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LCK STEP > Week 2 UWORLD Qs > Flashcards

Week 2 UWORLD Qs Flashcards

1
Q 
Morphology + clinical syndrome:
Candida
Blasto
Coccidio
Crypto
Histo
A

Pseudohyphae w/ blastoconidia - ones you know plus vasc catheters, S/ST infect
Broad based budding - pulm infect may go to skin/bone
Southwest dimorphic - “ “
Capsule - meningitis, pulm
R angles - invasive infect - does NOT grow in blood cultures

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2
Q

What is the Potter sequence?

A

Some renal problem in utero (billet renal agenesis) -> decrease urine output by fetus
Decreased amniotic fluid”
1. Pulm hypoplasia - decreased breath sounds, O2 doesn’t improve on vent
2. Flat face
3. Limb deform - club feet

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3
Q

What is androgenetic alopecia? Genetics of this disorder

A

Most common cause hair loss in M + W
Hormone levels + genetics (polygenic)
Polygeneic inheritance = variable expressivity
AA often seen with char 20, X oy Y therefore can be transmitted XR or AD

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4
Q

Chloramphenicol
Mechanism
SE

A 
X 50 S ribosome subunit of bacteria
SE
Reversible cytopenias:
1. Dose related anemia
2. Leukopenia
3. TCP
**Irreversible aplastic anemia (pancytopenia b/c hypocellular bone marrow)
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5
Q

Drugs that can induce aplastic anemia

A

= stem cell def –> pancytopenia
Chloramphenicol (antibiotic)
Carbamazepine
Sulfonamides

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6
Q

Describe hyper acute vs acute vs chronic cell mediated transplant rejection histo

A

Hyperacute: vasc fibrinoid necrosis + neutrophil infiltrate of organ capillaries
Acute: dense interstital mononuc infiltrate
Chronic: obliterative fibrosis (graft endo damage med by low grade cell + Ab immune responses over time)

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7
Q 
Describe location of:
Erector spinae 
Iliacus
Psoas major
Ligamentum flavum
Transversus ab
A 
Erector spinae = back muscle, either side of spine, attaches at spinous processes 
Iliacus = comes from iliac crest
Psoas major (+ minor) from T12-L5 -> iliopsoas for hip flexion 
LF = connect vertebrae, form post wall of spinal canal
Trans ab = most internal ab muscle
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8
Q

Describe the 3 steps take for treating a status epileptics seizure

A
  1. IV lorazepam (benzo) - fast coverage until pheny kicks in (binds GABA A = Cl- channel, enhance GABA)
  2. Simultaneously load phenytoin (X Na channels so can’t recover from inactivation)
  3. IF 1+2 didn’t stop seizure, + phenobarbital
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9
Q

Where in cell are VLCFAs metabolized?

A

Peroxisome
Beta ox - VLCFA breakdown
Alpha ox - branched chain FAs
Zellweger Syndrome = X myelin b/c assume this stuff in xerox, hypotonia, seizures, death within months of presentation
Vs proteasome = break down proteins… duh

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10
Q

Which virus causes billet hemorrhagic necrosis of inf and med temporal lobes?

A

HSV 1: unilat more common than bial

Not Naegleria fowleri b/c this would have encephalitis not confined to temporal lodes - frontal, temp, brainstem, mening

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11
Q

What is the similarity between heat labile toxin vs cholera toxin? Endotoxin vs exotoxin?

A

HL (ETEC) similar to cholera - Gs -> increase cAMP

Endotoxin = LPS (GN bacteria)

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12
Q

Name 3 signals to secrete acid. Names of PPIs

A

Histamine @ H2 + ECLs
ACh from vagus + M3 R on parietal cells
Gastrin @ 1ary CCK b R on ECL cells (increase histamine) or 2ary on parietal cells
PPI = Lansoprazole, omeprazole

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13
Q

Difference between free ribosomes and those on RER. Fxn smooth ER

A

Free make cytosolic proteins
RER proteins for the membrane or for exocytosis
Smooth = detox, lipid syn, carb metab

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14
Q

Why do preggo women go to the bathroom more?

A

Increase intra-ab pressure

Preg hormones decrease urethral tone and relax pelvic floor muscles

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15
Q

Type of necrosis after infarct in body vs brain

A 
Body = coag nec (look for no nucleus)
Brain = liquef nec, will be converted to astroglial scar
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16
Q

SE ACE Is

A

If vol depleted (chronic diuretic) or HF pts -> significant 1st dose hypotension
Why start ACE at low doses
ACE I only worsen BILAT renal stenosis

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17
Q

Presentation of ulnar nerve injury. Describe nerve course

A

Sensory loss medial hand (medial 1/5 digits + hypothenar eminence)
Ulnar claw - weakness in wrist FLEX, ADDUCT, finger add/abduct, flex 4th+5th fingers
C8-T1 -> medial epicondyle elbow -> flexi carpi ulnars and medial flex digitorum profundis
Through Guyon’s canal = hook of hamate + pisiform

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18
Q

Describe glucose in the nephron - where filtered and absorbed. Describe inulin in the nephron

A

Filtered @ glomerulus
Reabsorbed @ prox tub
If you X Na coupled transport of glucose @ pro tubule -> clearance would approach GFR (whats filtered = whats excreted, this is how inulin is)
PAH filtered and then also secreted into urine via OAT (used to cal renal plasma flow)

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19
Q

3 genetic diseases that have pheos

A

VHL
MEN 2 - RET gene
Neurofibromatosis - NF1 gene

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20
Q

Describe a polysaccharide vs conjugate vaccine

A

Polysacc - think killed vaccine - only stim B cell immunity (Abs), esp true in infants b/c immature humoral immunity
Conjugate means you attached the bug to something that boosts immune response - T + B cell immunity

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21
Q

Explain FAS ligand system. If the FAS R/L system of a T cell is not working, what should happen?

