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Clin Tech > Test/quizes > Flashcards

Test/quizes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best option to preserve the sample until it can be evaluated if chemical measurements cannot be done within one hour of collection

A

Refrigeration

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2
Q

What is the main difference in the sample preparation between a plasma sample and a serum sample?

A

Allowing the sample to clot

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3
Q

What may occur if a serum sample is centrifuge at a higher speed or for a longer period than recommended

A

Hemolysis

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4
Q

Which analyses maybe altered if using a hemolyze sample

A

Lipase activity in bilirubin

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5
Q

Which plasma protein essay component compromises approximately 35 to 50% of the total plasma, protein, values in most animals

A

Albumin

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6
Q

Which of the following plasma protein essay components is not found in serum

A

Fibrinogen

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7
Q

Which test of parasite function are the most sensitive indicators of liver function

A

Bilirubin and bile acids

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8
Q

What is a likely finding in the blood chemistry in a dog presented to the hospital with a history of vomiting for two days following eating pork bone ribs

A

Increase lipase

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9
Q

Which of the following blood chemistry results would be the primary indicators of renal problems in dogs

A

BUN and creatine

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10
Q

Which term describes an increased plasma potassium level levels

A

Hyperkalemia

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11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding blood transfusions is true

A

D a 1.1 negative dogs are considered to be universal donors in the canine world

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12
Q

Dogs that have blood type DE a 1.1 positive

A

Can be considered to be universal recipients

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13
Q

When cross matching blood, which statement is true

A

A major cross match includes the donors, RBCs and the recipients serum

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14
Q

Most cats in the US have what type of blood

A

A

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15
Q

What does DEA stand for in terms of blood types in canines?

A

Dog erythrocyte antigen

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16
Q

Which immunological testing method is used for confirmation of FIP

A

PCR

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17
Q

What does ELISA stand for?

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

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18
Q

Name, one benefit and one downside of rabies tights instead of vaccination

A

Benefit they aren’t getting a vaccine they don’t need , downside expensive

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19
Q

What is the best test for confirmation of EIA?

A

Immuno diffusion

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20
Q

Kidneys are not involved in which of the following

A

Production of glucose

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21
Q

Which blood chemistry is a metabolite of muscle breakdown, is altered with any condition that alters the glamerular filtration rate, and is also found in sweat, feces, and vomit

A

Creatine

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22
Q

Some patients with kidney disease urinate frequently, which can lead it to a decrease in potassium. This lab finding is also known as.

A

Hypokalemia

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23
Q

What does BUN evaluate?

A

The kidneys ability to remove nitrogenous waste from the body

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24
Q

Which blood chemistries excreted by the kidneys, shows elevations with 25% loss of kidney function and most accurately reflects GFR in dogs and cats

A

SDMA

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25
Q

Collecting a blood sample from an animal that has recently eating, may result in a sample that is

A

Lipemic

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26
Q

When evaluating liver function and dogs and cats, AST should be evaluated in conjugation_________ to rule out elevated AST due to muscle breakdown

A

CK

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27
Q

Which type of bilirubin has not been fully processed by the liver and remains bound to albumin so cannot be excreted by the kidneys

A

Conjugated

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28
Q

Elevation in __________ is a common cause of icterus

A

Bilirubin

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29
Q

Elevations in this chemistry could indicate life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias

A

Potassium

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30
Q

Which method of urine collection would not be associated with traumatic hematuria

A

Free catch

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31
Q

Normal urine output for adult dogs and cats is approximately________ ML/KG/day

A

20 to 40

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32
Q

Which crystals are commonly found in Dalmatian urine

A

Uric acid

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33
Q

Which term describes an increase in the frequency of urination

A

Polyuria

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34
Q

Urolith development depends predominantly on the concentration of components within a urinary bladder as well as the________ of the urine

A

pH

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35
Q

What type of cast is most commonly found in urine?

A

Granular

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36
Q

A urine sample appears run after centrifuge. The supernatant is clear. The red color was most likely due to.

