Urinalysis & Hematology

Question 1

Why should urine be stored in an opaque container if sterile urine cups are not available?

Answer 1

To prevent degredation of the light-sensitive components such as Bilirubin

Question 2

Deterioration of components may occur from the natural breakdown of formed elements, and may be influenced by the presence of _______ and a change in _____

Answer 2

bacteria, pH

Question 3

Ideally, urinalysis should be performed how long after urine collection?

Answer 3

20-30 mins

Question 4

Define urinary continence

Answer 4

Bladder’s ability to hold and store urine as it fills

Question 5

Micturition means:

Answer 5

urinating/emptying bladder

Question 6

Bile pigments will cause urine to appear _____ when shaken, and be yellow/brown/green in colour

Answer 6

Foamy

Question 7

Brown urine means:

Answer 7

Myoglobin from muscle cell breakdown

Question 8

Urine that smells of ammonia can indicate:

Answer 8

urease-producing bacteria

Question 9

A putrid smell to urine can indicate:

Answer 9

bacterial degredation of protein

Question 10

Fruity/sweet odor of urine can indicate:

Answer 10

ketones, glucose

Question 11

What does Isosthenuria mean? What is the range?

Answer 11

“Fixed SG” the urine is not dilute nor concentrated. This range is 1.008-1.012

Question 12

Hyposthenuria is a SG lower than:

Answer 12

1.008

Question 13

Urine pH is used to assess:

Answer 13

Body’s general acid-base balance

Question 14

______ diets usually have alkaline pH (7 to 8.5)

Answer 14

Herbivore

Question 15

______ diets usually have an acidic pH (6-7)

Answer 15

Carnivore

Question 16

Proteinuria can indicate:

Answer 16

Glomerulonephritis or nephrosis

Question 17

Proteinuria + Casts may indicate:

Answer 17

Renal disease

Question 18

Proteinuria in dilute urine indicates ______ protein loss than if it were in concentrated urine (greater or lower)

Answer 18

greater

Question 19

True or false: Glucosuria can be seen sometimes on healthy animals

Answer 19

False. Glucose should never be detected in the urine as it is absorbed by distal tubules

Question 20

Hyperglycemia + Glucosuria =

Answer 20

Diabetes Mellitus

Question 21

Are excessive ketones normal?

Answer 21

No. Excessive ketones are toxic and can cause CNS depression & acidosis

Question 22

______ is not easily detected, therefore the dipstick pad is not considered reliable

Answer 22

Urobilinogen

Question 23

Bilirubinuria can indicate:

Answer 23

biliary obstruction, hepatic infection, toxicity and hemolytic anemia

Question 24

How can you distinguish between Hemoglobinuria and Myoglobinuria?

Answer 24

Spin blood to evaluate plasma/serum. If the urine and plasma/serum are both red, it is likely Hematuria. If the plasma/serum is colourless, it is Myoglobinuria as it does not emit colour in plasma.

Question 25

Why would blood cells crenate quickly in concentrated urine?

Answer 25

The cells lose fluid and become small and crenated

Question 26

Why would blood cells disappear quickly in dilute urine?

Answer 26

The cells fill with fluid and swell or lyse, and can be seen as ghost cells or larger than normal

Question 27

A leukogram that shows neutrophilia, monocytosis, lymphopenia and eosinopenia can indicate:

Answer 27

Stress

Question 28

Nucleated RBC's can interfere with ______ numbers

Answer 28

Leukocyte

Question 29

Why should you always evaluate the feathered edge on a blood smear?

Answer 29

Blood parasites and basophils both hide there

Question 30

Describe an activated platelet

Answer 30

A normal platelet with filamentous projections

Question 31

Are platelet clumps found more often in dogs or cats?

Answer 31

Cats

Question 32

Doehle bodies in neutrophils can indicate:

Answer 32

Mild toxemia

Question 33

Basophilia in neutrophils can indicate:

Answer 33

toxicity

Question 34

A platelet-like inclusion within a WBC is indicative of what parasite?

Answer 34

Ehrlichia

Question 35

What does Canine Distemper look like on a blood smear?

