Week 2 UWORLD Qs Flashcards

1
Q
Morphology + clinical syndrome:
Candida
Blasto
Coccidio
Crypto
Histo
A

Pseudohyphae w/ blastoconidia - ones you know plus vasc catheters, S/ST infect
Broad based budding - pulm infect may go to skin/bone
Southwest dimorphic - “ “
Capsule - meningitis, pulm
R angles - invasive infect - does NOT grow in blood cultures

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2
Q

What is the Potter sequence?

A

Some renal problem in utero (billet renal agenesis) -> decrease urine output by fetus
Decreased amniotic fluid”
1. Pulm hypoplasia - decreased breath sounds, O2 doesn’t improve on vent
2. Flat face
3. Limb deform - club feet

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3
Q

What is androgenetic alopecia? Genetics of this disorder

A

Most common cause hair loss in M + W
Hormone levels + genetics (polygenic)
Polygeneic inheritance = variable expressivity
AA often seen with char 20, X oy Y therefore can be transmitted XR or AD

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4
Q

Chloramphenicol
Mechanism
SE

A
X 50 S ribosome subunit of bacteria
SE
Reversible cytopenias:
1. Dose related anemia
2. Leukopenia
3. TCP
**Irreversible aplastic anemia (pancytopenia b/c hypocellular bone marrow)
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5
Q

Drugs that can induce aplastic anemia

A

= stem cell def –> pancytopenia
Chloramphenicol (antibiotic)
Carbamazepine
Sulfonamides

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6
Q

Describe hyper acute vs acute vs chronic cell mediated transplant rejection histo

A

Hyperacute: vasc fibrinoid necrosis + neutrophil infiltrate of organ capillaries
Acute: dense interstital mononuc infiltrate
Chronic: obliterative fibrosis (graft endo damage med by low grade cell + Ab immune responses over time)

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7
Q
Describe location of:
Erector spinae 
Iliacus
Psoas major
Ligamentum flavum
Transversus ab
A
Erector spinae = back muscle, either side of spine, attaches at spinous processes 
Iliacus = comes from iliac crest
Psoas major (+ minor) from T12-L5 -> iliopsoas for hip flexion 
LF = connect vertebrae, form post wall of spinal canal
Trans ab = most internal ab muscle
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8
Q

Describe the 3 steps take for treating a status epileptics seizure

A
  1. IV lorazepam (benzo) - fast coverage until pheny kicks in (binds GABA A = Cl- channel, enhance GABA)
  2. Simultaneously load phenytoin (X Na channels so can’t recover from inactivation)
  3. IF 1+2 didn’t stop seizure, + phenobarbital
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9
Q

Where in cell are VLCFAs metabolized?

A

Peroxisome
Beta ox - VLCFA breakdown
Alpha ox - branched chain FAs
Zellweger Syndrome = X myelin b/c assume this stuff in xerox, hypotonia, seizures, death within months of presentation
Vs proteasome = break down proteins… duh

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10
Q

Which virus causes billet hemorrhagic necrosis of inf and med temporal lobes?

A

HSV 1: unilat more common than bial

Not Naegleria fowleri b/c this would have encephalitis not confined to temporal lodes - frontal, temp, brainstem, mening

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11
Q

What is the similarity between heat labile toxin vs cholera toxin? Endotoxin vs exotoxin?

A

HL (ETEC) similar to cholera - Gs -> increase cAMP

Endotoxin = LPS (GN bacteria)

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12
Q

Name 3 signals to secrete acid. Names of PPIs

A

Histamine @ H2 + ECLs
ACh from vagus + M3 R on parietal cells
Gastrin @ 1ary CCK b R on ECL cells (increase histamine) or 2ary on parietal cells
PPI = Lansoprazole, omeprazole

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13
Q

Difference between free ribosomes and those on RER. Fxn smooth ER

A

Free make cytosolic proteins
RER proteins for the membrane or for exocytosis
Smooth = detox, lipid syn, carb metab

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14
Q

Why do preggo women go to the bathroom more?

A

Increase intra-ab pressure

Preg hormones decrease urethral tone and relax pelvic floor muscles

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15
Q

Type of necrosis after infarct in body vs brain

A
Body = coag nec (look for no nucleus)
Brain = liquef nec, will be converted to astroglial scar
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16
Q

SE ACE Is

A

If vol depleted (chronic diuretic) or HF pts -> significant 1st dose hypotension
Why start ACE at low doses
ACE I only worsen BILAT renal stenosis

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17
Q

Presentation of ulnar nerve injury. Describe nerve course

A

Sensory loss medial hand (medial 1/5 digits + hypothenar eminence)
Ulnar claw - weakness in wrist FLEX, ADDUCT, finger add/abduct, flex 4th+5th fingers
C8-T1 -> medial epicondyle elbow -> flexi carpi ulnars and medial flex digitorum profundis
Through Guyon’s canal = hook of hamate + pisiform

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18
Q

Describe glucose in the nephron - where filtered and absorbed. Describe inulin in the nephron

