Test/quizes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best option to preserve the sample until it can be evaluated if chemical measurements cannot be done within one hour of collection

A

Refrigeration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main difference in the sample preparation between a plasma sample and a serum sample?

A

Allowing the sample to clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What may occur if a serum sample is centrifuge at a higher speed or for a longer period than recommended

A

Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which analyses maybe altered if using a hemolyze sample

A

Lipase activity in bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which plasma protein essay component compromises approximately 35 to 50% of the total plasma, protein, values in most animals

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following plasma protein essay components is not found in serum

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which test of parasite function are the most sensitive indicators of liver function

A

Bilirubin and bile acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a likely finding in the blood chemistry in a dog presented to the hospital with a history of vomiting for two days following eating pork bone ribs

A

Increase lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following blood chemistry results would be the primary indicators of renal problems in dogs

A

BUN and creatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which term describes an increased plasma potassium level levels

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding blood transfusions is true

A

D a 1.1 negative dogs are considered to be universal donors in the canine world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dogs that have blood type DE a 1.1 positive

A

Can be considered to be universal recipients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When cross matching blood, which statement is true

A

A major cross match includes the donors, RBCs and the recipients serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most cats in the US have what type of blood

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does DEA stand for in terms of blood types in canines?

A

Dog erythrocyte antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which immunological testing method is used for confirmation of FIP

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does ELISA stand for?

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name, one benefit and one downside of rabies tights instead of vaccination

A

Benefit they aren’t getting a vaccine they don’t need , downside expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the best test for confirmation of EIA?

A

Immuno diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Kidneys are not involved in which of the following

A

Production of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which blood chemistry is a metabolite of muscle breakdown, is altered with any condition that alters the glamerular filtration rate, and is also found in sweat, feces, and vomit

A

Creatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Some patients with kidney disease urinate frequently, which can lead it to a decrease in potassium. This lab finding is also known as.

A

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does BUN evaluate?

A

The kidneys ability to remove nitrogenous waste from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which blood chemistries excreted by the kidneys, shows elevations with 25% loss of kidney function and most accurately reflects GFR in dogs and cats