A

Activate T cell -> start express FasL - can bind Fas R on same or adjacent lymphocytes
During clonal expansion, wil undergo apoptosis by this mechanism if in the constant presence of self antigens
Apoptosis via caspases
Mutations of FAS R/L can prevent apoptosis of auto reactive lymphocytes increasing risk of AI

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22
Q

Name molecules involved in neutrophil
Rolling
Tight adhesion
Transmigration

A
  1. Selections: E/P on endo bind sialyl lewis X of neutrophils (could also roll and attached to previously bound neutrophils = L selectin)
  2. Neutrophil integrins + ICAM on endo
  3. Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule = PECAM 1
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23
Q

Disease that presents with baby whose umbilical cord has delayed separation, and gets recurrent bact skin infections w/ NO PUS

A

Leukocyte adhesion def - no CD 18 = no integrins = no tight adhesions

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24
Q

Cell surface marker macrophages that binds PAMPs

A

CD 14

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25
Q

What type of vaccine is the Hib vaccine?

A

H influ type b - protects against all H influ infections esp meningitis
Conjugated = capsule of Hflu + diphtheria toxin (carrier protein) yields T + B cell immunity

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26
Q

What is positive vs negative selection @ thyroid?

A

1st = + selection @ cortex (immature T cells) - do you have enough affinity for own MHC aka can you do your job (not enough, apoptosis)
Via thymic cortical epithelial cells
2nd = - selection @ medulla (mature T cells) - how much do you react to self antigen - too much affinity = apoptosis
Via thymic medullary epic cells and dendritic cells

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27
Q

What is the mutation, inheritance pattern, and triad of symptoms for ataxia telangiectasia

A

AR - ATM gene mutation - responsible for DNA break repair (ATM = ataxia telang mutated)
Therefore hypersens to X rays since cause double strand DNA breaks -> DO NOT XRAY THESE KIDS IN THE ED
1. Cerebellar ataxia
2. Telangiectasias = superficial distended capillaries that blanch
3. Increase risk sinopulm infections - b/c IgA def

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28
Q

What immune mechanism would make you immune to the flu?

A

Ab vs hemagglutinin either b/c pre infected with that strain or got the vaccine
These Abs neutralize virus
Other choice might be Ab vs neuraminidase but this isn’t main source of protection against reinfection (do decrease extent of viral invasion and shedding)
Remember, T cells response (vs nucleocapsid proteins) is a RESPONSE, doesn’t help prevent infection

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29
Q

Name an anti-IgE Ab and it’s therapy use

A

Omalizumab = IgG vs IgE
Use for severe asthma (T1 HST rxn) to prevent future asthma attacks
H1 R antag not for asthma but for allergic symptoms instead

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30
Q

What enzyme helps cut up a protein to be expressed on MHC 1?

A

Protein + ubiquitin tag
Ubiquitin ligase breaksdown intracell proteins (native and foreign)
Particles are paired to MHC 1 being made in the ER then sent together to membrane

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31
Q 
Describe difference between
Anti HBs
Anti HBc IgM
Anti HBc IgG
Anti HBe
A
  1. Long term immunity b/c vaccination or resolve acute Hep B infection
  2. Window phase = HBsAg + IgM vs Bs present
  3. Present in both chronic + acute infection
  4. Chronically infected person w/ low viral rep/infectivity (low viral = anti BeAg, high viral = BeAg)
    Acute infect = IgM +/- IgG HBc, HBV DNA + HBeAg = markers active viral rep
    Recover from acute = anti HBs + HBc
    Chronic infection = IgG HBc with HBsAg present in blood
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32
Q

What serum marker indicates chronic Hep B infection? High viral replication/infectivity of a chronic infection? Chronic infection w/ low viral rep?

A

HBsAg = surface antigen present > 6mo = chronic infection (therefore if gone within 6 mo acute infection was resolved)
HBeAg = Hep B e antigen = high viral rep
Chronic w/ low viral = no HBe Ag, +anti HBeAg

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33
Q

Meds to prevent vs treat acute cell med graft rejection - what’s the histo pattern

A

T cell rejection = vasculitis of graft vessels with dense lymphocyte infiltrate
Prevent w/ calcineurin Is (cyclosporine or tacrolimus)
Treat w/ corticosteroids added to above

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34
Q

What is the difference in the process and location of VDJ recombination and isotope switching

A

Bone marrow - VDJ (heavy chain) and VJ (light chain) recomb allows each B cell to make single specific Abs
LNs - somatic hypermutation for affinity maturation + isotyp switching (CD 40 R + CD40 L on activated Th cells)

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35
Q

Describe the mechanism of cell damage in T1-4 HST rxns

A

T1 - IgE mediated –> histamine
T2 - Ab vs your tissue mediated - pulls in complement etc
T3 - Ab-antigen complex in blood deposits in tissues (post strep GN) activating complement
T4 - CD 4 + CD 8 T cells + macrophages (NO EOS)

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36
Q

Describe symptoms of all 4 steps of blood transfusion rxns

A
  1. Allergic rxn aka the usual
  2. Anaphylactic rxn drops BP w/ resp arrest
  3. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn (T2 HST) - nonspecific but FEVER
  4. Acute hemolytic transfusion rxn (T2 HST) - flank pain, blood in urine, jaundice
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37
Q

Mechanism of IgA

A

Prevent mucosal colonization

If bacteria cleave this can bind mucosa - Neisseria, strep pneuma, H influ

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38
Q

Which Abs can cross maternal fetal circulation?