A

Filtered @ glomerulus
Reabsorbed @ prox tub
If you X Na coupled transport of glucose @ pro tubule -> clearance would approach GFR (whats filtered = whats excreted, this is how inulin is)
PAH filtered and then also secreted into urine via OAT (used to cal renal plasma flow)

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19
Q

3 genetic diseases that have pheos

A

VHL
MEN 2 - RET gene
Neurofibromatosis - NF1 gene

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20
Q

Describe a polysaccharide vs conjugate vaccine

A

Polysacc - think killed vaccine - only stim B cell immunity (Abs), esp true in infants b/c immature humoral immunity
Conjugate means you attached the bug to something that boosts immune response - T + B cell immunity

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21
Q

Explain FAS ligand system. If the FAS R/L system of a T cell is not working, what should happen?

A

Activate T cell -> start express FasL - can bind Fas R on same or adjacent lymphocytes
During clonal expansion, wil undergo apoptosis by this mechanism if in the constant presence of self antigens
Apoptosis via caspases
Mutations of FAS R/L can prevent apoptosis of auto reactive lymphocytes increasing risk of AI

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22
Q

Name molecules involved in neutrophil
Rolling
Tight adhesion
Transmigration

A
  1. Selections: E/P on endo bind sialyl lewis X of neutrophils (could also roll and attached to previously bound neutrophils = L selectin)
  2. Neutrophil integrins + ICAM on endo
  3. Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule = PECAM 1
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23
Q

Disease that presents with baby whose umbilical cord has delayed separation, and gets recurrent bact skin infections w/ NO PUS

