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VTNE PREPARATION > Urinalysis & Hematology > Flashcards

Urinalysis & Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Why should urine be stored in an opaque container if sterile urine cups are not available?

A

To prevent degredation of the light-sensitive components such as Bilirubin

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2
Q

Deterioration of components may occur from the natural breakdown of formed elements, and may be influenced by the presence of _______ and a change in _____

A

bacteria, pH

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3
Q

Ideally, urinalysis should be performed how long after urine collection?

A

20-30 mins

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4
Q

Define urinary continence

A

Bladder’s ability to hold and store urine as it fills

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5
Q

Micturition means:

A

urinating/emptying bladder

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6
Q

Bile pigments will cause urine to appear _____ when shaken, and be yellow/brown/green in colour

A

Foamy

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7
Q

Brown urine means:

A

Myoglobin from muscle cell breakdown

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8
Q

Urine that smells of ammonia can indicate:

A

urease-producing bacteria

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9
Q

A putrid smell to urine can indicate:

A

bacterial degredation of protein

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10
Q

Fruity/sweet odor of urine can indicate:

A

ketones, glucose

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11
Q

What does Isosthenuria mean? What is the range?

A

“Fixed SG” the urine is not dilute nor concentrated. This range is 1.008-1.012

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12
Q

Hyposthenuria is a SG lower than:

A

1.008

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13
Q

Urine pH is used to assess:

A

Body’s general acid-base balance

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14
Q

______ diets usually have alkaline pH (7 to 8.5)

A

Herbivore

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15
Q

______ diets usually have an acidic pH (6-7)

A

Carnivore

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16
Q

Proteinuria can indicate:

A

Glomerulonephritis or nephrosis

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17
Q

Proteinuria + Casts may indicate:

A

Renal disease

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18
Q

Proteinuria in dilute urine indicates ______ protein loss than if it were in concentrated urine (greater or lower)

A

greater

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19
Q

True or false: Glucosuria can be seen sometimes on healthy animals

A

False. Glucose should never be detected in the urine as it is absorbed by distal tubules

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20
Q

Hyperglycemia + Glucosuria =

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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21
Q

Are excessive ketones normal?

A

No. Excessive ketones are toxic and can cause CNS depression & acidosis

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22
Q

______ is not easily detected, therefore the dipstick pad is not considered reliable

A

Urobilinogen

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23
Q

Bilirubinuria can indicate:

A

biliary obstruction, hepatic infection, toxicity and hemolytic anemia

24
Q

How can you distinguish between Hemoglobinuria and Myoglobinuria?

A

Spin blood to evaluate plasma/serum. If the urine and plasma/serum are both red, it is likely Hematuria. If the plasma/serum is colourless, it is Myoglobinuria as it does not emit colour in plasma.

25
Q

Why would blood cells crenate quickly in concentrated urine?

A

The cells lose fluid and become small and crenated

26
Q

Why would blood cells disappear quickly in dilute urine?

A

The cells fill with fluid and swell or lyse, and can be seen as ghost cells or larger than normal

27
Q

A leukogram that shows neutrophilia, monocytosis, lymphopenia and eosinopenia can indicate:

A

Stress

28
Q

Nucleated RBC’s can interfere with ______ numbers

A

Leukocyte

29
Q

Why should you always evaluate the feathered edge on a blood smear?

A

Blood parasites and basophils both hide there

30
Q

Describe an activated platelet

A

A normal platelet with filamentous projections

31
Q

Are platelet clumps found more often in dogs or cats?

A

Cats

32
Q

Doehle bodies in neutrophils can indicate:

A

Mild toxemia

33
Q

Basophilia in neutrophils can indicate:

A

toxicity

34
Q

A platelet-like inclusion within a WBC is indicative of what parasite?

A

Ehrlichia

35
Q

What does Canine Distemper look like on a blood smear?

