the wheezes but no fine crackles. The patient is having difficulty saying more than a few words at a time. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

a. Give the patient deferoxamine IM and have her return in 24 hours for assessment.
b. Administer inhaled albuterol if available or call for transport to the emergency room.
c. Begin administering intravenous dexamethasone in the office.
d. Prescribe fluticasone and have the patient return in two weeks.

Assuming she has mild, intermittent disease, which of the following is indicated?

a. High-dose inhaled corticosteroids
b. Inhaled corticosteroids in a medium-dose range with a leukotriene modifier or theophylline
c. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids and theophylline
d. No daily medication needed.

What helpful nutritional recommendations would you make for this patient that may be for her condition?

a. Reduce vitamin C intake.
b. Eat plenty of salt in the diet.
c. Increase vitamin K intake.
d. Remove any processed foods and preservatives from the diet.

A
  1. Asthma
    Explanation: In a woman of her age with these symptoms, asthma is the most likely diagnosis. It is most likely allergic asthma, and possibly aggravated by exposure to chemicals in her apartment that was recently remodeled
  2. Eosinophilia
    Explanation: Asthma is often associated with elevations in eosinophil count. There is also usually decreased FEV1, increased residual lung volume, and hyperinflated lungs on chest x-ray.
  3. Administer inhaled albuterol if available or call for transport to the emergency room.
    Explanation: She should have had a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler already prescribed to her at her first visit, and patient education must be given regarding prevention and treatment of acute attacks. If she does not have a rescue inhaler and one is not available, emergency medical transport would be necessary to prevent worsening of this asthma attack. Corticosteroids are administered at the emergency department for acute asthma attacks, where support for respiratory arrest is available; she would need a bronchodilator in an outpatient setting.
  4. No daily medication needed.
    Explanation: There is no need for daily suppressive medication for people with mild, intermittent asthma. These patients should have a rescue inhaler on hand in case of severe sudden symptoms. Naturopathic treatments often lead to complete symptom resolution over time if simple cases like this are managed properly.
  5. Remove any processed foods and preservatives from the diet.
    Explanation: Processed food increases risk of inflammation, which tends to exacerbate asthma and allergies.
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15
Q

PATIENT: 71-year-old African-American male, 5’ 10” (178 cm), 170 lbs (77 kg)

PRESENTATION: He presents with a complaint of constant aching in his back. The aching has progressively worsened over the course of the last six months. His spouse, who accompanies him on his visit, tells you that he sleeps much of the day.

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION: Upon examination, you note that the patient’s spine is tender to palpation. All other physical exam findings are normal, including lymph nodes, liver, and spleen.

PRELIMINARY LAB RESULTS: You order blood tests that reveal a mild anemia with a low serum hemoglobin level and low MCV. Platelets and white blood cells are normal. Rouleaux are noted on his blood smear. Radiographs of the spine show osteoporosis and compression fractures of the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

  1. What laboratory finding would support your suspected diagnosis?

a. Elevated red blood cell levels
b. M-spike on serum protein electrophoresis
c. Low erythropoietin levels
d. Elevated hematocrit, decreased hemoglobin
2. Which of the following is most likely cause of his symptoms?

a. Macroglobulinemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Avascular necrosis
d. Polycythemia vera
3. What further lab testing or imaging would be LEAST helpful in establishing a specific diagnosis?

a. Fecal leukocyte analysis
b. MRI scan of the spine
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Serum protein electrophoresis

A
  1. M-spike on serum protein electrophoresis
    Explanation: In cases of multiple myeloma, there there will be elevated monoclonal antibodies (an M-spike) on serum protein electrophoresis.
  2. Multiple myeloma
    Explanation: Multiple myeloma often presents with back pain, anemia, weight loss, and fatigue.
  3. What further lab testing or imaging would be LEAST helpful in establishing a specific diagnosis?

a. Fecal leukocyte analysis
Explanation: A bone marrow biopsy with serum protein electrophoresis is diagnostic for multiple myeloma. An MRI would be needed prior to a biopsy for determining the exact location and extent of the mass. Urine testing is standard for multiple myeloma, but stool testing is not appropriate workup in this condition.