A

Leukocyte adhesion def - no CD 18 = no integrins = no tight adhesions

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24
Q

Cell surface marker macrophages that binds PAMPs

A

CD 14

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25
What type of vaccine is the Hib vaccine?
H influ type b - protects against all H influ infections esp meningitis Conjugated = capsule of Hflu + diphtheria toxin (carrier protein) yields T + B cell immunity
26
What is positive vs negative selection @ thyroid?
1st = + selection @ cortex (immature T cells) - do you have enough affinity for own MHC aka can you do your job (not enough, apoptosis) Via **thymic cortical epithelial cells** 2nd = - selection @ medulla (mature T cells) - how much do you react to self antigen - too much affinity = apoptosis Via **thymic medullary epic cells and dendritic cells**
27
What is the mutation, inheritance pattern, and triad of symptoms for ataxia telangiectasia
AR - ATM gene mutation - responsible for DNA break repair (ATM = ataxia telang mutated) Therefore hypersens to X rays since cause double strand DNA breaks -> DO NOT XRAY THESE KIDS IN THE ED 1. Cerebellar ataxia 2. Telangiectasias = superficial distended capillaries that blanch 3. Increase risk sinopulm infections - b/c IgA def
28
What immune mechanism would make you immune to the flu?
Ab vs hemagglutinin either b/c pre infected with that strain or got the vaccine These Abs neutralize virus Other choice might be Ab vs neuraminidase but this isn't main source of protection against reinfection (do decrease extent of viral invasion and shedding) Remember, T cells response (vs nucleocapsid proteins) is a RESPONSE, doesn't help prevent infection
29
Name an anti-IgE Ab and it's therapy use
Omalizumab = IgG vs IgE Use for severe asthma (T1 HST rxn) to prevent future asthma attacks H1 R antag not for asthma but for allergic symptoms instead
30
What enzyme helps cut up a protein to be expressed on MHC 1?
Protein + ubiquitin tag Ubiquitin ligase breaksdown intracell proteins (native and foreign) Particles are paired to MHC 1 being made in the ER then sent together to membrane
31
``` Describe difference between Anti HBs Anti HBc IgM Anti HBc IgG Anti HBe ```
1. Long term immunity b/c vaccination or resolve acute Hep B infection 2. Window phase = HBsAg + IgM vs Bs present 3. Present in both chronic + acute infection 4. Chronically infected person w/ low viral rep/infectivity (low viral = anti BeAg, high viral = BeAg) Acute infect = IgM +/- IgG HBc, HBV DNA + HBeAg = markers active viral rep Recover from acute = anti HBs + HBc Chronic infection = IgG HBc with HBsAg present in blood
32
What serum marker indicates chronic Hep B infection? High viral replication/infectivity of a chronic infection? Chronic infection w/ low viral rep?
HBsAg = surface antigen present > 6mo = chronic infection (therefore if gone within 6 mo acute infection was resolved) HBeAg = Hep B e antigen = high viral rep Chronic w/ low viral = no HBe Ag, +anti HBeAg
33
Meds to prevent vs treat acute cell med graft rejection - what's the histo pattern
T cell rejection = vasculitis of graft vessels with dense lymphocyte infiltrate Prevent w/ calcineurin Is (cyclosporine or tacrolimus) Treat w/ corticosteroids added to above
34
What is the difference in the process and location of VDJ recombination and isotope switching
Bone marrow - VDJ (heavy chain) and VJ (light chain) recomb allows each B cell to make single specific Abs LNs - somatic hypermutation for affinity maturation + isotyp switching (CD 40 R + CD40 L on activated Th cells)
35
Describe the mechanism of cell damage in T1-4 HST rxns
T1 - IgE mediated --> histamine T2 - Ab vs your tissue mediated - pulls in complement etc T3 - Ab-antigen complex in blood deposits in tissues (post strep GN) activating complement T4 - CD 4 + CD 8 T cells + macrophages (NO EOS)
36
Describe symptoms of all 4 steps of blood transfusion rxns
1. Allergic rxn aka the usual 2. Anaphylactic rxn drops BP w/ resp arrest 3. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn (T2 HST) - nonspecific but FEVER 4. Acute hemolytic transfusion rxn (T2 HST) - flank pain, blood in urine, jaundice
37
Mechanism of IgA
Prevent mucosal colonization | If bacteria cleave this can bind mucosa - Neisseria, strep pneuma, H influ
38
Which Abs can cross maternal fetal circulation?
IgG - temp immunity until 6 mo | Baby gets IgA via breast feeding
39
Describe presentation of selective IgA def
Mucosal def - sinopulm + GI bugs | More concerned about anaphylaxis if given blood transfusion w/ IgA
40
What is the dendritic cell of the skin
Langerhans cells Stellar cells w/ intracytoplasmic granules have shape of a tennis racket Will activate T cells (co sim B7) Vs Kupffer cells - macrophage of the liver Vs monocytes -> macrophages in skin that don't have those granules
41
What is the cell receptor that HIV uses to infect the immune system
CCR5 = chemokine receptor on macrophages and T cells CD4 + CCR5 binds gp120 Deletion of both copies CCR5 gene = HIV immunity
42
Where does complement bind Ig?
Fc
43
Explain the 2 inheritance patterns for SCID and the clinical presentation
AR = ADA def X linked = IL 1 R mutation (cytokine R = 2nd signal for T cell activation) No T cells --> no B cells Viral, bacterial, fungal, opportunistic infections BUBBLE BOY - trt bone marrow transplant
44
What IL can you give to treat RCC/metastatic melanoma - mechanism
