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Clin Tech > WBC And Platelets > Flashcards

WBC And Platelets Flashcards

1
Q

When should differential cell count be done?

A

Always even if automated system is used

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2
Q

What abnormalities can be missed and not reported by automated systems for differential cell count

A

Nucleated RBC’s, toxic granulation, platelet clumps, target cells, hemo parasites

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3
Q

What does systemic evaluation avoid

A

Counting errors are missing important observations

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4
Q

Where should you observe a slide?

A

Feathered edge

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5
Q

True or false, you should scan entire slide for platelet clumps, large abnormal cells, microfilaria

A

True

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6
Q

How many cells should you count for a relative blood count?

A

A minimum of 100 RBC’s

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7
Q

Should you record the number of each WBC found on a relative blood count

A

Yes

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8
Q

What is an absolute value?

A

Relative percentages of cell type for account maybe misleading, especially if the WBC count is outside of normal range

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9
Q

How do you calculate an absolute value?

A

Multiply the total WBC count by the percentage of each type

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10
Q

What are the types of white blood cell cells?

A

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

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11
Q

What is the most abundant WBC in mammals?

A

Neutrophils

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12
Q

What are the characteristics of neutrophils?

A

Nucleus is irregular and elongated, and true filaments between lobes are rare

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13
Q

What is the primary function of a neutral fill?

A

Phagocytosis – increased numbers indicate infection or inflammation

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14
Q

What are heterophils

A

Similar to neutrophils, but found in birds, reptiles, and some fish

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15
Q

What are band neutrophils?

A

Nucleus is horseshoe shaped with large round ends

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16
Q

Are band neutrophils common

A

No, rare

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17
Q

What’s the general rule of thumb for band neutrophils

A

If constriction makes up more than 1/3 the width of the nucleus, it is called a segmented neutrophil

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of eosinophils?

A

Container nucleus similar to neutrophils, but the chromatin is not usually clump as coarsely – shape and size very among species and within species, such as dogs

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19
Q

What are eosinophil characteristic specific to cats?

A

Eosinophilic granules are small, elongated, and numerous

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20
Q

What are eosinophil characteristic specific to equine?

A

Granules are large and round two oval and stain orange – red in color

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21
Q

What is the main function of eosinophils?

A

Modulation of immune system – capable of phagocytosis

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22
Q

When will you see an increased number of eosinophils?

A

Patient with allergies and parasitic infections

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23
Q

What are characteristics of basophils

A

Nuclei similar to monocytes, granules at same purple to blue black

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24
Q

Arebasophils common?

A

No, rare

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25
Q

Who are basophils more common in

A

Horses and cattle

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26
Q

What are characteristics of basophils specific to cats

A

Round granules and stain a bright lavender color

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27
Q

What is the main function of basophils

A

Mediation of the immune system

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28
Q

What are characteristics of lymphocytes?

A

Variety of sizes, slightly indented nuclei, coarsely clumped chromatin, bluish cytoplasm, medium to large, may have pink – purple granule in the cytoplasm

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29
Q

Where are lymphocytes most abundant?

A

Ruminants

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30
Q

True or false bovine lymphocytes have nuclear rings

A

True

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31
Q

What is a major function of lymphocytes?

A

Production of antibodies

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32
Q

What do increased numbers of lymphocytes indicate?

A

Viral infection

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33
Q

What are characteristics of monocytes?

A

Largest WBC, variability shape, nuclei, kidney being shaped or elongated and loaded, diffuse chromatin, cytoplasm is blue – gray color and may have vases and small fine pink granules

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34
Q

What is the main function of a monocyte?

A

Phagocytosis

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35
Q

What is an increased number of monocytes indicate

A

Chronic infection

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36
Q

What is Pelger-huet anomaly

A

Nuclear hyper, segmentation, congenital defect

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37
Q

Is nuclear hyper segmentation common?

A

Yes

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38
Q

What is the character characteristic of nuclear hyper segmentation?