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16
Q

If this patient had reported that her headaches were throbbing and bursting, temporarily relieved by hard pressure, better in sunlight, and more painful on the left side, what homeopathic medicine would fit her picture?

a. Glonoinum
b. Sepia
c. Sanguinaria

A

Sepia

Explanation: It is very characteristic for a headache to be better in the sunlight, and Sepia strongly covers this modality, as well as the other symptoms. Belladonna and Glonoinum are much worse from the sun. Sanguinaria headaches are often also worse from warmth and from sun exposure and have a classic presentation of beginning in the occiput and extending over the vertex into the right eye (Spigelia has the same headache but is classically on the left with this same presentation).

17
Q

PATIENT:
28-year-old Asian woman, 5’2”(157.5 cm), 122 lbs (55.3 kg)

PRESENTATION:
She presents with severe generalized headaches associated with marked pain and tenderness of the left anterior cervical region. She also has vertigo, memory impairment, body aches, syncope, and emotional lability.

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION:
The right radial pulse was weakly palpable, the left was normal, with a pulse rate of 80 bpm. Blood pressure: 110/86 mmHg (right arm), 140/80 mmHg (left arm). Both carotid pulses were full, although the pulsations on the right were slightly less. The patient is well developed and nourished. Auscultation of the heart was unremarkable. No murmurs were noted.

The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Sarcoidosis
b. Takayasu arteritis
c. Thromboangiitis obliterans
d. Hyperthyroidism with migraine headaches

How would you proceed?

a. Do a physical exam of every system to increase complexity for billing purposes
b. Perform a physical exam of the head
c. Order an MRI of the skull
d. Do a Doppler study to rule out migraines

  1. Which test would be the most appropriate to run?

a. CPK isoenzymes
b. TSH
c. MR angiography
d. Sedimentation rate

Which of the following medications would be indicated for her condition?

a. Prednisone
b. Cefdinir
c. Clonidine
d. Cyclobenzaprine

A
  1. Takayasu arteritis

Explanation: Takayasu arteritis is an inflammatory condition of the large arteries involving the aorta and branches, and pulmonary arteries. This condition is rare in general, and is much more common in young Asian women than in other populations. Symptoms typically include asymmetric pulses, fatigue, fevers, weight loss, headaches, and arthralgias.

  1. Perform a physical exam of the head
    Explanation: The next responsible step, in addition to the exams already performed, is to perform a physical exam of the head and neck, and listen to the heart and lungs. Please do not be wasteful of your patient’s time and money by performing a physical exam of every body system just for billing purposes.
  2. MR angiography
    Explanation: Magnetic resonance angiography or arteriography of the aortic vessels is required to confirm the diagnosis of Takayasu arteritis. An aortic MRA would show stenosis, occlusions, irregularities of the vessel lumen, collateral vessels forming around occluded arteries, and other signs of vasculitis. ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) would show generalized inflammation and confirm that this is an inflammatory condition.
  3. Prednisone
    Explanation: Takayasu arteritis is an inflammatory condition, and prednisone is an antiinflammatory corticosteroid that is used to prevent systemic complications. Cefdinir is an antibiotic, clonidine is an antihypertensive medication, and cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxer.
18
Q

PATIENT:
23-year-old white man, 6’ (183 cm), 172 lbs (78 kg)

PRESENTATION:
He presented with diarrhea. The diarrhea consisted of 56 watery stools per day, often accompanied by rectal pain and cramping, urgency, and abdominal cramps. In the past two weeks, he has had several bowel movements with bright red blood in them. He has no weight or appetite loss. His energy is good. He has been drinking extra water continuously. The problem began one month ago.

PERSONAL HISTORY:
He has been hiking frequently but says he always brings his own water with him. He has not had antibiotics since childhood and his only travel has been to Canada and within the
US.

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION:
Blood pressure: 105/60 mmHg. The skin does not tent and the mucous membranes are moist.