A

Variations of pink-purple inclusions in rbc’s and wbc’s

36
Q

Low Total Protein values can indicate:

A

Protein loss or hemo-dilution

37
Q

High Total Protein values can indicate:

A

Dehydration, inflammatory response, neoplasia

38
Q

In qualitative and semi-quantitative urinalysis, which type of substance is exogenous?

a) Uric acid
b) Phenolsulfonphthalein
c) Amino acid
d) Hormones

A

B. The dye is exogenous and the rest are endogenous

39
Q

Urine samples should be analyzed within ____ for maximum valid information

a) 2 mins
b) 30 mins
c) 1 hour
d) 12 hours

A

B: 30 mins to minimize post-collection deterioration

40
Q

Normal freshly voided urine of many species is clear. Exceptions include which species?

a) Rabbit
b) Horse
c) Hamster
d) All of the above

A

D. All of these species can have cloudy urine

41
Q

It is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is:

a) 1ml
b) 5ml
c) 10ml
d) 20ml

A

B: 5 ml is ideal

42
Q

When assessing a patient’s diet, which urine specimen collection time is likely to be most helpful?

a) 5 and 10 minute intervals postprandial
b) 30 and 60 minute intervals postprandial
c) 1 to 2 hours post-prandial
d) 3 to 6 hours post-prandial

A

D: a 3-6 hour postprandial sample may be more reflective

43
Q

Which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot?

a) Heparin
b) EDTA
c) Potassium Chloride
d) Acid-citrate-dextrose (ACD)

A

A: heparin is preferred for birds and reptiles

44
Q

To maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio, sample tubes should be filled to at least what capacity?

a) 90%
b) 75%
c) 60%
d) 50%

A

A

45
Q

Blood samples collected immediately post-prandial may be:

a) Icteric
b) High in TP
c) Lipemic
d) Low in RBCs

A

C: Lipemic/fatty

46
Q

Which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture?

a) Manual expression
b) Cysto
c) Midstream
d) Litter pan pour-off

A

B: Cysto avoids contamination from the urinary tract

47
Q

Pollakiuria means:

a) complete absence of urine formation
b) increased urine excretion
c) frequent urination
d) decreased urine excretion

A

C: Small, frequent amounts of urine

48
Q

A smudge cell is a:

a) Fragmented erythrocyte
b) Small, dark erythrocyte
c) Nucleated cell that ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smear creation
d) Tissue cell with granules

A

C: Basket/smudge cell is a damaged leukocyte with a basket weave pattern

49
Q

MCHC is calculated by multiplying:

a) Dividend of PCV/RBCs by 1000
b) Hb by 10 and dividing by product of total RBC count
c) Hb concentration x 100 and divide by PCV
d) PCV x 10 and divide product by total RBC count

A

C: MCHC is found by multiplying Hemoglobin concentration by 100 and dividing the product by the PCV

50
Q

MCV is calculated by:

a) Multiply Hb x 10 and divide by total RBC
b) Dividing PCV by RBC count and x 1000
c) Multiply PCV x 10 and divide by RBC count
d) Multiply Hb x 100 and divide by PCV

A

C: Multiply PCV by 10 and divide by total rbc count

51
Q

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is:

a) Mean weight of rbc compared to Hb within cell
b) Mean weight of Hb contained within average RBC
c) Recorded as fentoliters
d) Recorded as g/dL

A

B

52
Q

Which is true of reticulocytes?

a) They are mature erythrocytes that still contain ribosomes
b) Wright’s stain causes a polychromatophilic stain
c) In cats, only the aggregate form should be counted as reticulocytes
d) A and C

A

C. Reticulocytes are immature erythrocytes

53
Q

Basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue granules within:

a) rbc
b) wbc
c) platelet
d) basophils

A

A. Often means lead poisoning.

54
Q

Which of the following is likely the most representative method of analyzing urine solute osmolar concentration?

a) Urine pH
b) Cystocentesis
c) Osmometry
d) Specific Gravity

A

C

55
Q

NRBC’s are normal in which species?

a) ruminant/equine
b) avian/reptile
c) equine/reptile
d) equine/avian

A

B: birds and reptiles. Makes WBC counts difficult.

56
Q

An increased wbc count is indicative of:

a) anisocytosis
b) agglutination
c) leukocytosis
d) leukopenia

A

C

57
Q

Which of the following described elevated platelet count caused by bone marrow dysfunction or pathology?

a) Thrombocythemia
b) Thrombocytosis
c) Reactive thrombocytosis
d) Physiological thrombocytosis

A

A: Bone marrow disorder specifically causing chronic and extremely elevated thrombocyte count

VTNE PREPARATION (20 decks)

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