Anesthesia

Question 1

________ and Acepromazine will produce neuroleptanalgesia

Answer 1

Hydromorphone

Question 2

Why should Acepromazine never be used in an epileptic patient?

Answer 2

It lowers the seizure threshold

Question 3

What is the most profound adverse effect with Dexdomitor?

Answer 3

Bradycardia

Question 4

What are the 3 opioid receptors?

Answer 4

Mu, delta, kappa

Question 5

Opioids can cause _____ in dogs, since they cause the thermoregulatory center in the brain to reset itself

Answer 5

panting

Question 6

Fentanyl patches provide continuous, steady analgesia for how long?

Answer 6

3-5 days

Question 7

Pre-anesthetic drugs are commonly used for all of the following reasons, except:

a) analgesia
b) sedation
c) respiratory stimulant
d) safe handling

Answer 7

C

Question 8

Which classification of drug calms an anxious patient but will not reduce awareness?

a) Anticholinergic
b) Tranquilizer
c) Sedative
d) Isoflurane

Answer 8

C

Question 9

Atipamezole is a reversal agent specific to:

a) ketamine
b) butorphanol
c) acepromazine
d) dexmedetomidine

Answer 9

D

Question 10

Al of the following drugs are pure Mu agonists, except:

a) morphine
b) meperidine
c) butorphanol
d) hydromorphone

Answer 10

C

Question 11

Anticholinergics may be given to which of the following?

a) a 17 yr old poodle with grave IV heart murmur scheduled for dentistry
b) 2 yr old St Bernard for hernia repair
c) 14 yr old cat with tachycardia and history of ventricular arrhythmias
d) 5 year old border collie scheduled for endoscopy

Answer 11

B: Only the 2 year old St Bernard. Anticholinergics are contraindicated in patients undergoing upper GI barium series, any patient with tachycardia or ventricular arrhythmias

Question 12

Which may cause histamine release when given IV?

a) morphine
b) meperidine
c) both
d) none

Answer 12

C

Question 13

During which stage of anesthesia can excitement occur?

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 13

B.
Stage 1: induction
Stage 2: stage of excitement/loss of consciousness
Stage 3: surgical anesthesia
Stage 4: anesthetic overdose

Question 14

Tissue necrosis will occur if _____ is administered perivascularly

a) dexmedetomidine
b) pentobarbital
c) thiopental
d) methoxital

Answer 14

C. If this occurs, dilute with normal saline.

Question 15

Which of the following drugs can be used as a sedative, induction agent, and maintenance anesthetic?

a) Propofol
b) Diazepam
c) Ketamine
d) Thiopental

Answer 15

A: propofol is a short acting hypnotic.

Question 16

An anesthesia machine flush valve does not:

a) provide a method of ventilation in emergency
b) deliver 100% oxygen
c) aid in filling reservoir bag
d) relieve pressure within breathing system

Answer 16

D. It will increase pressure

Question 17

What can be done to reduce waste anesthetic gas exposure in environment?

a) Use scavenging system
b) leak-test machine
c) annual preventative maintenance
d) all of above

Answer 17

D

Question 18

The maximum halogenated anesthesia agent dose per day (ppm) according to OSHA is:

a) 1 ppm
b) 2ppm
c) 3ppm
d) 4ppm

Answer 18

B.

Question 19

Which class of drugs acts by reducing the prostaglandin production in the area of tissue damage?

a) barbiturates
b) local anesthetics
c) NSAID
d) Alpha-2

Answer 19

C

Question 20

Using IPPV, the rate to ventilate a patient under anesthesia is:

a) 4-8rpm
b) 8-12 rpm
c) 12-16 rpm
d) 16-20rpm

Answer 20

B

Question 21

A ______ monitor measures ETCO2

a) doppler
b) ECG
c) capnograph
d) Pulse ox

Answer 21

C

Question 22

Respiratory acidosis is an acid-base disturbance where the blood gas analysis reveals:

a) Low CO2 and High pH
b) High CO2 and Low pH
c) Low CO2 and Low pH
d) High CO2 and High pH

Answer 22

B