A

SDMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Collecting a blood sample from an animal that has recently eating, may result in a sample that is
Lipemic
26
When evaluating liver function and dogs and cats, AST should be evaluated in conjugation_________ to rule out elevated AST due to muscle breakdown
CK
27
Which type of bilirubin has not been fully processed by the liver and remains bound to albumin so cannot be excreted by the kidneys
Conjugated
28
Elevation in __________ is a common cause of icterus
Bilirubin
29
Elevations in this chemistry could indicate life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias
Potassium
30
Which method of urine collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria
Free catch
31
Normal urine output for adult dogs and cats is approximately________ ML/KG/day
20 to 40
32
Which crystals are commonly found in Dalmatian urine
Uric acid
33
Which term describes an increase in the frequency of urination
Polyuria
34
Urolith development depends predominantly on the concentration of components within a urinary bladder as well as the________ of the urine
pH
35
What type of cast is most commonly found in urine?
Granular
36
A urine sample appears run after centrifuge. The supernatant is clear. The red color was most likely due to.
Hematuria
37
Ketouria is most commonly associated with which condition
Diabetes mellitus
38
The normal number of RBC is found in urine sediment should not exceed
One/HPF
39
In a healthy animal, diminish water, intake, or loss of water would result________ urine specific gravity
Increase
40
The presence of protein and urine may indicate
Kidney disease
41
Calcium oxide monohydrate crystals are
Seen with ethylene glycol toxicity
42
______ is another name for struvite crystals
Triple phosphate
43
Which would likely be found in the analysis in CBC of a significantly dehydrated, but otherwise healthy patient
Increase urine specific gravity and increase PCV
44
Brown urine, most likely contains
Myoglobin
45
The largest epithelial cell found in urine is
Squamous
46
Squamous epithelial cells are unusual to find in urine samples collected by
Cystocentesis
47
The best sample to examine for specific gravity of canine urine is the
First morning sample
48
Isosthenuric urine could read ________ on a refractometer
1.010
49
Oliguria means
Decrease in the normal daily output of urine
50
Which of the following test results is least likely to be affected if a blood sample is collected postprandially
Lipase
51
What may occur if a serum sample is centrifuge at a higher speed or for a longer period than recommended
Hemolysis
52
Which analytes may be altered if using a hemolyze sample
Lipase activity in Bilirubin
53
Which of the following statements is not one of beers laws
The degree of color changes proportional to the solutions pH
54
True or false the half life of ALP in cats is longer than dogs
False
55
What percentage of the liver is damaged before a measurable decrease in is appreciated
80%
56
True or false hypothyroidism can lead to hypocholesterolemia
False
57
True or false feline PLI tests are more sensitive and specific to pancreatitis than canine PLI test
True
58
What are the units for total protein?
G/DL
59
What are the units for USG?
No units
60
What is the term used to describe increased BUN and creatine?
azotemia
61
What is the term used to describe low sodium level?
Hyponatremia
62
What is the term used to describe increase phosphorous level
hyperphosphatemia
63
What is the term used to describe increased chloride level?
Hyperchloremic
64
What is the term used to describe increased glucose level?
Hyperglycemia
65
When putting away a microscope, which of the following best applies
Move stage to lowest possible setting
66
Flotation solutions are best chosen for their sample by their individual
Specific gravity
67
Sodium nitrate solution when when used as a fecal flotation solution can best be described as
Forms crystals, and corrodes lab equipment
68
What is the preferred method to use when examining feces specifically for Giardia?
Direct fecal smear
69
The fecal/solution mixture is filtered through a gauze and centrifugal fecal test in order to
Decrease the amount of material that goes into the centrifuge tube
70
What part of a cover slip should be examine when looking for fecal parasites
Entire cover slip
71
A direct disadvantage of the direct fecal smear is
Small amount of feces might miss a low parasite burden
72
The first step in every fecal analysis is
Gross examination of fecal sample
73
Which of these is a type of Romanowski stain?
Diff-quik
74
Which microorganism is frequently recovered from dogs, ear suffering with chronic otitis externa
Malassezia spp
75
Which is a normal finding in a dogs ear
Cocci
76
What type of stain is most useful for identification of reticulocytes?
New methylene blue
77
In general, the _______ Smear, the__________ the staining time
Thicker, longer
78
What material is used when prepping an ear might check
Mineral oil
79
True or false some doctors will reach for an oral anabiotic if a patient shows plus plus plus mallaezia
False
80
You come back to work after the weekend and check on the DTM two which is in a dark cabinet. You can tell the test is positive because.
There is color, change and growth
81
This test is the diagnostic test of choice for lungworms
Baermann
82
This test is the diagnostic test of choice for pinworms
Cellophane tape test
83
This diagnostic test is the least sensitive fecal test
Direct smear
84
This is the diagnostic test of choice for flukes