IL2 -> increase NK activity
45
What cell mediated sarcoidosis
CD 4 T cells in BAL fluid AA, young, F>M Cough and dyspnea Bialt hilar adenopathy -> noncaseating granulomas
46
What disease fuses your SI jt - what HLA are you looking for? What is a good way to monitor disease progression?
Ankylosing spondylitis - also look for bamboo spine = vertical fusion of vertebrae Seroneg spondyloathropathies = HLA B27 HLA A, B, C code for MHC 1 proteins (1 letter, MHC 1) Disease progress via chest expansion due to involvement of T spine and costo joints
47
Recurrent skin + rest infections Light skin + silvery hair Horizontal nystagmus Giant cytoplasm granules in neutrophils + monocytes
Chediak Higashi syndrome - MY dysfxn 1. Can't fuse phagolysosome 2. Can't move pigment in melanocytes 3. NT can't get to end of axon 4. Granules can't move for exocytosis
48
Describe how the IVC and ab aorta lay in respect to each other throughout the abdomen
IVC in front of aorta most of the abdomen until get to the femoral bifurcation when drops behind
49
Post total R hip replacement - leans to R side when walking and when standing on R leg left hip tilts down Which nerve is impaired
Sup gluteal nerve - glut med, min, and TFL Stabilize pelvis + aBduct Weak glut med + min can't contract so unaffected side pelvis sag when standing on affected leg Pt will lean to the affected side during walking to compensate for hip drop
50
3 yo boy - intel disability + speech delay 226 CGG trinuc repeats on X chromosome What it the cause of clinical condition
Fragile X = gene methylation of FMR1 gene = fragile X mental retardation 1 Trinuc repeats -> HYPER methylation -> inactivate the gene -> not transcription -> impaired neural development Southern blot = DNA to set # repeats
51
What is the most common benign liver tumor and what does it look like?
``` Cavernous hemangioma - BENIGN Single or multiple - generally small Histo = cavernous blood filled vascular spaces lined by SINGLE layer epithelium Asymptom or RUQ pain Vs hepatic adenoma vs HCC ```
52
Why would someone say Carvidopa/levadopa's response is unpredictable?
On/off periods Advanced PD - motor flux can occur indeed on med dosing -> unpredictable Due to progressive nigrostriatal neurodeg decreases therapeutic window for CD/LD NOT enhanced drug metabolism later in disease
53
Symptoms for Hpylori infection
Duodenal ulcers (#1 cause) Recent travel to CHINA Or chronic NSAID use Triple therapy to treat: 2 antibiotics + PPI
54
SE of highly active anti retroviral therapy for HIV
Body fat redistribution | Leaves face and limbs -> moves central
55
Name 2 bugs w/ toxins that inactivate EF2 via ribosylation -> no protein synthesis
1. C diptheriae = diphtheria toxin | 2. Pseudomonas = exotoxin A
56
What kind of cancer should you be thinking if an older man with osteoBLASTIC lesions in the spine presents?
Osteoblastic lesions will be sclerotic so think: 1. Prostate cancer - older men 2. Small cell lung cancer 3. Hodgkins
57
Cancers that present with osteolytic bone lesions
= lucent b/c osteoclasts beings stim, more aggressive cancer than those that have osteoblastic lesions 1. Multiple myeloma 2. Non small cell lung cancer 3. Non-hodgkins 4. RCC 5. Melanoma
58
What cell governs systemic vs cutaneous candida infections?
Cutaneous (including vaginal) = T cells = HIV when CD4 ct drops Systemic (blood, endocarditis) = neutrophils = chemo pts
59
Which immune cells attack cells w/ decreased MHC 1 expression?
NK cells
60
What is the anti-RhD Ab?
Give IgG Ab to Rh - mom w/ Rh + baby In case some of baby's blood gets into mom's circulation, preformed Ab will take care of it without activating systemic circulation IgG isn't a big problem here b/c the amt is so small there is no hemolysis in the fetus (since IgG cross placenta)
61
Where does the IL2 for the second signal on T cells come from?
That T cell! Bind TCR -> induce transcription of IL2 to act on self Cyclosporin + tacrolimus = calcineurin Is so can't do this via NFAT Conversely, balsiliximab + daclizumab block IL2 binding Sirolimus X mTOR which is the down stream effect of IL 2 binding (don't increase NFkB) Otherwise could use azothiopurine, MMF or glucocorticoids (x NFkB)
62
Top 3 cancers by incidence and mortality in men vs women
``` MEN by incidence 1. Prostate 2. Lung - but this is most deadly (switch 1/2) 3. CRC - #3 for deaths too WOMEN by incidence 1. Breast 2. Lung " " 3. CRC - #3 deaths too ```
63
Describe orthostatic hypotension and the compensatory response - name conditions that cause this
Something drops venous return to heart Less ventricle filling -> drop CO -> drop BP Baroreceptor reflex -> sympa tone @ a1 (VSM) increase TPR @ B1 (heart) increase HR + contractility If taking a1 blockers for BPH (treason, doxazosin) hypovol, hyperglycemia, autonomic dysfxn (Parkinsons)
64
What is weird about the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?
Sympa pre-gang neurons synapse DIRECTLY onto adrenal medulla (no intermediate ganglia) B/c chromatin cells are modified posting simp neurons (neural crest origin) Goes through the splanchnic gang but doesn't synapse here Secrete E 80% > NE 20%
65
Describe an S3 - how you listen to it and what it means
Comes right after S2 @ apex, L lat decubitus Either young people/athletes whose hearts are so strong its pushing more blood down from atrial during diastole Old people indicating LHF b/c blood flow into an overfilled ventricle w high end systolic vol (vol overloaded state in the heart b/c can't pump out leads to vol overload state peripherally)