A

IgG - temp immunity until 6 mo

Baby gets IgA via breast feeding

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39
Q

Describe presentation of selective IgA def

A

Mucosal def - sinopulm + GI bugs

More concerned about anaphylaxis if given blood transfusion w/ IgA

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40
Q

What is the dendritic cell of the skin

A

Langerhans cells
Stellar cells w/ intracytoplasmic granules have shape of a tennis racket
Will activate T cells (co sim B7)
Vs Kupffer cells - macrophage of the liver
Vs monocytes -> macrophages in skin that don’t have those granules

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41
Q

What is the cell receptor that HIV uses to infect the immune system

A

CCR5 = chemokine receptor on macrophages and T cells
CD4 + CCR5 binds gp120
Deletion of both copies CCR5 gene = HIV immunity

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42
Q

Where does complement bind Ig?

A

Fc

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43
Q

Explain the 2 inheritance patterns for SCID and the clinical presentation

A

AR = ADA def
X linked = IL 1 R mutation (cytokine R = 2nd signal for T cell activation)
No T cells –> no B cells
Viral, bacterial, fungal, opportunistic infections
BUBBLE BOY - trt bone marrow transplant

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44
Q

What IL can you give to treat RCC/metastatic melanoma - mechanism

A

IL2 -> increase NK activity

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45
Q

What cell mediated sarcoidosis

A

CD 4 T cells in BAL fluid
AA, young, F>M
Cough and dyspnea
Bialt hilar adenopathy -> noncaseating granulomas

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46
Q

What disease fuses your SI jt - what HLA are you looking for? What is a good way to monitor disease progression?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis - also look for bamboo spine = vertical fusion of vertebrae
Seroneg spondyloathropathies = HLA B27
HLA A, B, C code for MHC 1 proteins (1 letter, MHC 1)
Disease progress via chest expansion due to involvement of T spine and costo joints

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47
Q

Recurrent skin + rest infections
Light skin + silvery hair
Horizontal nystagmus
Giant cytoplasm granules in neutrophils + monocytes

A

Chediak Higashi syndrome - MY dysfxn

  1. Can’t fuse phagolysosome
  2. Can’t move pigment in melanocytes
  3. NT can’t get to end of axon
  4. Granules can’t move for exocytosis
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48
Q

Describe how the IVC and ab aorta lay in respect to each other throughout the abdomen

A

IVC in front of aorta most of the abdomen until get to the femoral bifurcation when drops behind

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49
Q

Post total R hip replacement - leans to R side when walking and when standing on R leg left hip tilts down
Which nerve is impaired

A

Sup gluteal nerve - glut med, min, and TFL
Stabilize pelvis + aBduct
Weak glut med + min can’t contract so unaffected side pelvis sag when standing on affected leg
Pt will lean to the affected side during walking to compensate for hip drop

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50
Q

3 yo boy - intel disability + speech delay
226 CGG trinuc repeats on X chromosome
What it the cause of clinical condition

A

Fragile X = gene methylation of FMR1 gene = fragile X mental retardation 1
Trinuc repeats -> HYPER methylation -> inactivate the gene -> not transcription -> impaired neural development
Southern blot = DNA to set # repeats

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51
Q

What is the most common benign liver tumor and what does it look like?

A 
Cavernous hemangioma - BENIGN
Single or multiple - generally small 
Histo = cavernous blood filled vascular spaces lined by SINGLE layer epithelium
Asymptom or RUQ pain 
Vs hepatic adenoma vs HCC
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52
Q

Why would someone say Carvidopa/levadopa’s response is unpredictable?

A

On/off periods
Advanced PD - motor flux can occur indeed on med dosing -> unpredictable
Due to progressive nigrostriatal neurodeg decreases therapeutic window for CD/LD NOT enhanced drug metabolism later in disease

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53
Q

Symptoms for Hpylori infection

A

Duodenal ulcers (#1 cause)
Recent travel to CHINA
Or chronic NSAID use
Triple therapy to treat: 2 antibiotics + PPI

54
Q

SE of highly active anti retroviral therapy for HIV

A

Body fat redistribution

Leaves face and limbs -> moves central

55
Q

Name 2 bugs w/ toxins that inactivate EF2 via ribosylation -> no protein synthesis

A
  1. C diptheriae = diphtheria toxin

2. Pseudomonas = exotoxin A

56
Q

What kind of cancer should you be thinking if an older man with osteoBLASTIC lesions in the spine presents?

