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Veterinary Nursing > VN03 Weekly Quizzes > Flashcards

VN03 Weekly Quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

Which ONE of the following diseases cannot be vaccinated against in the UK?

A

FIV

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2
Q

A non–pruritic alopecia is most likely to be caused by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Demodex
b. Sarcoptes scabiei
c. Fleas
d. Ixodes ricinus

A

Demodex

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3
Q

In the angiostrongylus vasorum lifecycle, the dog can be classified as what type of host?

A

Intermediate

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4
Q

Which one of the following would be the most appropriate method for drying hands following handwashing?

A

Disposable Hand Towels

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5
Q

Which ONE of the following will NOT help reduce antibiotic resistance?
Select one:
a. Performing culture and sensitivity
b. Using narrow spectrum antibiotics
c. Vaccination
d. Prescribing a shorter course of antibiotics
e. Neutering

A
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6
Q

Which ONE of the following is toxic to ocular and aural structures?
Select one:
a. Iodine
b. Alcohol
c. Chlorhexidine
d. All of the above

A

Chlorhexidine

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7
Q

Which ONE of the following is HIGHLY toxic to cats and reptiles?
Select one:
a. Iodine
b. Quaternary ammonium compounds
c. Phenols
d. Hydrogen peroxide

A

Phenols

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8
Q

Which ONE of the following parasites is NOT zoonotic?
Select one:
a. Cheyletiella
b. Trombicularis autumnalis
c. Diplydium caninum
d. Sarcoptes scabeii
e. Toxocara cati

A

Trombicularis autumnalis

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes the immunity given from a vaccine?
Select one:
a. Passive
b. Non-specific
c. Specific
d. Active

A

Active

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10
Q

Cell mediated immunity does NOT involve?

A

Antibodies

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11
Q

How many steps are there to the WHO guidelines hand wash?

A

6

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12
Q

Bartonella henselae is responsible for causing which zoonotic disease?
Select one:
a. Toxocariosis
b. Weil’s disease
c. Cat scratch fever
d. MRSA
e. Mange

A

Cat scratch fever

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13
Q

Which ONE of the following does NOT have a significant role in cell-mediated immunity?
Select one:
a. T-lymphocytes
b. Cytotoxic T-Cells
c. B-lymphocytes
d. Thymus
e. Helper T-Cells

A

B-lymphocytes are responsible for the production of antibodies, which is a ‘humoral’ immune response.

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14
Q

The correct term for the head of a cestode parasite is:
Select one:
a. The rostellum
b. The proscolex
c. The scolex
d. The proglottid

A

The scolex

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15
Q

Barrier nursing is defined as:
Select one:
a. The creation of a barrier between an infectious patient, the nursing staff and other animals
b. The isolation of very susceptible animals in an attempt to protect them from potential sources of infection
c. The physical separation of animal suspected or proved to have a transmissible infectious disease
d. The compulsory isolation of animals with, or potentially exposed to, infectious diseases

A

The creation of a barrier between an infectious patient, the nursing staff and other animals

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16
Q

Which type of pathogen replicates by conjugation of plasmids?
Select one:
a. Virus
b. Prion
c. Bacteria
d. Protozoa

A

Bacteria

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17
Q

Pups may have adult worms of Toxocara canis within their intestines by the time they are how old?
Select one:
a. 5 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 8 weeks

A

3 weeks

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18
Q

What is the intermediate host in Toxocara gondii’s life cycle?

A

Mouse

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19
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT inactivated by organic matter?
Select one:
a. Halogenated tertiary amines
b. Chlorhexidine
c. Iodine
d. Alcohol
e. None of the above

A

Chlorhexidine

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20
Q

Resistant genes are carried on which part of the bacterial cell?
Select one:
a. Plasma membrane
b. Plasmid
c. Ribosome
d. Flagella
e. Pilus

A

Plasmid

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21
Q

A record of all waste must be kept for at least:
Select one:
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

A

2 years

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22
Q

How long do maternally derived antibodies (MDAs) last in puppies (on average)?
Select one:
a. 4 - 8 years
b. 4 - 8 weeks
c. 8 - 12 weeks
d. 8 - 12 hours
e. 4 - 6 days

A

8 - 12 weeks

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23
Q

Where can the lateral saphenous vein be found?

Select one:
a. Lateral aspect of hind limb, just distal to hock
b. Ventral surface of tail
c. Cranial/dorsal surface of forelimb
d. Lateral aspect of hind limb, just proximal to hock

A

Lateral aspect of hind limb, just distal to hock

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24
Q

What is the term ‘stuporous’ used to describe?
Select one:
a. A patient that does not know where its limbs are in ‘space’
b. A lightly unconscious patient which still responds to painful stimuli
c. A patient with neurological disease which walks in an uncoordinated manner
d. An unconscious patient

A

A patient with neurological disease which walks in an uncoordinated manner

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25
Q

The cauda equina is found within the:
Select one:
a. Forebrain
b. None of the above
c. Hindbrain
d. Midbrain

A

None of the above -It is found within the spinal cord

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26
Q

Which organ is involved with detecting pheromones via the Flehmen response?
Select one:
a. Vomeronasal organ
b. Fungiform papillae
c. Ethmoid organ
d. Jacovy’s organ

A

Vomeronasal organ - consists of paired tubular diverticula within the vomer bone in the ventral portion of the nasal septum

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27
Q

The cerebellum is found within the:
Select one:
a. Forebrain
b. Midbrain
c. Hindbrain
d. None of the above

A

Hindbrain

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28
Q

The walls of the ureters are made up of which type of muscle?
Select one:
a. Skeletal
b. Smooth
c. Voluntary
d. Transitional

A

Smooth

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29
Q

Water Soluble Vitamins?

