Immunology Testing Flashcards

1
Q

What is serology?

A

The science of detection and measurement of antibodies or antigens

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2
Q

What is specificity

A

The ability of a test to produce no false positives

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3
Q

If a specificity test is positive what can you be certain of?

A

They actually have the disease

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4
Q

What is a sensitivity test

A

A test able to produce no false negatives

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5
Q

If a sensitivity test is negative what can you be certain of?

A

They don’t have the disease

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6
Q

What does a sensitivity test help do

A

Rule out the disease

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7
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Antibody specific to Ag

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8
Q

Immunization of an animal with an antigen to stimulate the production of antibody. What is the antibody produced?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

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9
Q

True or false corn the resulting reaction of antigen with this monoclonal antibody is diagnostically significant/very specific

A

True

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10
Q

What are examples of serologic test?

A

ELISA
CELISA
LATEX AGGLUTINATION
RIM(rapid immunomigtation

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11
Q

What does ELISA stand for

A

Enzyme linked immunosobent assay

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12
Q

What does the ELISA test for?

A

Specific antigen or antibody

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13
Q

Does FIV snap test test for antibodies or both antigen and antibodies

A

Antibody

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14
Q

Does triple snap test test for antibodies or both antigen and antibodies

A

Antigens and antibodies

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15
Q

What can the ELISA detect

A

Viruses, bacteria, parasites, hormones

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16
Q

True or false specificity of ELISE is high

A

True

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17
Q

What happens during an ELISA test?

A

Anybody is bound to the membrane or walls of wells in the test, antigen if present is in the sample being tested, antigen binds to antibody into second enzyme linked in a body, rinse stage, happens within the test

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18
Q

What is chromogenic substrate?

A

Color producing

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19
Q

Does the ELISA test have chromogenic substrate

A

Yes

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20
Q

What does the chromogenic substrate react with to develop a specific color?

A

Enzyme

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21
Q

What does the color indicate in ELISA test

A

Presence of antigen

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22
Q

What does CELISA stand for

A

Competitive enzyme linked in immuno sorbent assay

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23
Q

What test does enzyme labeled antigen and antigen from the sample complete for antibody on the test membrane or walls of the well?

A

CELISA

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24
Q

What happens during a CELISA test

A

Color developer reacts with enzyme, intensity of color, corresponds to the concentration of patient antigen

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25
Q

What are examples of the CELISA test

A

Feline pancreatitis, equine infectious anemia

26
Q

What is the RIM test?

A

Immunochromatography or lateral flow immunoassay

27
Q

What happens during REM test?

A

Colloidal gold is attached to antibodies specific for the antigen, these are present in the membrane of the test where the patient sample is applied, the AG – AB complex is migrating along the membrane to another area of the test where it is read, a second antibody(containing gold) is present in the membrane of the second area, the second body captures the AG – AB complex with the gold, causing a color change equals positive

28
Q

What are examples of serologic test sent out to reference labs?

A

Immunodiffusion, coombs test, complement fixation, immunofluorescence, immunoelectron microscopy, virus neutralization, polymerase chain reaction(PCR)

29
Q

What is immunodiffusion?

A

Antigen from the test kit and antibody from the sample are placed in separate wells in an agar gel plate, components diffuse into the Egar and when they meet, they form a G – AB complex, this looks like a visible band in the gel

30
Q

If no band form during immunodiffusion, what does this mean?

A

No antibodies exist in the patient sample

31
Q

What is the coombs test?

A

Detect auto antibodies, used to detect anybody that has attacked the body’s own red blood cells

32
Q

What does a positive result for coombs test mean?

A

Immune meeting, mediated hemolytic disease

33
Q

How do you perform form a coombs test?

A

Come on patient sample with antisera. If agglutination is visible, then the test is positive.

34
Q

What is an indirect coombs test?

A

Patient serum mixed with normal red blood cells from same species

35
Q

What indicates a positive indirect coombs test

A

If antibody is present in the patient serum agglutination will be present

36
Q

What is fluorescent antibody testing often used for?

A

To verify an in-house test

37
Q

What are the two types of fluorescent antibody testing and what do they detect?

A

Direct an indirect antibody testing – both detect presence of specific antibody and sample

38
Q

What is the technique for direct fluorescent antibody testing?

A

Test slide coded with fluorescent dyed agent, antigen if present is in the sample, slide is examine for presence of fluorescence

39
Q

What is the technique for indirect fluorescence antibody testing?

A

Side contains the specific test antigen, sample is incubated with slide, slide is washed to remove any unbound, fluorescent labeled antibody is added, examine for fluorescence

40
Q

True or false: any fluorescent is a positive test for fluorescent body test testing

A

True

41
Q

What are interdermal test used for?

A

Diagnose allergies

42
Q

Allergies are mediated by what antibodies

A

IgE

43
Q

How do you perform an interdermal test?

A

Extracts of allergens are injected intradermally, injection sites are monitored for allergic reaction reactions

44
Q

What indicates a positive intradermal test

A

Raised welt

45
Q

What is antibody titers

A

Distinguish between an active infection and a prior exposure to certain allergens

46
Q

True or false: titer refers to the greatest dilution at which a patient sample no longer yields a positive result for presence of specific antibody

A

True

47
Q

True or false antibody titer requires making cereal dilutions of a sample

A

True

48
Q

What does high tighter indicate?

A

Active infection

49
Q

What does low tighter indicate?

A

Previous exposure

50
Q

True or false: antibody concentration is not necessarily synonymous with immunity

A

True

51
Q

What titers are currently available?

A

Canine distemper, canine parvovirus, feline panleukopenia

52
Q

What two laboratories offer rabies titer testing

A

Kansas State University, rabies laboratory USDA’s animal disease, diagnostic laboratory in Ames, Iowa

53
Q

What does molecular diagnostic test analyze?

A

DNA or RNA, identifies a specific pathogen

54
Q

What are the advantages to molecular diagnostic testing?

A

Increase sensitivity, increase specificity, small amount of sample, test are safe, faster turnaround time

55
Q

What are disadvantages to molecular diagnostic test?

A

Contamination will lead to false positives, technical expertise needed, high cost, large space required

56
Q

What does PCR stand for?

A

Polymerase chain reaction

57
Q

What does PCR test detect?

A

Small specific segment of DNA

58
Q

True or false the sequencing of the DNAsegment must be known prior to testing for

A

True

59
Q

True or false copies of the DNA segment are made through denaturation, annealing, and extension

A

True

60
Q

True or false gel electrophoresis is used to determine if the segment is present for a PCR test testing

A

True

61
Q

True or false FIP cannot be confirmed with PCR test testing

A

False

62
Q

True or false fecal PCR test for canine schistosomiasis

A

True