A

Hematuria

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37
Q

Ketouria is most commonly associated with which condition

A

Diabetes mellitus

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38
Q

The normal number of RBC is found in urine sediment should not exceed

A

One/HPF

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39
Q

In a healthy animal, diminish water, intake, or loss of water would result________ urine specific gravity

A

Increase

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40
Q

The presence of protein and urine may indicate

A

Kidney disease

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41
Q

Calcium oxide monohydrate crystals are

A

Seen with ethylene glycol toxicity

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42
Q

______ is another name for struvite crystals

A

Triple phosphate

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43
Q

Which would likely be found in the analysis in CBC of a significantly dehydrated, but otherwise healthy patient

A

Increase urine specific gravity and increase PCV

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44
Q

Brown urine, most likely contains

A

Myoglobin

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45
Q

The largest epithelial cell found in urine is

A

Squamous

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46
Q

Squamous epithelial cells are unusual to find in urine samples collected by

A

Cystocentesis

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47
Q

The best sample to examine for specific gravity of canine urine is the

A

First morning sample

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48
Q

Isosthenuric urine could read ________ on a refractometer

A

1.010

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49
Q

Oliguria means

A

Decrease in the normal daily output of urine

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50
Q

Which of the following test results is least likely to be affected if a blood sample is collected postprandially

A

Lipase

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51
Q

What may occur if a serum sample is centrifuge at a higher speed or for a longer period than recommended

A

Hemolysis

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52
Q

Which analytes may be altered if using a hemolyze sample

A

Lipase activity in Bilirubin

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53
Q

Which of the following statements is not one of beers laws

A

The degree of color changes proportional to the solutions pH

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54
Q

True or false the half life of ALP in cats is longer than dogs

A

False

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55
Q

What percentage of the liver is damaged before a measurable decrease in is appreciated

A

80%

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56
Q

True or false hypothyroidism can lead to hypocholesterolemia

A

False

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57
Q

True or false feline PLI tests are more sensitive and specific to pancreatitis than canine PLI test

58
Q

What are the units for total protein?

59
Q

What are the units for USG?

60
Q

What is the term used to describe increased BUN and creatine?

61
Q

What is the term used to describe low sodium level?

A

Hyponatremia

62
Q

What is the term used to describe increase phosphorous level

A

hyperphosphatemia

63
Q

What is the term used to describe increased chloride level?

A

Hyperchloremic

64
Q

What is the term used to describe increased glucose level?

A

Hyperglycemia

65
Q

When putting away a microscope, which of the following best applies

A

Move stage to lowest possible setting

66
Q

Flotation solutions are best chosen for their sample by their individual

A

Specific gravity

67
Q

Sodium nitrate solution when when used as a fecal flotation solution can best be described as

A

Forms crystals, and corrodes lab equipment

68
Q

What is the preferred method to use when examining feces specifically for Giardia?

A

Direct fecal smear

69
Q

The fecal/solution mixture is filtered through a gauze and centrifugal fecal test in order to

A

Decrease the amount of material that goes into the centrifuge tube

70
Q

What part of a cover slip should be examine when looking for fecal parasites

A

Entire cover slip

71
Q

A direct disadvantage of the direct fecal smear is

A

Small amount of feces might miss a low parasite burden

72
Q

The first step in every fecal analysis is

A

Gross examination of fecal sample

73
Q

Which of these is a type of Romanowski stain?

74
Q

Which microorganism is frequently recovered from dogs, ear suffering with chronic otitis externa

A

Malassezia spp

75
Q

Which is a normal finding in a dogs ear

76
Q

What type of stain is most useful for identification of reticulocytes?

A

New methylene blue

77
Q

In general, the _______ Smear, the__________ the staining time

A

Thicker, longer

78
Q

What material is used when prepping an ear might check

A

Mineral oil

79
Q

True or false some doctors will reach for an oral anabiotic if a patient shows plus plus plus mallaezia

80
Q

You come back to work after the weekend and check on the DTM two which is in a dark cabinet. You can tell the test is positive because.

A

There is color, change and growth

81
Q

This test is the diagnostic test of choice for lungworms

82
Q

This test is the diagnostic test of choice for pinworms

A

Cellophane tape test

83
Q

This diagnostic test is the least sensitive fecal test

A

Direct smear

84
Q

This is the diagnostic test of choice for flukes

A

Centrifugal sedimentation

85
Q

True or false during a fake egg count test the eggs that are outside of the borders on the slide are not counted

86
Q

This diagnostic test is useful for tracking the development of resistance in a given worm population

87
Q

Which solution is used when evaluating in your psychology, slide for bacteria?

A

Immersion oil

88
Q

Which microscope objective is best use for evaluating a slide for bacteria

89
Q

The destruction of red blood cells is known as

90
Q

What tube is preferred for hematological studies?

91
Q

Which term describes the fluid portion of the blood that contains no formed elements or fibrinogen

92
Q

What is contained in the tiger top tube?