A

Nuclei with five or more lobes

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39
Q

What can be a cause of nuclear hyper segmentation

A

Because of aging neutrophils or common in poodles with macrocytosis

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40
Q

What is toxic change?

A

Cytoplasmic basophilia, döhle bodies, toxic, granulation, gigantism

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41
Q

What causes toxic change?

A

Common disease – induce cytoplasm changes in neutrophils

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42
Q

What is toxic change associated with?

A

Inflammation, infection, drug toxicity

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43
Q

What can cause intracytoplasmic inclusions

A

Erlichia morulae

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44
Q

What is atypical lymphocytes?

A

Have basophilic cytoplasm and Cleaved nuclei

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45
Q

What are platelets?

A

Small cytoplasmic fragments shed from megakaryocytes in bow marrow

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46
Q

What are the methods for evaluation for platelets?

A

Platelet counts, platelet, indices, platelet function

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47
Q

What is the word for decreased platelets?

A

Thrombocytopenia

48
Q

What is the word for increased platelets?

A

Thrombocytosis

49
Q

What are the two options for platelet counts?

A

Automated hematology analyzer, manual

50
Q

What can cause automated hematology analyzer to be inaccurate?

A

Clumping and overlap

51
Q

What can be used for manual plate count?

A

Hemacytometer, chamber or tube containing pre-measured volume of diluting to blood

52
Q

What kind of morphological change should you observe on a blood smear?

A

Aggregation, giant platelets

53
Q

What are reticulated platelets?

A

Newly released platelets with high levels of RNA

54
Q

What is a platelet estimate?

A

Indirect measurement of platelet numbers using the differential blood film, evaluated in the mono layer

55
Q

How many microscopic fields should you count on a plate estimate?

A

At least 10

56
Q

What is the normal number of platelets per field?

A

8 to 10

57
Q

How do you calculate a platelet estimate?

A

Multiply the average number in 10 fields by 15,000 to 20,000

58
Q

What is an alternate method for a platelet estimate?

A

Count the number of platelets per 100 WBC’s on a film then calculate the playlist estimate

59
Q

What is the equation for the alternate method for platelet estimates?

A

Reticulocytes times WBC count divided by 100 leukocytes

60
Q

What is MPV stand for?

A

Mean platelet volume

61
Q

What is an MPV?

A

Mathematical average of the size of the individual platelets counted by the analyzer

62
Q

What increases can you expect on an MPV?

A

Increase loss, cats have larger platelets, breed specific, exposure to EDTA

63
Q

What does high MPV indicate?

A

Adequate bone marrow response

64
Q

Does a low or normal MPV predict a low bone marrow response

A

No

65
Q

What is a plateletcrit/thrombocrit

A

Measure of the percentage of the total blood volume compromised of platelets

66
Q

How is plateletcrit determined?

A

multiplying the total platelet count by the mean, platelet volume, normally less than one percent of mammals

67
Q

What is platelet distribution width?

A

Assesses the variation in the size of platelets

68
Q

What are larger platelets seen with?

A

Thrombocytopenia

69
Q

True or false platelet distribution width is always correlated with bone marrow response

A

False

70
Q

What is a platelet function test test for?

A

Thrombopathia, alteration of platelet function

71
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

The ability of the body systems to maintain the integrity of the blood and blood vessels

72
Q

What does hemostasis involve

A

A number of complex pathways, platelets, coagulation factors

73
Q

What is the mechanical phase?

A

Initiated when blood vessel is ruptured or torn, exposed sub, endothelium of vessel is charged, platelets attract to this charge surface

74
Q

What does the mechanical phase require?

A

Von Willebrand factor

75
Q

What is the chemical phase?

A

Coagulation, cascade, involves the number of factors, intrinsic and extrinsic pathways, results in a fibrin mesh or clot

76
Q

What are the 12 clotting factors?