  1. What physical examination is most indicated to confirm diagnosis of this patient’s condition?
    a. Abdominal exam
    b. Neurological exam
    c. Ophthalmological exam
    d. Chest auscultation
  2. Assume that he was prescribed prednisone by his medical doctor, and that his symptoms greatly improved within two days. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Giardiasis
    b. Ulcerative proctitis
    c. Acute autoimmune hepatitis
    d. Appendicitis
  3. Which of the following would diagnose her condition?
    a. Stool ova and parasites x 3
    b. Percutaneous liver biopsy
    c. Abdominal ultrasound
    d. Sigmoidoscopy
A
  1. Abdominal exam
    Explanation: Sometimes physical abdominal examinations are unremarkable in these cases, so this exam does not rule in or out your most likely diagnosis, but it is still required.
  2. Ulcerative proctitis
    Explanation: Ulcerative colitis/proctitis is an inflammatory condition, and prednisone is an anti-inflammatory medication that suppressed the inflammatory disease process and reduces symptoms. Autoimmune hepatitis may respond to suppressive anti-inflammatory agents as well, but would not account for his bloody diarrhea and digestive cramping.
  3. Sigmoidoscopy
    Explanation: A sigmoidoscopy with biopsy of the colon tissue would be diagnostic. It is usually recommended to perform a full colonoscopy rather than a sigmoidoscopy because other lesions could be missed with a sigmoidoscopy alone, and the patient has already gone through the hassle and discomfort of the prep for the sigmoidoscopy. It is better to be more comprehensive, when indicated in cases such as this.
19
Q

What is the best explanation for her 25-OH-D3 level not rising in response to supplementation?

a. Lack of additional sun exposure
b. Poor quality supplement
c. Obesity
d. Hypothyroidism

A

Obesity

Explanation: Obesity has been shown repeatedly to decrease vitamin D activation. It may take quite a bit higher levels of supplementation to overcome this problem in obese people.

Poor quality supplements may exist but this has not been shown to be widespread enough to account for the problem.

Low sun exposure does not explain lack of response to oral supplementation; it would only explain baseline low vitamin D levels.

Hypothyroidism has no clear connection with lack of response to oral vitamin D supplementation.

20
Q

The patient continued taking oral prednisone for several months. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of having the patient suddenly stop taking high-dose oral prednisone?

a. Adrenal failure
b. Rebound diarrhea
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Cataracts

A

Adrenal failure

Explanation: High dose prednisone causes a feedback response from the adrenal glands to reduce endogenous production of cortisol. Sudden withdrawal of prednisone can leave the patient with dangerously low cortisol levels.

21
Q

Which of the following protocols would be most likely to help lower her HgbA1c?

a. Strontium with meals, Eupatorium purpureum and Epimedium spp, calcium/magnesium
b. Metformin away from meals, Gentiana lutea and Arctium lappa, riboflavin
c. Berberine away from meals, Vaccinium macrocarpon and Arctostaphylos uva-ursi, vitamin K
d. Cinnamon with meals, Panax quinquefolius and Gymnema sylvestre, vanadium

A

Cinnamon with meals, Panax quinquefolius and Gymnema sylvestre, vanadium

Explanation: Cinnamon, Panax quinquefolius, Gymnema sylvestre, and vanadium have all been reported to help with glucose control. None are perfect but are most likely to help. Though some of the other items mentioned in other choices, such as berberine and metformin, are insulin sensitizing, the other items accompanying them are not relevant to lowering HgbA1c.

22
Q

Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for this patient with DM?

a. Reduce her calorie intake to below 500 kcal per day, eat only red meat, dairy and 3 almonds per day
b. Eat only cabbage soup and grapefruits for six months
c. Increase her calorie intake moderately, eat 75% of calories as fat, avoid all fruit
d. Reduce her calorie intake moderately, eliminate simple carbohydrates, eat lots of vegetables, moderate grain intake

A

Reduce her calorie intake moderately, eliminate simple carbohydrates, eat lots of vegetables, moderate grain intake

Explanation: Lowering simple carbohydrates and calories is most important for treating her diabetes. Increasing micronutrient intake through vegetables is crucial for addressing all her concerns. Eating only cabbage and grapefruit makes no sense for her case. Eating only red meat, dairy, and a few almonds is also not a healthy or helpful approach. Increasing calories and eating an extremely high fat diet has not been studied and is unlikely to be helpful.

23
Q

LABORATORY FINDINGS: Ferritin 174 ng/ml, LDL cholesterol 139 mg/dl, total cholesterol 218 mg/dl, HDL cholesterol 59 mg/dl, triglycerides 98 mg/dl, C-reactive protein 7.6 mg/L, TSH of 0.48 mIU/ml.

Describe her likely level of inflammation based on her lab results.

a. Increased systemic inflammation
b. Decreased systemic inflammation
c. Insufficient systemic inflammation
d. We have no information about inflammation

A

Increased systemic inflammation

Explanation: Based on her high C-reactive protein and ferritin levels, she has significant inflammation.