Centrifugal sedimentation
85
True or false during a fake egg count test the eggs that are outside of the borders on the slide are not counted
True
86
This diagnostic test is useful for tracking the development of resistance in a given worm population
McMasters
87
Which solution is used when evaluating in your psychology, slide for bacteria?
Immersion oil
88
Which microscope objective is best use for evaluating a slide for bacteria
100 X
89
The destruction of red blood cells is known as
Hemolysis
90
What tube is preferred for hematological studies?
EDTA
91
Which term describes the fluid portion of the blood that contains no formed elements or fibrinogen
Serum
92
What is contained in the tiger top tube?
Gel separator
93
Which anticoagulant provide provides the best preservation of glucose
Sodium fluorine
94
Which tube should be collected last
EDTA
95
What what does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
96
What is the name of the website that is used for for helping with interpretation of chemistry results as well as providing information and test and references
Eclinpath
97
What is the organization that helps stage chronic kidney disease
IRIS
98
Which term is used for an increase in BUN and creatine?
Azotemia
99
True or false STMA more accurately, depicts GFR in dogs and cats
True
100
Which of the following is not a cytosolic enzyme
ALP
101
True or false hemolysis affects CK levels
False
102
What is the most important tool or instrument in the veterinary lab setting?
LVT
103
Which of the following PCV levels would you expect an an otherwise normal but dehydrated canine
60%
104
Which abnormality is characterized by coinlike stacks of red blood cells
Rouleaux
105
What type of tic site is only present in cats counted as a part of a reticulorcyte site count
Punctate cells
106
These round structures of denatured hemoglobin are present on the surface of some red blood cells
Heinz bodies
107
Smudge cell is defined as
Nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to the cell during smear production
108
Which of the following is a common cause of increased globulin levels
Dehydration
109
What term describes plasma that appears to have a red tinge after centrafugation
Hemolyzed
110
What is the predominant cell type in canines
Neutrophil
111
What is the largest white blood cell in peripheral blood?
Monocyte
112
What would be the indirect platelet estimate of a cat that has plenty of thrombocytes?
Adequate
113
Which classification of anemia would you expect to see during a transitory increase in response to a regenerative anemia?
Macrocytic anemia
114
Regarding filling blood collection tubes, which tube should be filled last
Purple top
115
Which RBC abnormality is commonly seen in cases of DIC
Acanthocytes
116
Which RBC abnormality is seen with IMHA
Spherocyte
117
Which RBC inclusion shows basophilic nuclear remnants inside of RBC’s
Howell- jolly bodies
118
Which of the following is not a blood parasite
Heinz
119
What is the diagnostic method of choice for flukes
Fecal sedimentation
120
Regarding the chemical phase of hemostasis, which factor is involved in the extrinsic pathway
Seven
121
Which test is the primary essay for detection of abnormalities and platelet function?
BMBT
122
What factor is required for platelet adhesion?
Von Willebrand’s
123
True or false if a coagulation panel comes back showing up PTT measurement of less than the reference range it is concerning
False
124
True or false if a coagulation panel comes back showing up PTT measurement of less than the reference range it is concerning
False
125
Which type of phone will brands disease shows the most severe bleeding
Type two and three
126
Which vitamin is required for synthetic activation of factors 279 and 10
Vitamin K
127
What term is used to describe an older neutrophil
Hyper-segmented
128
What is the name of the diagnostic light used when suspicious of ringworm?
Woods lamp
129
Compare and contrast plasma serum
Plasma has all of the contents of blood, serum does not
130
Which an anticoagulant is useful for disability to preserve glucose
Sodium fluoride
131
What word is used to describe lymphocytes that have increased basophilic cytoplasm and abundance of cytoplasm and are usually caused by antigen stimulation?
Toxic lymphocyte
132
What is the word used to describe creation in RBC size?
Anisocytosis
133
This test is the diagnostic test of choice for pinworms?
Cellophane tape test
134
True or false pinworms are known to be an issue for carnivores
False
135
True or false during our fecal egg count test the eggs that are outside of the borders on the slider, not counted
True
136
This is the most aboral portion of the small intestine
Ileum
137
I turned it down. This is the term used to describe the most common type of movement through the small intestine.
Peristalsis
138
What are two common uses for NMB stain
Ear cytology, direct smear
139
What type of stain is most useful for identification of reticulocytes?
New methylene blue
140
Which statement is false regarding trichophyton verrucosum
Most lesions require oral treatment
141
Your doctor asked you to collect some samples to rule out dermatophytes what sample do you collect from? Where and where do they go?
A sample of hair will be collected from around the outside of an active lesion and friendly pushed into the DTM two
142
Your patient is dermatophyte positive. Why would the doctor educate the owner on this condition before obtaining a definitive diagnosis?
There is zoonotic potential