A

1 fibrinogen
2 prothrombin
3 tissue factor
4 calcium
5proaccelerin
6 none
7 proconvertin
8 anti-hemophilic factor
9 Christmas factor,plasma thromboplastin
10 Stuart factor
11 plasma thromboplastin antecedent

77
Q

What factors are part of the intrinsic pathway

A

12, 11, 9, 8

78
Q

What factors are apart of the extrinsic pathway

A

3,7

79
Q

What factors are apart of the common pathway

A

10, 5, 2

80
Q

What do coagulation test evaluate?

A

Specific phases of the coagulation process

81
Q

True or false some coagulation test requires specialized instruments are preferred over manual because of variability of manual test

A

True

82
Q

True or false coagulation test may be altered if platelet count is low

A

True

83
Q

What does BMBT stand for?

A

Buccal mucosa bleeding time

84
Q

What is BMBT?

A

Primary essay for detection of abnormalities in platelet function

85
Q

What is the procedure for BMBT?

A

Tie upper lip back make a 1 mm deep incision black incision every five seconds until bleeding is stopped

86
Q

What is a normal BMBT?

A

One to five minutes

87
Q

What does prolonged bleeding indicate for BMBT

A

Deficiencies in Von Willebrand, factor, thrombocytopenia

88
Q

What clotting factors can activated clotting time evaluate

A

All but seven

89
Q

What is the method used for whole blood clotting time?

A

Lee – white method

90
Q

What is more sensitive whole blood clotting time or activating clotting test

A

Activated clotting test

91
Q

What does APTT stand for?

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

92
Q

What does aPTT evaluate?

A

Intrinsic and common clotting mechanisms

93
Q

What is used for a PTT?

A

Coag dx analyzer

94
Q

What can the coag dx analyzer test for

A

A variety of disorders in addition of heparin can effect results

95
Q

What is a prothrombin time test

A

Evaluates intrinsic and common coagulation pathways

96
Q

Is the prothrombin time test usually performed mechanically or on automated analyzer?

A

Automated analyzer

97
Q

What is another name for prothrombin time test

A

One stage prothrombin time

98
Q

What does OSPT stand for?

A

One stage prothrombin time

99
Q

What is normal for an OSPT?

A

7 to 10 seconds

100
Q

What does a prolonged OSPT indicate?

A

Severe liver disease, DIC, hereditary, or acquired deficiencies of any factor, vitamin K

101
Q

What is a clot retraction test?

A

Evaluates platelet number and function in the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways

102
Q

What is the procedure for a clot retraction test?

A

Examine blood tube every 60 minutes over 24 hour. Period class should be evident in 60 minutes and retracted in approximately four hours with marked retraction at 24 hours.

103
Q

What is the von Willebrand factor?

A

Required for platelet adhesion

104
Q

Who is prone to von Willebrand factor

A

Dobermans

105
Q

What are coagulation factor essays due to?

A

Hereditary conditions, acquired conditions

106
Q

What can bleeding disorders caused by?

A

Congenital defects, acquired defects

107
Q

What are primary coagulation disorders of a result of?

A

Congenital defects

108
Q

What are congenital or acquired defects?

A

Superficial petechia, ecchymotic hemorrhage, epistasis, melana, prolonged bleeding

109
Q

Hemophilia a is most commonly caused by a deficiency of

A

Factor eight

110
Q

Hemophilia D is most commonly caused by a deficiency of

A

Factor Nine

111
Q

What is the most common inherited coagulation disorder of domestic animals?

A

Von Willebrand disease

112
Q

What is von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Decrease in von Willebrand factor

113
Q

How many types of von Willebrand disease are there?

A

Three

114
Q

What types of von Willebrand disease are most severe?

A

Two and three

115
Q

What can be a cause for thrombocytopenia?

A

Unknown or result from infectious disease or administration of certain medications, such as aspirin or acetaminophen

116
Q

What is vitamin K deficiency?

A

Can be dietary or bile obstruction, and justice of rodenticides, or moldy, sweet clover

117
Q

Vitamin K is required for

A

Synthesis an activation of factors 279 and 10

Clin Tech (13 decks)

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