24
Q

PRESENTATION:
He has type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM1). He has a pruritic rash on his scalp and buttocks and worsening fatigue. It is symmetrical and papulovesicular, covering most of the scalp, and there is excoriation consistent with itching across the rash. The rash started about two weeks ago. The fatigue began roughly eight months ago, though it was so slow in its progression it is hard to say for sure.

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION:
On examination his mucous membranes are slightly pale, but everything else is normal.

PRELIMINARY LAB RESULTS:
HgbA1c is 6.0% (normal 0-6.5%). A fasting blood glucose in office is 90 mg/dL (US normal 65-99 mg/dL) = 4.95 mmol/L (Canadian normal 3.5-5.5 mmol/L).

His skin condition is often associated with which of the following aspects of his history?

a. Excessive administration of insulin
b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
c. Family history of asthma
d. Family history of dairy allergies

What is the most likely diagnosis of his rash?
a. Chicken pox
b. Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation: Dermatitis herpetiformis is the autoimmune skin condition associated with celiac disease, which is also commonly found in people with type 1 diabetes.
c. Herpes simplex
d. Vitiligo

Which of the following tests is most specifically indicated to determine the diagnosis in this patient?

a. Pancreatic biopsy
b. Anti-endomysial antibodies
c. Plain film of the head
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A
  1. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
    Explanation: This skin condition is sometimes seen in people with type 1 diabetes, and is also often found in association with other autoimmune diseases such SLE or sarcoidosis.
  2. Dermatitis herpetiformis
    Explanation: Dermatitis herpetiformis is the autoimmune skin condition associated with celiac disease, which is also commonly found in people with type 1 diabetes.
  3. Anti-endomysial antibodies
    Explanation: Anti-endomysial antibodies are usually elevated in people with celiac disease, and this skin condition is a cutaneous manifestation of gluten enteropathy. A skin biopsy with immunofluorescence is definitive.
25
Q

He answered all of your questions without reservation and made good eye contact. His rash is worse after bathing and in bed at night. Which homeopathic remedy best fits his picture?

a. Ferrum phosphoricum
b. Mercurius
c. Natrum muriaticum
d. Sulphur

A

Sulphur

Explanation: Skin rashes that call for Sulphur are usually worse after bathing, and from the warmth of the bed, especially at night. They are also worse from scratching, usually with itching and burning of the eruptions. People who need Sulphur classically will be confident (sometimes overly confident) in their communication with you, as demonstrated by the direct answering of questions and good eye contact in this child.

26
Q

Patient has iron overload-induced diabetes, not type 2 diabetes. What diagnostic imaging test is most indicated to perform next?

a. Pancreatic MRI with cyst assessment
b. Hepatic ultrasound with fibrosis assessment
c. No diagnostic imaging is indicated
d. Transcranial CT with hypothalamic-pituitary assessment

A

Hepatic ultrasound with fibrosis assessment

Explanation: Given the signs of early iron overload, an assessment for metabolic liver disease and possible hemochromatosis-associated liver fibrosis needs to be done. There is no indication for a pancreatic MRI, and pancreatic cysts are not known to cause any situation like hers. Transcranial CT is not indicated, and would be highly unlikely to see anything in the hypothalamus or pituitary given her signs and symptoms.

27
Q

In talking with her about the abuse, she reveals that she still feels ashamed about the abuse. As she speaks about it, tears begin to stream down her face and continue to flow as she talks. She says that every time she thinks about it, she wants to cry and have her mother hug her. Although she is afraid to tell her mother about the abuse, she wants her mother to be close to her and hold her so she feels safe. As she is talking, you notice that her face becomes flushed, and she starts fanning herself and makes a comment about the room feeling too warm. Which homeopathic remedy best matches her symptoms?

a. Staphysagria
b. Colocynthis
c. Pulsatilla
d. Phytolacca

A

Pulsatilla

Explanation: The most characteristic presenting symptom is that she becomes flushed and desires open cool air, but this symptom along with her strong desire for consolation, desire for company, and easy weeping, will lead to you a prescription of Pulsatilla. Her feelings of shame and guilt are not so characteristic, especially for a child, but are also well covered by Pulsatilla. If she needed Staphysagria, there would probably be more ailments from suppressed anger in the case, and this does not appear to be present. Colocynthis often has ailments from suppressed anger like Staph, and will usually have characteristic intense pain that is much better from hard pressure.