A

Osteoblastic lesions will be sclerotic so think:

  1. Prostate cancer - older men
  2. Small cell lung cancer
  3. Hodgkins
57
Q

Cancers that present with osteolytic bone lesions

A

= lucent b/c osteoclasts beings stim, more aggressive cancer than those that have osteoblastic lesions

  1. Multiple myeloma
  2. Non small cell lung cancer
  3. Non-hodgkins
  4. RCC
  5. Melanoma
58
Q

What cell governs systemic vs cutaneous candida infections?

A

Cutaneous (including vaginal) = T cells = HIV when CD4 ct drops
Systemic (blood, endocarditis) = neutrophils = chemo pts

59
Q

Which immune cells attack cells w/ decreased MHC 1 expression?

A

NK cells

60
Q

What is the anti-RhD Ab?

A

Give IgG Ab to Rh - mom w/ Rh + baby
In case some of baby’s blood gets into mom’s circulation, preformed Ab will take care of it without activating systemic circulation
IgG isn’t a big problem here b/c the amt is so small there is no hemolysis in the fetus (since IgG cross placenta)

61
Q

Where does the IL2 for the second signal on T cells come from?

A

That T cell!
Bind TCR -> induce transcription of IL2 to act on self
Cyclosporin + tacrolimus = calcineurin Is so can’t do this via NFAT
Conversely, balsiliximab + daclizumab block IL2 binding
Sirolimus X mTOR which is the down stream effect of IL 2 binding (don’t increase NFkB)
Otherwise could use azothiopurine, MMF or glucocorticoids (x NFkB)

62
Q

Top 3 cancers by incidence and mortality in men vs women

A 
MEN by incidence
1. Prostate 
2. Lung - but this is most deadly (switch 1/2)
3. CRC - #3 for deaths too
WOMEN by incidence
1. Breast
2. Lung " "
3. CRC - #3 deaths too
63
Q

Describe orthostatic hypotension and the compensatory response - name conditions that cause this

A

Something drops venous return to heart
Less ventricle filling -> drop CO -> drop BP
Baroreceptor reflex -> sympa tone
@ a1 (VSM) increase TPR
@ B1 (heart) increase HR + contractility
If taking a1 blockers for BPH (treason, doxazosin) hypovol, hyperglycemia, autonomic dysfxn (Parkinsons)

64
Q

What is weird about the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?

A

Sympa pre-gang neurons synapse DIRECTLY onto adrenal medulla (no intermediate ganglia)
B/c chromatin cells are modified posting simp neurons (neural crest origin)
Goes through the splanchnic gang but doesn’t synapse here
Secrete E 80% > NE 20%

65
Q

Describe an S3 - how you listen to it and what it means

A

Comes right after S2
@ apex, L lat decubitus
Either young people/athletes whose hearts are so strong its pushing more blood down from atrial during diastole
Old people indicating LHF b/c blood flow into an overfilled ventricle w high end systolic vol (vol overloaded state in the heart b/c can’t pump out leads to vol overload state peripherally)

66
Q

Describe why you get pulsus paradoxus during cardiac tamponade

A

Tamponade = extra pericardial fluid prevents ventricles from expanding freely
Therefore, inspo increases venous return to heart
Intravent septum bulges into LV so the RV can accommodate this load (since the heart as a whole is limited by pericardial fluid)
Decreases LV filling = pulsus paradoxus aka BP drops during inspo b/c you’re LV vol decreases -> decrease CO -> decrease BP

67
Q

Describe reactive arthritis
Cause
Serum results

A

Seroneg spondyloarth (HLA B27!!)
Asymm arthritis large its - sterile jt effusion
+/- Keratoderma blenorrhagicum = rash with mucous discharge on palms/soles
Post-infectious: campy, shigella, salmonella, yersinia, chlamydia, bartonella
Aka Reiter synd: can’t see can pee can’t climb a tree
Cause by deposition of immune complexes

68
Q 
What are you thinking: 15 yo girl
Amenorrhea 
Short
High arched palate
Tanner stage 1 breasts w/ widely spaced nipples
A

TURNERS = 45 XO
Webbed neck
Coarctation // bicuspid aortic valve
Horseshoe kidney = didn’t separate so connecting kidney piece overlays ab great vessels
Ovary dysgenesis = streak gonads = degen follicles and replace w/ fibrosis (why amenorrhea)
Vs PCOD - 2ary amen + hirstuism + obesity
Vs Mullerian agenesis - 1ary amen due to absent Mullerian duct system (no vagina) but normal palate + breast

69
Q

What thinking:
Prox weakness - can’t walk stairs or comb hair
Muscle tenderness
No rash
Biopsy = endomysial mononuc infiltrate w/ patchy muscle fiber necrosis

A

POLYMYOSITIS
Anti-Jo Abs = vs histidyl tRNA synthetase
Also ANA
Indep or manifestation of adenocarcinoma
Vs Ab desmoglein -> pemphigus vulgaris = skin blistering + desquamation

70
Q

Describe primary carnitine def

A

FA OXIDATION
FAs (acyl CoA synthase) -> ACoA + carnitine -> now can enter mitochondria as acyl-carnitine (will go into TCA cycle)
No carnitine - can’t do this
Skeletal + cardiac muscle can’t use FA -> ATP
Liver can’t make ketone bodies (acetoacetate!!!) if glucose gets low - deficiency will de downstream of the problem
SYMPTOMS
1. Muscle weak
2. Cardiomyopathy
3. Hypoketotic hypoG
4. Increased muscle TGs
Vs. palmitate = FA you eat or make but completely based in cytosol - doesn’t have carnitine shuttle problem