66
Describe why you get pulsus paradoxus during cardiac tamponade
Tamponade = extra pericardial fluid prevents ventricles from expanding freely Therefore, inspo increases venous return to heart Intravent septum bulges into LV so the RV can accommodate this load (since the heart as a whole is limited by pericardial fluid) Decreases LV filling = pulsus paradoxus aka BP drops during inspo b/c you're LV vol decreases -> decrease CO -> decrease BP
67
Describe reactive arthritis Cause Serum results
Seroneg spondyloarth (HLA B27!!) Asymm arthritis large its - sterile jt effusion +/- Keratoderma blenorrhagicum = rash with mucous discharge on palms/soles Post-infectious: campy, shigella, salmonella, yersinia, chlamydia, bartonella Aka Reiter synd: can't see can pee can't climb a tree Cause by deposition of immune complexes
68
``` What are you thinking: 15 yo girl Amenorrhea Short High arched palate Tanner stage 1 breasts w/ widely spaced nipples ```
TURNERS = 45 XO Webbed neck Coarctation // bicuspid aortic valve Horseshoe kidney = didn't separate so connecting kidney piece overlays ab great vessels Ovary dysgenesis = streak gonads = degen follicles and replace w/ fibrosis (why amenorrhea) Vs PCOD - 2ary amen + hirstuism + obesity Vs Mullerian agenesis - 1ary amen due to absent Mullerian duct system (no vagina) but normal palate + breast
69
What thinking: Prox weakness - can't walk stairs or comb hair Muscle tenderness No rash Biopsy = endomysial mononuc infiltrate w/ patchy muscle fiber necrosis
POLYMYOSITIS Anti-Jo Abs = vs histidyl tRNA synthetase Also ANA Indep or manifestation of adenocarcinoma Vs Ab desmoglein -> pemphigus vulgaris = skin blistering + desquamation
70
Describe primary carnitine def
FA OXIDATION FAs (acyl CoA synthase) -> ACoA + carnitine -> now can enter mitochondria as acyl-carnitine (will go into TCA cycle) No carnitine - can't do this Skeletal + cardiac muscle can't use FA -> ATP Liver can't make ketone bodies (acetoacetate!!!) if glucose gets low - deficiency will de downstream of the problem SYMPTOMS 1. Muscle weak 2. Cardiomyopathy 3. Hypoketotic hypoG 4. Increased muscle TGs Vs. palmitate = FA you eat or make but completely based in cytosol - doesn't have carnitine shuttle problem
71
Glaucoma is increased IOP due to excess prod (@ciliary body) or decreased outflow of aq humor (out via 1. trabecular outflow or 2. uveoscleral outflow). Name meds to treat (3 classes)
Fundo: see more white at optic disc than you should (increased cup:disc ratio) lose peripheral vision 1st line PG agonist (latanoprost = topical) increase US outflow 2. M agonists - increase trabecular outflow 3. Decrease humor prod via BBers, a2 agonists, carbonic anhydrase Is
72
Name defect that gives you galactose-emia presenting as infant w/ lethargy, vomiting and jaundice after started breastfeeding
Eat lactose -> glucose + galactose @GI Galactose (galactose kinase) -> galactose 1 phosphate HERE can't break down G1P b/c no GALT (G1P uridyl transferase) enzyme Excess G1P -> galactic acid (broken down by HMP shunt) + galactitol (accum in cells) Restrict lactose in diet
73
Describe difference between glioblastoma + oligodendroglioma
Glioblastoma = most common brain tumor adults @ cerebral hemispheres, may cross as butterfly glioma Big w/ necrosis + hemm -> watch midline shift V. MALIGNANT Oligodendroglioma = slow growing tumor of white matter of cerebral hemispheres, think well circumscribed gray masses with calcification
74
Name carpal bones if looking at top of hand (dorsum)
Thumb: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum (can't see pisiform) S + L both articulate w/ radius, FOOSH opten dislocates L w/ median nerve compression (coming thru carpel tunnel) Thumb: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
75
Cause of hydrocele in babies
Indirect inguinal hernia - don't obliterate processus vaginalis (forms tunica vaginalis) - communicate peritoneum and scrotum Non-comm hydrocele = PV closed but fluid got trapped in TV on the way down Comm hydrocele = PV open Vs. direct inguinal hernia means contents go through ab wall maybe down into scrotum
76
What pathways does ethanol (aka booze) inhibit that results in drop in BG?
``` X gluconeogenesis @ liver B/c increases NADH/NAD+ ratio Drives/stops reactions increasing: 1. Lactate 2. Malate During acute binge, BG maintained by glycogenolysis Chronic binge means you can't make new glucose once those stores have been used See high ketones ```
77
5 structures through superior orbital fissure
``` 3 - oculomotor = adduction (med rectus) 4 - trochlear 5(1) branch - ophthalmic nerve = sensory limb of corneal reflex 6 - abducens Sup ophthalmic vein Vs optic canal carrying CN2 only Vs. foramen rotunda comes out of skull into pterygopalatine fossa carrying 5(2) -> inf orbital fissure -> infraorbital foramen = infraorbital nerve Vs 5(3) via foramen ovale ```
78
Describe what happens to renin, AGT 1 + 2, aldo, and bradykinin on ACE vs ARB
Renin coverts angiotensinogen to AGT1 @ liver ACE converts AGT 1 -> 2 @ LUNGS 1. Increase renin, AGT1 2. Decrease AGT2, aldo (AGT2 stima aldo release) 3. Increase brady b/c ACE degrades brady = dry cough SE ARB = AGT 2 blocker (losartan) 1. Increase renin, AGT1, AGT2 2. Decrease aldo 3. No change bradykinin ARBs vasodilate b/c no AGT2 @ VSM
79