Answer 35

Variations of pink-purple inclusions in rbc's and wbc's

Question 36

Low Total Protein values can indicate:

Answer 36

Protein loss or hemo-dilution

Question 37

High Total Protein values can indicate:

Answer 37

Dehydration, inflammatory response, neoplasia

Question 38

In qualitative and semi-quantitative urinalysis, which type of substance is exogenous? a) Uric acid b) Phenolsulfonphthalein c) Amino acid d) Hormones

Answer 38

B. The dye is exogenous and the rest are endogenous

Question 39

Urine samples should be analyzed within ____ for maximum valid information a) 2 mins b) 30 mins c) 1 hour d) 12 hours

Answer 39

B: 30 mins to minimize post-collection deterioration

Question 40

Normal freshly voided urine of many species is clear. Exceptions include which species? a) Rabbit b) Horse c) Hamster d) All of the above

Answer 40

D. All of these species can have cloudy urine

Question 41

It is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is: a) 1ml b) 5ml c) 10ml d) 20ml

Answer 41

B: 5 ml is ideal

Question 42

When assessing a patient's diet, which urine specimen collection time is likely to be most helpful? a) 5 and 10 minute intervals postprandial b) 30 and 60 minute intervals postprandial c) 1 to 2 hours post-prandial d) 3 to 6 hours post-prandial

Answer 42

D: a 3-6 hour postprandial sample may be more reflective

Question 43

Which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot? a) Heparin b) EDTA c) Potassium Chloride d) Acid-citrate-dextrose (ACD)

Answer 43

A: heparin is preferred for birds and reptiles

Question 44

To maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio, sample tubes should be filled to at least what capacity? a) 90% b) 75% c) 60% d) 50%

Answer 44

A

Question 45

Blood samples collected immediately post-prandial may be: a) Icteric b) High in TP c) Lipemic d) Low in RBCs

Answer 45

C: Lipemic/fatty

Question 46

Which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture? a) Manual expression b) Cysto c) Midstream d) Litter pan pour-off

Answer 46

B: Cysto avoids contamination from the urinary tract

Question 47

Pollakiuria means: a) complete absence of urine formation b) increased urine excretion c) frequent urination d) decreased urine excretion

Answer 47

C: Small, frequent amounts of urine

Question 48

A smudge cell is a: a) Fragmented erythrocyte b) Small, dark erythrocyte c) Nucleated cell that ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smear creation d) Tissue cell with granules

Answer 48

C: Basket/smudge cell is a damaged leukocyte with a basket weave pattern

Question 49

MCHC is calculated by multiplying: a) Dividend of PCV/RBCs by 1000 b) Hb by 10 and dividing by product of total RBC count c) Hb concentration x 100 and divide by PCV d) PCV x 10 and divide product by total RBC count

Answer 49

C: MCHC is found by multiplying Hemoglobin concentration by 100 and dividing the product by the PCV

Question 50

MCV is calculated by: a) Multiply Hb x 10 and divide by total RBC b) Dividing PCV by RBC count and x 1000 c) Multiply PCV x 10 and divide by RBC count d) Multiply Hb x 100 and divide by PCV

Answer 50

C: Multiply PCV by 10 and divide by total rbc count

Question 51

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is: a) Mean weight of rbc compared to Hb within cell b) Mean weight of Hb contained within average RBC c) Recorded as fentoliters d) Recorded as g/dL

Answer 51

B

Question 52

Which is true of reticulocytes? a) They are mature erythrocytes that still contain ribosomes b) Wright's stain causes a polychromatophilic stain c) In cats, only the aggregate form should be counted as reticulocytes d) A and C

Answer 52

C. Reticulocytes are immature erythrocytes

Question 53

Basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue granules within: a) rbc b) wbc c) platelet d) basophils

Answer 53

A. Often means lead poisoning.

Question 54

Which of the following is likely the most representative method of analyzing urine solute osmolar concentration? a) Urine pH b) Cystocentesis c) Osmometry d) Specific Gravity

Answer 54

C

Question 55

NRBC's are normal in which species? a) ruminant/equine b) avian/reptile c) equine/reptile d) equine/avian

Answer 55

B: birds and reptiles. Makes WBC counts difficult.

Question 56

An increased wbc count is indicative of: a) anisocytosis b) agglutination c) leukocytosis d) leukopenia

Answer 56

C

Question 57

Which of the following described elevated platelet count caused by bone marrow dysfunction or pathology? a) Thrombocythemia b) Thrombocytosis c) Reactive thrombocytosis d) Physiological thrombocytosis

Answer 57

A: Bone marrow disorder specifically causing chronic and extremely elevated thrombocyte count