71
Q

Glaucoma is increased IOP due to excess prod (@ciliary body) or decreased outflow of aq humor (out via 1. trabecular outflow or 2. uveoscleral outflow). Name meds to treat (3 classes)

A

Fundo: see more white at optic disc than you should (increased cup:disc ratio) lose peripheral vision
1st line PG agonist (latanoprost = topical) increase US outflow
2. M agonists - increase trabecular outflow
3. Decrease humor prod via BBers, a2 agonists, carbonic anhydrase Is

72
Q

Name defect that gives you galactose-emia presenting as infant w/ lethargy, vomiting and jaundice after started breastfeeding

A

Eat lactose -> glucose + galactose @GI
Galactose (galactose kinase) -> galactose 1 phosphate
HERE can’t break down G1P b/c no GALT (G1P uridyl transferase) enzyme
Excess G1P -> galactic acid (broken down by HMP shunt) + galactitol (accum in cells)
Restrict lactose in diet

73
Q

Describe difference between glioblastoma + oligodendroglioma

A

Glioblastoma = most common brain tumor adults
@ cerebral hemispheres, may cross as butterfly glioma
Big w/ necrosis + hemm -> watch midline shift
V. MALIGNANT
Oligodendroglioma = slow growing tumor of white matter of cerebral hemispheres, think well circumscribed gray masses with calcification

74
Q

Name carpal bones if looking at top of hand (dorsum)

A

Thumb: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum (can’t see pisiform)
S + L both articulate w/ radius, FOOSH opten dislocates L w/ median nerve compression (coming thru carpel tunnel)
Thumb: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

75
Q

Cause of hydrocele in babies

A

Indirect inguinal hernia - don’t obliterate processus vaginalis (forms tunica vaginalis) - communicate peritoneum and scrotum
Non-comm hydrocele = PV closed but fluid got trapped in TV on the way down
Comm hydrocele = PV open
Vs. direct inguinal hernia means contents go through ab wall maybe down into scrotum

76
Q

What pathways does ethanol (aka booze) inhibit that results in drop in BG?

A 
X gluconeogenesis @ liver 
B/c increases NADH/NAD+ ratio
Drives/stops reactions increasing:
1. Lactate 
2. Malate 
During acute binge, BG maintained by glycogenolysis 
Chronic binge means you can't make new glucose once those stores have been used
See high ketones
77
Q

5 structures through superior orbital fissure

A 
3 - oculomotor = adduction (med rectus)
4 - trochlear
5(1) branch - ophthalmic nerve = sensory limb of corneal reflex 
6 - abducens
Sup ophthalmic vein
Vs optic canal carrying CN2 only
Vs. foramen rotunda comes out of skull into pterygopalatine fossa carrying 5(2) -> inf orbital fissure -> infraorbital foramen = infraorbital nerve
Vs 5(3) via foramen ovale
78
Q

Describe what happens to renin, AGT 1 + 2, aldo, and bradykinin on ACE vs ARB

A

Renin coverts angiotensinogen to AGT1 @ liver
ACE converts AGT 1 -> 2 @ LUNGS
1. Increase renin, AGT1
2. Decrease AGT2, aldo (AGT2 stima aldo release)
3. Increase brady b/c ACE degrades brady = dry cough SE
ARB = AGT 2 blocker (losartan)
1. Increase renin, AGT1, AGT2
2. Decrease aldo
3. No change bradykinin
ARBs vasodilate b/c no AGT2 @ VSM

79
Q

Explain difference between int + ext hemorrhoids

A 
Int - above dentate line, columnar epi, innervate by inf hypogastric plexus = autonomic aka only response to stretch not pain, temp, touch
Ext - below dentate line, squamous, branch of pudendal = inf rectal nerve so very sensitive to touch temp pain 
Dentate line (wavy line) divides upper 2/3 from lower 1/3 rectum
80
Q

If pt gets infective endocarditis post-dental work, what underlying condition is more impt risk factor: mitral valve prolapse or RHD?

A

MVP valvular sclerosis and mechanical valves are larger RF in developed world since RHD is so rare

81
Q

What is DRESS syndrome

A

After starting anti-convulsants, allopurinol, sulfonamides, and antibiotics
Fver
LNs
Facial edema
Diffuse red, spotty skin rash
Allergic rxn so high eos
vs. chemo drugs that can cause microangiopathic hemolytic anemia = schistocytes on peripheral smear

82
Q

Define phenotype mixing

A

2 viruses in host
Progeny virion have nucleocapsid from 1 strain and unchanged parental genome of the other - no genetic exchange - next gen visions revert to original unmixed phenotypes

83
Q

If you’re going to use atropine to speed up bradycardia, how does this work and what is the CI?