A

B+C

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30
Q

What type of epithelium is the bladder made of?
Select one:
a. Squamous
b. Transitional
c. Cuboidal
d. Columnar

A

Transitional

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31
Q

The 4 pairs of salivary glands in the oral cavity of the dog and cat are:
Select one:
a. Buccal, zygomatic, sub-lingual and parotid
b. Mandibular, parotid, buccal and sublingual
c. Zygomatic, sub-lingual, parotid and mandibular
d. Parotid, goblet, buccal and zygomatic

A

Zygomatic, sub-lingual, parotid and mandibular

32
Q

Which of the following species cannot synthesise arachidonic acid?
Select one:
a. Cats
b. Rabbits
c. Guinea pigs
d. Dogs

A

Dogs

33
Q

The part of the nephron that reabsorbs glucose back into the blood stream is:
Select one:
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Collecting duct
d. Loop of Henle

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

34
Q

Which hormone triggers ovulation?
Select one:
a. Progesterone
b. Oestrogen
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Luteinising hormone

A

Luteinising hormone

35
Q

Seasonally Polyoestrus species?

A

Cat and Rabbit

36
Q

What do sertoli cells secrete?
Select one:
a. Oestrogen
b. Testosterone
c. Progesterone
d. Interstitial cell stimulating hormone

A

Oestrogen

37
Q

How long does is the average oestrus cycle in the horse?
Select one:
a. 9 days
b. 21 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days

A

9 days

38
Q

Which of the following species does NOT have an os penis?
Select one:
a. Guinea pig
b. Rabbit
c. Dog
d. Cat

A

Rabbits

39
Q

What hormone stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone?
Select one:
a. Luteinising hormone
b. Inhibin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone

A

Luteinising hormone

40
Q

What is the name of the bilobed gland that lies near the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra and contributes to the seminal fluid?
Select one:
a. Bulbourethral gland
b. Adrenal gland
c. Pituitary gland
d. Prostate gland

A

Prostate gland

41
Q

What are the finger like projections at the end of the fallopian tube which sweep the egg towards the tube?
Select one:
a. Cilla
b. Fimbles
c. Phalanges
d. Fimbriae

A

Fimbriae

42
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to applying a wound dressing to an open wound?

Select one:
a. Wound dressings should be applied aseptically
b. Wound dressings should not extend beyond the wound
c. A padding layer should be placed below the wound dressing
d. Melolin should be applied perforated side away from the wound

A

Wound dressings should be applied aseptically

43
Q

At which stage of mitosis does the cell begin to constrict across the middle?

Select one:
a. Telophase
b. Metaphase
c. Prophase
d. Anaphase

A

Metaphase

44
Q

A surgical wound will heal by:

Select one:
a. First intention
b. Third intention
c. Second intention
d. Delayed primary intention

A

First intention

45
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is only found in foot pads and the nose?

Select one:
a. Stratum spinosum
b. Stratum basale
c. Stratum luciderm
d. Stratum corneum

A

Stratum spinosum

46
Q

Second intention healing is classed as:

Select one:
a. A wound which has undergone surgical invention
b. A wound which has had a surgical drain placed
c. An infected wound which has been treated with antibiotics then sutured
d. A wound which has healed naturally through granulation

A

A wound which has healed naturally through granulation

47
Q

Which one of the following impregnated dressings would NOT have antimicrobial activity?

Select one:
a. Silver
b. Manuka
c. PHMB
d. Alginate

A

Alginate

48
Q

Sweat glands and which layer of skin are only present in the footpads and nasal pads?

Select one:
a. Stratum spinosum
b. Stratum basale
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Epidermis
e. Stratum lucidum

A
49
Q

Which is the first active stage in mitosis?

Select one:
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

A

Prophase

50
Q

Circumoral glands are found on the:

Select one:
a. The lips of a cat Correct
b. The ventral aspect of a snake
c. Dorsal aspect at the base of the tail
d. The lining of the stomach

A

The lips of a cat

51
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a characteristic of arterial bleeding?

Select one:
a. Blood flow may pulse
b. Bright red blood
c. Low volume of blood lost
d. Spurting under pressure

A

Low volume of blood lost

52
Q

Oxygen toxicity occurs when:

Select one:
a. <60% O2 for ~12 hours
b. >60% O2 for ~12 hours Correct
c. >40% O2 for ~12 hours

A

> 60% O2 for ~12 hours

53
Q

Which ONE of the following is the poison associated with chocolate?