Explain difference between int + ext hemorrhoids
``` Int - above dentate line, columnar epi, innervate by inf hypogastric plexus = autonomic aka only response to stretch not pain, temp, touch Ext - below dentate line, squamous, branch of pudendal = inf rectal nerve so very sensitive to touch temp pain Dentate line (wavy line) divides upper 2/3 from lower 1/3 rectum ```
80
If pt gets infective endocarditis post-dental work, what underlying condition is more impt risk factor: mitral valve prolapse or RHD?
MVP valvular sclerosis and mechanical valves are larger RF in developed world since RHD is so rare
81
What is DRESS syndrome
After starting anti-convulsants, allopurinol, sulfonamides, and antibiotics Fver LNs Facial edema Diffuse red, spotty skin rash Allergic rxn so high eos vs. chemo drugs that can cause microangiopathic hemolytic anemia = schistocytes on peripheral smear
82
Define phenotype mixing
2 viruses in host Progeny virion have nucleocapsid from 1 strain and unchanged parental genome of the other - no genetic exchange - next gen visions revert to original unmixed phenotypes
83
If you're going to use atropine to speed up bradycardia, how does this work and what is the CI?
Blocks vagal tone @ SA + AV CI in glaucoma - M1 block -> dilation = narrow angle -> decrease aqueous outflow Acute close angle glaucoma may result = unlit eye pain
84
How do statins work + SE
X HMG CoA reductase IF can't make more cholesterol, increase clearance of LDL from circulation by liver Increased LDL receptor cycling allows intrahepatic cholesterol levels to remain normal while blood levels are low SE: myopathy
85
``` Effects on baby if you take this during preg: Tetracyc Chloramphenicol TMP SMX Aminoglycosides ```
Tetracyc - stain teeth Chloramphenicol - gray baby synd TMP SMX - neural tube defect (folic acid antag) Aminoglycosides - ototx, vestibulotox
86
Symptoms of MS
Get worse in heat: decrease axon transmission 1. Optic problems including painful eye movement 2. Internuc opthalmoplegia (demy MLF) 3. Cerebellar dysfxn 4. Sensory/motor probs - bowel + bladder dysfxn
87
what 2 substances govern angiogen
VEGF Fibroblast growth factor NOT EGF = mitosis of cells but not BVs
88
If you're thinking multiple myeloma - what cell will you see in bone marrow
``` Excess plasma cells Basophilic - stain purple Nuclei aren't center Wagon wheel/clock face dist of nuclear chromatin > 30% plasma cells = MM ```
89
Name the 5 types of hernias
1. Diaphragmatic: congenital, trauma, hiatal, sliding hiatal, paraesophageal 2. Indirect inguinal (men only) - covered by all 3 layers of spermatic fascia (L to inf epigastric) 3. Direct inguinal (M + W) - due to weakness in TRANSVERSALIS FASCIA, covered by ext spermatic fascia 4. Femoral 5. Umbilical - failure of umbilical ring to close "protrusion covered by skin w/ umbilical stump at center" (Down's)
90
If veins are enlarged in the FUNDUS of the stomach, which veins could be congested to cause this?
Short gastric veins drain to SPLENIC VEIN Possible w/ chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer or ab tumors Since splenic vein runs along post surface of pancreas
91
How many fxnal parts of the duodenum are there and which section lies between the SMA and aorta?
4 sections Duodenal bulb = pylorus -> neck of GB (sits behind liver + GB) - behind it = gastroduodenal art (ulcer), common biliary duct, portal vein Section 3 = transverse, under SMA (L3 level)
92
What part of SI absorbs fat?
JEJUNUM - passive absorption of fat in micelles | Digested @ duodenum b/c add pancreatic enzymes + bile
93
Where is trypsinogen secreted and activated? How might you become trypsin def?
From pancreas Brush border enteropeptidase activates -> trypsin (@ jejunum) Then trypsin activates all other pancreatic proteases If def b/c don't have fxnal BB enzymes: fat + protein malabsorption -> infant w/ diarrhea, fail to thrive, edema (due to low blood oncotic P)
94
What stimulates secretin secretion? 2 fxns
Acid stim when hit S cells in pancreas 1. Increase bicarb from pancreas @ DUCTAL CELLS Big difference: CCK acts a pancreatic acinar cells (imagine flower: stem vs petals) 2. Increase bile secretion
95
When would you supplement an infant with vit D vs Fe?
Breast milk has no vit K or D 1. Get vit K shot at birth to prevent hmm disease of newborn 2. Supplement w/ vit D if exclusively breastfed + low in weight/length to prevent rickets Also watch out for babies who get no sun exp or are very dark skinned + Fe if preterm or low birthweight b/c [Fe] breast milk decreases over time
96
Describe how the great vessels, trachea, and esophagus lay in relation to each other in the chest
Great vessels = most ant Trachea middle = black w/ air Esophagus most post lying on top of spine -> is typically collapsed w/ no visible lumen
97
Describe the XR findings for TEE, duodenal atresia, and intestinal atresia
TEE - air in stomach Duodenal atresia = double bubble (pyloric sphincter) Intestinal atresia = tripple bubble (PS + ligament of treitz)
98
If a baby presents with an abd cyst that is connected by a fibrous band to the ileum and the umbilicus - what kind of duct abnormalities are you thinking?
Vitelline duct = connects midgut with yolk sac 1. Persistent duct - get meconium discharge from umbilicus 2. Meckel diverticulum - part of SI still attached and pulled toward = diverticulum 3. Vitelline sinus = partial closure w/ patent portion open at belly button 4. Duct cyst (question stem)