A

Blocks vagal tone @ SA + AV
CI in glaucoma - M1 block -> dilation = narrow angle -> decrease aqueous outflow
Acute close angle glaucoma may result = unlit eye pain

84
Q

How do statins work + SE

A

X HMG CoA reductase
IF can’t make more cholesterol, increase clearance of LDL from circulation by liver
Increased LDL receptor cycling allows intrahepatic cholesterol levels to remain normal while blood levels are low
SE: myopathy

85
Q 
Effects on baby if you take this during preg:
Tetracyc
Chloramphenicol
TMP SMX
Aminoglycosides
A

Tetracyc - stain teeth
Chloramphenicol - gray baby synd
TMP SMX - neural tube defect (folic acid antag)
Aminoglycosides - ototx, vestibulotox

86
Q

Symptoms of MS

A

Get worse in heat: decrease axon transmission

  1. Optic problems including painful eye movement
  2. Internuc opthalmoplegia (demy MLF)
  3. Cerebellar dysfxn
  4. Sensory/motor probs - bowel + bladder dysfxn
87
Q

what 2 substances govern angiogen

A

VEGF
Fibroblast growth factor
NOT EGF = mitosis of cells but not BVs

88
Q

If you’re thinking multiple myeloma - what cell will you see in bone marrow

A 
Excess plasma cells 
Basophilic - stain purple
Nuclei aren't center 
Wagon wheel/clock face dist of nuclear chromatin
> 30% plasma cells = MM
89
Q

Name the 5 types of hernias

A
  1. Diaphragmatic: congenital, trauma, hiatal, sliding hiatal, paraesophageal
  2. Indirect inguinal (men only) - covered by all 3 layers of spermatic fascia (L to inf epigastric)
  3. Direct inguinal (M + W) - due to weakness in TRANSVERSALIS FASCIA, covered by ext spermatic fascia
  4. Femoral
  5. Umbilical - failure of umbilical ring to close “protrusion covered by skin w/ umbilical stump at center” (Down’s)
90
Q

If veins are enlarged in the FUNDUS of the stomach, which veins could be congested to cause this?

A

Short gastric veins drain to SPLENIC VEIN
Possible w/ chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer or ab tumors
Since splenic vein runs along post surface of pancreas

91
Q

How many fxnal parts of the duodenum are there and which section lies between the SMA and aorta?

A

4 sections
Duodenal bulb = pylorus -> neck of GB (sits behind liver + GB) - behind it = gastroduodenal art (ulcer), common biliary duct, portal vein
Section 3 = transverse, under SMA (L3 level)

92
Q

What part of SI absorbs fat?

A

JEJUNUM - passive absorption of fat in micelles

Digested @ duodenum b/c add pancreatic enzymes + bile

93
Q

Where is trypsinogen secreted and activated? How might you become trypsin def?

A

From pancreas
Brush border enteropeptidase activates -> trypsin (@ jejunum)
Then trypsin activates all other pancreatic proteases
If def b/c don’t have fxnal BB enzymes: fat + protein malabsorption -> infant w/ diarrhea, fail to thrive, edema (due to low blood oncotic P)

94
Q

What stimulates secretin secretion? 2 fxns

A

Acid stim when hit S cells in pancreas
1. Increase bicarb from pancreas @ DUCTAL CELLS
Big difference: CCK acts a pancreatic acinar cells (imagine flower: stem vs petals)
2. Increase bile secretion

95
Q

When would you supplement an infant with vit D vs Fe?

A

Breast milk has no vit K or D
1. Get vit K shot at birth to prevent hmm disease of newborn
2. Supplement w/ vit D if exclusively breastfed + low in weight/length to prevent rickets
Also watch out for babies who get no sun exp or are very dark skinned
+ Fe if preterm or low birthweight b/c [Fe] breast milk decreases over time

96
Q

Describe how the great vessels, trachea, and esophagus lay in relation to each other in the chest

A

Great vessels = most ant
Trachea middle = black w/ air
Esophagus most post lying on top of spine -> is typically collapsed w/ no visible lumen

97
Q

Describe the XR findings for TEE, duodenal atresia, and intestinal atresia

A

TEE - air in stomach
Duodenal atresia = double bubble (pyloric sphincter)
Intestinal atresia = tripple bubble (PS + ligament of treitz)

98
Q

If a baby presents with an abd cyst that is connected by a fibrous band to the ileum and the umbilicus - what kind of duct abnormalities are you thinking?

A

Vitelline duct = connects midgut with yolk sac

  1. Persistent duct - get meconium discharge from umbilicus
  2. Meckel diverticulum - part of SI still attached and pulled toward = diverticulum
  3. Vitelline sinus = partial closure w/ patent portion open at belly button
  4. Duct cyst (question stem)
99
Q

What is your landmark if you can’t find the appendix by palpation during removal?

A

Taniae coli = longitudinal muscle of the colon
Exists as 3 longitudinal bands - contract to form hausta (which aren’t helpful b/c they are the same throughout the colon)
Converge at root of the appendix

100
Q

Ulcer that penetrates through the lesser curve of the stomach would perf what artery

A

L (upper) or R (lower) gastric - both off celiac trunk

101
Q

Describe 3 parts of volvulus

A

Incomplete rotation of the gut in utero results in

  1. Cecum in RUQ
  2. Fibrous bands connecting the RLQ retroperitoneum to the R colon by passing over duodenum -> SI obstruction = bilious emesis
  3. Possible occlusion of SMA due to rotation around it
102
Q 
What are you thinking:
3 days old - green vomit
Normal appearing duodenum 
Absence of segment of jejunum + ileum 
Remainder of distal ileum winding around thin vasc stalk
A

INTESTINAL ATRESIA due to vasc occlusion

103
Q

What causes the pain associated with appendicitis?