Select one:
a. Ethylene glycol
b. Metaldehyde Incorrect
c. Theobromine
d. Organophosphates

A

Theobromine

54
Q

What type of shock is commonly associated with a large volume of blood loss?

Select one:
a. Cardiogenic
b. Hypovolaemic
c. Obstructive
d. Distributive

A

Hypovolaemic

55
Q

What service could you telephone to access poisons information?

Select one:
a. Animal Poisons Advisory Service
b. British Poisons Information Service
c. Veterinary Poisons Advisory Service
d. Veterinary Poisons Information Service

A

Veterinary Poisons Information Service

56
Q

We pre-oxygenate rabbits because:

Select one:
a. Rabbits are obligate nasal breathers
b. Pre-oxygenation increases oxygen concentration in functional residual capacity of lungs
c. Pre-oxygenation reduces risk of hypoxia during induction
d. All of the stated answers

A

All of the stated answers

57
Q

Normal SpO2 is above:

Select one:
a. 85%
b. 90%
c. 95%

A

95%

58
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a sign of anaphylactic shock?

Select one:
a. Panting
b. Diarrhoea
c. Pale gums
d. Cold limbs

A

Panting

59
Q

Which of the following patients could be seen in a same day appointment rather than an emergency appointment?

Select one:
a. A dog with a laceration to the front leg which is bleeding, mm pale, BPM <70
b. A dog who is retching unproductively and the abdomen is distending
c. A dog vomiting for 12 hours, mm dry and pale eyes sunken, respiratory rate increased
d. A dog vomiting for 12 hours, mm moist and pink, respiratory rate normal

A

A dog vomiting for 12 hours, mm moist and pink, respiratory rate normal

60
Q

Which reflective cycle is based on the three questions: What? So what? What now?

Select one:
a. Gibbs
b. Johns
c. Rolfe
d. Kolb

A

Rolfe

61
Q

When using the Orem care plan what type of patient is most likely to need a ‘total compensatory’ nursing intervention?

Select one:
a. A patient that requires mechanical ventilation
b. A patient boarding post op
c. A patient following a limb amputation
d. A patient needing tube feeding

A

A patient that requires mechanical ventilation

62
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT part of the subjective examination?

Select one:
a. Temperature
b. Gait
c. Mentation
d. Behaviour

A

Temperature

63
Q

For a routine surgical patient when should care planning start?

Select one:
a. After the surgical procedure
b. Once the patient has been admitted
c. When the procedure is booked
d. At the time of admission

A

When the procedure is booked

64
Q

What does SOAP stand for in veterinary nursing?

Select one:
a. Subjectively Obtain And Plan
b. Sufficiently Obtain All Parameters
c. Subjective Objective Assessment Plan
d. Specific Objective Assessment Protocol
e. Specific Objective Accurate Parameters

A

Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

65
Q

Which one of the following is a subjective patient assessment?

Select one:
a. MM colour
b. Heart rate
c. Temperature
d. Respiratory rate

A
66
Q

What is the main function of the loop of henle?

Select one:
a. Production of antidiuretic hormone
b. Water re-absorption/concentration of urine
c. Removes glucose
d. Removes antidiuretic hormone

A

Water re-absorption/concentration of urine

67
Q

What is the correct term for the expulsion of urine from the bladder?

Select one:
a. Occlusion
b. Deglutition
c. Micturition
d. Mastication

A

Micturition

68
Q

What is another word for the kidney tubule?

Select one:
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. Cortex
c. Medulla
d. Nephron

A

Nephron

69
Q

Where does filtration of the blood occur?

Select one:
a. Glomerulus
b. Nephron
c. Blood cells
d. Renal artery

A

Glomerulus

70
Q

Filtrate that enters the bowman’s capsule does not contain what two things?

Select one or more:
a. Large proteins
b. Blood cells
c. Glucose
d. Amino acids

A

a. Large proteins
b. Blood cells

71
Q

What is the main function of the collecting tube?

Select one:
a. Water absorption
b. Removing glucose
c. Production of antidiuretic hormone
d. Concentration of the urine

A

Water absorption

72
Q

Where does the filtered fluid or filtrate enter?

Select one:
a. Renal artery
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Medulla
d. Glomerulus

A

Glomerulus

73
Q

Blood enters the kidney via the what?

Select one:
a. Glomerulus
b. Renal artery
c. Bowman’s capsule
d. Cortex

A

Renal artery

74
Q

As the fluid passes along the first coiled part of the kidney tubule what two things are removed?

Select one or more:
a. Large proteins I
b. Amino acids
c. Blood cells
d. Glucose

A

Amino acids and Glucose

75
Q

When cut across the kidney is seen to consist of which two regions?

Select one or more:
a. Inner medulla
b. Outer medulla
c. Outer cortex
d. Inner cortex

A

Outer cortex and Inner Medulla

Veterinary Nursing (31 decks)

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