99
What is your landmark if you can't find the appendix by palpation during removal?
Taniae coli = longitudinal muscle of the colon Exists as 3 longitudinal bands - contract to form hausta (which aren't helpful b/c they are the same throughout the colon) Converge at root of the appendix
100
Ulcer that penetrates through the lesser curve of the stomach would perf what artery
L (upper) or R (lower) gastric - both off celiac trunk
101
Describe 3 parts of volvulus
Incomplete rotation of the gut in utero results in 1. Cecum in RUQ 2. Fibrous bands connecting the RLQ retroperitoneum to the R colon by passing over duodenum -> SI obstruction = bilious emesis 3. Possible occlusion of SMA due to rotation around it
102
``` What are you thinking: 3 days old - green vomit Normal appearing duodenum Absence of segment of jejunum + ileum Remainder of distal ileum winding around thin vasc stalk ```
INTESTINAL ATRESIA due to vasc occlusion
103
What causes the pain associated with appendicitis?
Early appendicitis = organ distension = carry by afferents of ANS = visceral ab pain = poorly localized therefore why ppl first present with epigastric pain Later = irritate ANT parietal peritoneum aka ab wal - more severe pain that shift to more local location
104
Structures in the hepatoduodenal ligament
Common bile duct Hepatic art Portal vein
105
What is the metyrapone stim test - what does it test for? How does it work?
Tests CRH -> ACTH -> cortisol axis Block the production of cortisol @ ZFasiculata SHOULD see a rise in ATCH is the axis is intact Metyrapone X 11 B hydroxylase - increase 11 deoxycortisol (precursor for the reaction) -> metabolizes as 17 OH corticosteroid -> out via urine If don't see rise in 11/17 cortisol products you know it is an ADRENAL problem
106
What are the actions of mifepristone + misoprostol as the dual drug regimen to terminate a pregnancy?
Mifepristone = P antagonist, binds w/ greater affinity than P, necrosis of uterine decida Misoprostol = PROSTaglandin E1 analog, cervical softening + uterine contractions so pregnancy can be expelled Vs MTX = folate antagonist, used for ectopic or to term pre if M/M regimen not avail
107
Describe the problem leading to epispadias vs hypospadias vs bifid scrotum
F urogenital folds (same thing as URETHRAL folds) dont fuse = labial minora Hypospadias = urethra on BOTTOM of penis (hypo = under) b/c fail fuse urogenital folds Epispadias = urethra on TOP b/c faulty position of genital tubercle (becomes the penis in M, clitoris in F) Bifid scrotum = malunion of LABIO SCROTAL folds (labia MAJORA in women)
108
Name the group of muscles responsible for forearm flex, wrist flex, wrist extension
``` Wrist extension (origin @ LAT epicondyle "tennis elbow" b/c of backhand) = extensor digitorum + extensor carpi radialis brevis Wrist flexion (MED epicondyle, "golfer's elbow") Forearm flex = biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis ```
109
What stage is an egg arrested in before fertilization?
3. Metaphase of meiosis 2!!! How released from ovary Fertilization allows progress to telophase 2 (barr body 2) 2. Makes sense - meiosis 1 gets you half chromosome # (barr body 1) 1. Eggs also arrest in prophase of meiosis 1 before puberty
110
Describe the presentation and nerve injured by ant dislocation of humerus
Happens when hit arm during throw - ext rot + abduction 1. Flattening of deltoid 2. Protrusion of acromion Ax nerve injury - abduction of should BEYOND 1st 15 degrees via deltoid and teres minor + sensory to skin over lateral shoulder
111
Describe complete vs partial hydatidiform moles
Complete "bunch of grapes", snowstorm on US 1. Completely formed - diploid chromosomes aka fertilized 2. Completely a mole - no fetal tissue b/c empty ovum that was fertilized, completely edematous vili *p 57 negative b/c no maternal genome* 3. Complete covering of vili in blasts = higher BhCG - causes THECA LUTEIN CYSTS 4. Complete risk of choriocarcinoma - why you monitor BhCG after D&C removal Partial = normal ovum fert by 2 sperm (69 chromosomes) -> fetal tissue present, some vili, focal trophoblastic proliferation, minimal risk for chorio
112
What would high AFP protein in a preg woman suggest?
Neural tube defects, twins, ab wall defects
113
Which GP bug presents w/ GREY pharyngeal exudate? Name everything you know about this bug
Clost diptheriae 1. Resp droplets 2. Rods - multiple form V or U shape 3. Metachromatic granules inside that stain red vs the cell blue 4. Toxin riBOWsylates EF2 -> no protein synthesis 5. Toxoid vaccine // treat w/ anti toxin 6. To dx if bacteria present, grow on Loeffler's or cysteine-tellurite agar 7. To det toxic vs non toxic strains do Elek (E lick) test 8. Grey pseudomembranes pharyngitis -> toxin damages nerve fibers can have post pharyngitis paralysis of CNs 9. Cervical LNs = bull's neck 10. Toxin is cardio tox: myocarditis, arrhythmia, heart block
114
Describe the empty can test for the shoulder
Isolates supra "Pour one out" Abduct humerus in parallel to axis of scapula (30 degrees forward flexion) while in full int rotation (thumbs to floor) Push down - can't stay up supra problem Supra does 1st 15 degrees abduction until deltoid takes over
115
What BB do you use for thyroid storm - why?
Propranolol 1. Decrease HR 2. Decrease peripheral conversion T4 -> T3 b/c X iodothyronine deiodinase Change TH synthesis and release by + iodine and blocking thyroid peroxidase respectively Remember T3 = active form, binds receptor in the NUCLEUS