A

Early appendicitis = organ distension = carry by afferents of ANS = visceral ab pain = poorly localized therefore why ppl first present with epigastric pain
Later = irritate ANT parietal peritoneum aka ab wal - more severe pain that shift to more local location

104
Q

Structures in the hepatoduodenal ligament

A

Common bile duct
Hepatic art
Portal vein

105
Q

What is the metyrapone stim test - what does it test for? How does it work?

A

Tests CRH -> ACTH -> cortisol axis
Block the production of cortisol @ ZFasiculata
SHOULD see a rise in ATCH is the axis is intact
Metyrapone X 11 B hydroxylase - increase 11 deoxycortisol (precursor for the reaction) -> metabolizes as 17 OH corticosteroid -> out via urine
If don’t see rise in 11/17 cortisol products you know it is an ADRENAL problem

106
Q

What are the actions of mifepristone + misoprostol as the dual drug regimen to terminate a pregnancy?

A

Mifepristone = P antagonist, binds w/ greater affinity than P, necrosis of uterine decida
Misoprostol = PROSTaglandin E1 analog, cervical softening + uterine contractions so pregnancy can be expelled
Vs MTX = folate antagonist, used for ectopic or to term pre if M/M regimen not avail

107
Q

Describe the problem leading to epispadias vs hypospadias vs bifid scrotum

A

F urogenital folds (same thing as URETHRAL folds) dont fuse = labial minora
Hypospadias = urethra on BOTTOM of penis (hypo = under) b/c fail fuse urogenital folds
Epispadias = urethra on TOP b/c faulty position of genital tubercle (becomes the penis in M, clitoris in F)
Bifid scrotum = malunion of LABIO SCROTAL folds (labia MAJORA in women)

108
Q

Name the group of muscles responsible for forearm flex, wrist flex, wrist extension

A 
Wrist extension (origin @ LAT epicondyle "tennis elbow" b/c of backhand) = extensor digitorum + extensor carpi radialis brevis
Wrist flexion (MED epicondyle, "golfer's elbow")
Forearm flex = biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis
109
Q

What stage is an egg arrested in before fertilization?

A
  1. Metaphase of meiosis 2!!! How released from ovary
    Fertilization allows progress to telophase 2 (barr body 2)
  2. Makes sense - meiosis 1 gets you half chromosome # (barr body 1)
  3. Eggs also arrest in prophase of meiosis 1 before puberty
110
Q

Describe the presentation and nerve injured by ant dislocation of humerus

A

Happens when hit arm during throw - ext rot + abduction
1. Flattening of deltoid
2. Protrusion of acromion
Ax nerve injury - abduction of should BEYOND 1st 15 degrees via deltoid and teres minor + sensory to skin over lateral shoulder

111
Q

Describe complete vs partial hydatidiform moles

A

Complete “bunch of grapes”, snowstorm on US
1. Completely formed - diploid chromosomes aka fertilized
2. Completely a mole - no fetal tissue b/c empty ovum that was fertilized, completely edematous vili
p 57 negative b/c no maternal genome
3. Complete covering of vili in blasts = higher BhCG - causes THECA LUTEIN CYSTS
4. Complete risk of choriocarcinoma - why you monitor BhCG after D&C removal
Partial = normal ovum fert by 2 sperm (69 chromosomes) -> fetal tissue present, some vili, focal trophoblastic proliferation, minimal risk for chorio

112
Q

What would high AFP protein in a preg woman suggest?

A

Neural tube defects, twins, ab wall defects

113
Q

Which GP bug presents w/ GREY pharyngeal exudate? Name everything you know about this bug

A

Clost diptheriae

  1. Resp droplets
  2. Rods - multiple form V or U shape
  3. Metachromatic granules inside that stain red vs the cell blue
  4. Toxin riBOWsylates EF2 -> no protein synthesis
  5. Toxoid vaccine // treat w/ anti toxin
  6. To dx if bacteria present, grow on Loeffler’s or cysteine-tellurite agar
  7. To det toxic vs non toxic strains do Elek (E lick) test
  8. Grey pseudomembranes pharyngitis -> toxin damages nerve fibers can have post pharyngitis paralysis of CNs
  9. Cervical LNs = bull’s neck
  10. Toxin is cardio tox: myocarditis, arrhythmia, heart block
114
Q

Describe the empty can test for the shoulder

A

Isolates supra
“Pour one out”
Abduct humerus in parallel to axis of scapula (30 degrees forward flexion) while in full int rotation (thumbs to floor)
Push down - can’t stay up supra problem
Supra does 1st 15 degrees abduction until deltoid takes over

115
Q

What BB do you use for thyroid storm - why?