A

Gel separator

93
Q

Which anticoagulant provide provides the best preservation of glucose

A

Sodium fluorine

94
Q

Which tube should be collected last

95
Q

What what does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

96
Q

What is the name of the website that is used for for helping with interpretation of chemistry results as well as providing information and test and references

97
Q

What is the organization that helps stage chronic kidney disease

98
Q

Which term is used for an increase in BUN and creatine?

99
Q

True or false STMA more accurately, depicts GFR in dogs and cats

100
Q

Which of the following is not a cytosolic enzyme

101
Q

True or false hemolysis affects CK levels

102
Q

What is the most important tool or instrument in the veterinary lab setting?

103
Q

Which of the following PCV levels would you expect an an otherwise normal but dehydrated canine

104
Q

Which abnormality is characterized by coinlike stacks of red blood cells

105
Q

What type of tic site is only present in cats counted as a part of a reticulorcyte site count

A

Punctate cells

106
Q

These round structures of denatured hemoglobin are present on the surface of some red blood cells

A

Heinz bodies

107
Q

Smudge cell is defined as

A

Nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to the cell during smear production

108
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of increased globulin levels

A

Dehydration

109
Q

What term describes plasma that appears to have a red tinge after centrafugation

110
Q

What is the predominant cell type in canines

A

Neutrophil

111
Q

What is the largest white blood cell in peripheral blood?

112
Q

What would be the indirect platelet estimate of a cat that has plenty of thrombocytes?

113
Q

Which classification of anemia would you expect to see during a transitory increase in response to a regenerative anemia?

A

Macrocytic anemia

114
Q

Regarding filling blood collection tubes, which tube should be filled last

A

Purple top

115
Q

Which RBC abnormality is commonly seen in cases of DIC

A

Acanthocytes

116
Q

Which RBC abnormality is seen with IMHA

A

Spherocyte

117
Q

Which RBC inclusion shows basophilic nuclear remnants inside of RBC’s

A

Howell- jolly bodies

118
Q

Which of the following is not a blood parasite

119
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for flukes

A

Fecal sedimentation

120
Q

Regarding the chemical phase of hemostasis, which factor is involved in the extrinsic pathway

121
Q

Which test is the primary essay for detection of abnormalities and platelet function?

122
Q

What factor is required for platelet adhesion?

A

Von Willebrand’s

123
Q

True or false if a coagulation panel comes back showing up PTT measurement of less than the reference range it is concerning

124
Q

True or false if a coagulation panel comes back showing up PTT measurement of less than the reference range it is concerning

125
Q

Which type of phone will brands disease shows the most severe bleeding

A

Type two and three

126
Q

Which vitamin is required for synthetic activation of factors 279 and 10

127
Q

What term is used to describe an older neutrophil

A

Hyper-segmented

128
Q

What is the name of the diagnostic light used when suspicious of ringworm?

A

Woods lamp

129
Q

Compare and contrast plasma serum

A

Plasma has all of the contents of blood, serum does not

130
Q

Which an anticoagulant is useful for disability to preserve glucose

A

Sodium fluoride

131
Q

What word is used to describe lymphocytes that have increased basophilic cytoplasm and abundance of cytoplasm and are usually caused by antigen stimulation?

A

Toxic lymphocyte

132
Q

What is the word used to describe creation in RBC size?

A

Anisocytosis

133
Q

This test is the diagnostic test of choice for pinworms?

A

Cellophane tape test

134
Q

True or false pinworms are known to be an issue for carnivores

135
Q

True or false during our fecal egg count test the eggs that are outside of the borders on the slider, not counted

136
Q

This is the most aboral portion of the small intestine

137
Q

I turned it down. This is the term used to describe the most common type of movement through the small intestine.

A

Peristalsis

138
Q

What are two common uses for NMB stain

A

Ear cytology, direct smear

139
Q

What type of stain is most useful for identification of reticulocytes?

A

New methylene blue

140
Q

Which statement is false regarding trichophyton verrucosum

A

Most lesions require oral treatment

141
Q

Your doctor asked you to collect some samples to rule out dermatophytes what sample do you collect from? Where and where do they go?

A

A sample of hair will be collected from around the outside of an active lesion and friendly pushed into the DTM two

142
Q

Your patient is dermatophyte positive. Why would the doctor educate the owner on this condition before obtaining a definitive diagnosis?

A

There is zoonotic potential

Clin Tech (13 decks)

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