116
Describe how glycogen degradation is increase with skeletal muscle contraction
More glycogen degraded w/ contracting skeletal muscle Glycogen -> glucose 1 P via glycogen phosphorylase GP is activated by phosphorylase kinase, 2 things up reg activity of this in skeletal muscle #1 = Ca from contracting muscle #2 = E induced increase cAMP GP is inactivated by phosphoprotein phosphatase Remember that PK in liver is different and is activated by E/glucagon binding Gs receptors for glycogen breakdown
117
Describe all of the different blots - how is a Western blot different than ELISA
Southern = DNA, North = RNA, West = protein, SW = DNA binding proteins (TFs) Western: 1. Sep proteins via electrophoresis 2. Move to nitocell membrane + probed Ab for protein of interest Vs ELISA = testing pts serum directly (vs electrophoresis first)
118
What factor determine peak bone mass vs bone loss
Peak bone mass = genetics (similar curves with space between) Bone loss = exercise, diet including alc or smoke, steroid use, premature meno (curves with different slopes)
119
Why is resting membrane potential -70mV instead of the potential for K = -80mV?
Small number Na channels that allow flow of Na into cells decreasing membrane potential Remember membrane potential ext by ATP as to put 3 Na out and 2K into cell - high [K] in cell, high [Na] outside
120
Name 2 meds that should be avoided in pts with hypertrophic CM
HCM gets worse if you decrease LV volume 1. Vasodilators (DHP Ca CBs, nitroG, ACE Is) - decrease TPR, decrease afterload, lower LV vol = more friction between the outflow tract 2. Diuretics = decrease preload so same problem Meds that reduce LV outflow tract obstruction: Non-DHP Ca CB, disopyramide, BBers
121
If you're on prednisone for a long time, what happens to your HPA axis?
Like having a ton of cortisol in circulation = lots of -FB = low CRH, ACTH, cortisol So pt can't adequately respond to stressful situations - infection, surg - you have to increase dose to prevent steroid def = *hypotension, shock* Can cause adrenal atrophy - why you need to gradually pull pts off steroid to avoid adrenal insuff
122
Which anti-emetics do you use for motion sickness vs chemo? Describe SE
Motion sickness 1. Anti-M = scopolamine 2. Ant-H = diphendyramine, meclizine, promethazine Anti chol SE: blurry vision, dry mouth, urine retent, constipation Cancer 1. D R antag = prochlorperazine, metoclopramide = diarrhea 2. S R antag = ondansetron, granisetron 3. NK 1 R antag = aprepitant, fosaprepitant
123
Mechanism + SE of metaglitinides
``` = repaglinide, nateglinide DIABETES - short acting glucose lower Mech: X ATP dep K channel @ pancreas B cell -> depol -> open Ca channel -> insulin release Same mech as sulfonylureas SE: hypoG, weight gain ```
124
What is your dx for pt with pancytopenia WITHOUT splenomeg? What does the bone marrow look like?
Aplastic anemia BM is hypocellular - mostly fat and stroma, "dry tap" Bone marrow is how you differentiate between this and other pancyto w/o spleno: - Combined b12 + folate def anemia - Acute leukemia - Some myelodysplastic syndromes
125
Describe metformin mechanism + SE - what are you going to check before starting this med?
X 1st ETC enzyme -> decrease cellular E stores Causes AMPK activation = less hepatic gluconeo Increase peripheral glucose utilization SE = LACTIC ACIDOSIS - Increases intestinal production of lactate since these cells can't use ETC for aerobic glycolysis // decreases liver metabolism of lactate since less gluconeo Check Cr (renal) before starting CI w/ CHF or alcoholic b/c increase risk SE
126
Describe the difference between rubeola and rubella
Rubella = TOGAvirus = maculopapular rash begins on face and spreads to trunk/limbs Spreads fast and does not coalesce like rubeola **Post auricular and occipital lymphadenopathy** Rubeola = paramyxovirus = measles = similar but rash may join together and w/o LNs
127
Describe the hormones levels of pt with cryptorchidism
Undescended testes Body heat will make seminiferous tubules atrophic - lose Sertoli cells 1. Low sperm count = infertile 2. Sertoli cells not making inhibin to FB to pit -> increase FSH Leydig cells in tests are in the matrix between tubules and NOT heat sen -> continue to produce testosterone -> feeds back to hypothal = normal LH and testosterone levels (normal sex characteristics + drive)
128
Describe minimal change disease
Associated with allergies or after an infection or immunization Overproduction of cytokines: effacement of podocytes on EM Lose neg charge of GBM - lose ONLY albumin into urine: kid presents with generalized (esp periorbital) edema Maltese crosses on urine analysis
129
Equation for renal blood flow
RBF = PAH clearance / renal plasma flow | = (PAH urine/serum x urine flow rate) / 1-Hct
130
Mechanism and SE of colchicine
X tubulin polymerization (aka the cytoskeleton) GOUT - treats flares or with allopurinol chronically SE = DIARRHEA, N, ab pain
131
Mechanism and SE of warfarin
Mech = X vit K dep coag gactors Also decreases protein C + S (both anti-coat) Protein C has short t1/2 so it activity is quickly reduced when you start warfarin During this time it K factors dominate as PRO coag SE = warfarin induced skin nec b/c transient hypercoag state that happens when you first start warfarin Clot that blocks BF to skin -> nec **WHY YOU BRIDGE WITH HEPARIN