A

Propranolol
1. Decrease HR
2. Decrease peripheral conversion T4 -> T3 b/c X iodothyronine deiodinase
Change TH synthesis and release by + iodine and blocking thyroid peroxidase respectively
Remember T3 = active form, binds receptor in the NUCLEUS

116
Q

Describe how glycogen degradation is increase with skeletal muscle contraction

A

More glycogen degraded w/ contracting skeletal muscle
Glycogen -> glucose 1 P via glycogen phosphorylase
GP is activated by phosphorylase kinase, 2 things up reg activity of this in skeletal muscle
#1 = Ca from contracting muscle
#2 = E induced increase cAMP
GP is inactivated by phosphoprotein phosphatase
Remember that PK in liver is different and is activated by E/glucagon binding Gs receptors for glycogen breakdown

117
Q

Describe all of the different blots - how is a Western blot different than ELISA

A

Southern = DNA, North = RNA, West = protein, SW = DNA binding proteins (TFs)
Western:
1. Sep proteins via electrophoresis
2. Move to nitocell membrane + probed Ab for protein of interest
Vs ELISA = testing pts serum directly (vs electrophoresis first)

118
Q

What factor determine peak bone mass vs bone loss

A

Peak bone mass = genetics (similar curves with space between)
Bone loss = exercise, diet including alc or smoke, steroid use, premature meno (curves with different slopes)

119
Q

Why is resting membrane potential -70mV instead of the potential for K = -80mV?

A

Small number Na channels that allow flow of Na into cells decreasing membrane potential
Remember membrane potential ext by ATP as to put 3 Na out and 2K into cell - high [K] in cell, high [Na] outside

120
Q

Name 2 meds that should be avoided in pts with hypertrophic CM

A

HCM gets worse if you decrease LV volume
1. Vasodilators (DHP Ca CBs, nitroG, ACE Is) - decrease TPR, decrease afterload, lower LV vol = more friction between the outflow tract
2. Diuretics = decrease preload so same problem
Meds that reduce LV outflow tract obstruction:
Non-DHP Ca CB, disopyramide, BBers

121
Q

If you’re on prednisone for a long time, what happens to your HPA axis?

A

Like having a ton of cortisol in circulation = lots of -FB = low CRH, ACTH, cortisol
So pt can’t adequately respond to stressful situations - infection, surg - you have to increase dose to prevent steroid def = hypotension, shock
Can cause adrenal atrophy - why you need to gradually pull pts off steroid to avoid adrenal insuff

122
Q

Which anti-emetics do you use for motion sickness vs chemo? Describe SE

A

Motion sickness
1. Anti-M = scopolamine
2. Ant-H = diphendyramine, meclizine, promethazine
Anti chol SE: blurry vision, dry mouth, urine retent, constipation
Cancer
1. D R antag = prochlorperazine, metoclopramide = diarrhea
2. S R antag = ondansetron, granisetron
3. NK 1 R antag = aprepitant, fosaprepitant

123
Q

Mechanism + SE of metaglitinides

A 
= repaglinide, nateglinide
DIABETES - short acting glucose lower
Mech: X ATP dep K channel @ pancreas B cell -> depol -> open Ca channel -> insulin release
Same mech as sulfonylureas
SE: hypoG, weight gain
124
Q

What is your dx for pt with pancytopenia WITHOUT splenomeg? What does the bone marrow look like?

A

Aplastic anemia
BM is hypocellular - mostly fat and stroma, “dry tap”
Bone marrow is how you differentiate between this and other pancyto w/o spleno:
- Combined b12 + folate def anemia
- Acute leukemia
- Some myelodysplastic syndromes

125
Q

Describe metformin mechanism + SE - what are you going to check before starting this med?

A

X 1st ETC enzyme -> decrease cellular E stores
Causes AMPK activation = less hepatic gluconeo
Increase peripheral glucose utilization
SE = LACTIC ACIDOSIS
- Increases intestinal production of lactate since these cells can’t use ETC for aerobic glycolysis // decreases liver metabolism of lactate since less gluconeo
Check Cr (renal) before starting
CI w/ CHF or alcoholic b/c increase risk SE

126
Q

Describe the difference between rubeola and rubella

A

Rubella = TOGAvirus = maculopapular rash begins on face and spreads to trunk/limbs
Spreads fast and does not coalesce like rubeola
Post auricular and occipital lymphadenopathy
Rubeola = paramyxovirus = measles = similar but rash may join together and w/o LNs

127
Q

Describe the hormones levels of pt with cryptorchidism

A

Undescended testes
Body heat will make seminiferous tubules atrophic - lose Sertoli cells
1. Low sperm count = infertile
2. Sertoli cells not making inhibin to FB to pit -> increase FSH
Leydig cells in tests are in the matrix between tubules and NOT heat sen -> continue to produce testosterone -> feeds back to hypothal = normal LH and testosterone levels (normal sex characteristics + drive)

128
Q

Describe minimal change disease

A

Associated with allergies or after an infection or immunization
Overproduction of cytokines: effacement of podocytes on EM
Lose neg charge of GBM - lose ONLY albumin into urine: kid presents with generalized (esp periorbital) edema
Maltese crosses on urine analysis

129
Q

Equation for renal blood flow

A

RBF = PAH clearance / renal plasma flow

= (PAH urine/serum x urine flow rate) / 1-Hct

130
Q

Mechanism and SE of colchicine

A

X tubulin polymerization (aka the cytoskeleton)
GOUT - treats flares or with allopurinol chronically
SE = DIARRHEA, N, ab pain

131
Q

Mechanism and SE of warfarin

A

Mech = X vit K dep coag gactors
Also decreases protein C + S (both anti-coat)
Protein C has short t1/2 so it activity is quickly reduced when you start warfarin
During this time it K factors dominate as PRO coag
SE = warfarin induced skin nec b/c transient hypercoag state that happens when you first start warfarin
Clot that blocks BF to skin -> nec
**WHY YOU BRIDGE WITH HEPARIN

LCK STEP (27 decks)

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