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Hubble Notes > Urinalysis > Flashcards

Urinalysis Flashcards

1
Q

Red color in biosafety indicates

A

Stop / danger / fire protection equipment

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2
Q

Accepted “biohazard” label color

A

Fluorescent orange

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3
Q

_____ chemicals should be labeled as poisonous, corrosive or carcinogenic

A

Hazardous

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4
Q

All biological wastes EXCEPT URINE must be placed in a container with the _____ symbol

A

Biohazard

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5
Q

Empty urine containers can be discarded as _____ hazardous waste

A

Nonbiologically

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6
Q

Disinfectant for equipment and countertop surfaces

A

1:10 Bleach

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7
Q

Best way to break the chain of infection

A

Handwashing

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8
Q

When hands are not visibly soiled,

A

Apply sanitizer

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9
Q

When hands are visibly soiled,

A

Wash hands with soap and water

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10
Q

Most important part of handwashing procedure

A

Friction

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11
Q

Handwashing song

A

Happy birthday (2x)

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12
Q

Benedict’s reagent splashes on eyes, what to do? (MSDS)

A

Flash eyes with plenty of water

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13
Q

What reference material will you consult after accidentally spilling a hazardous chemical?

A

MSDS

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14
Q

MSDS stands for

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

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15
Q

Work related hazard that includes strain due to repeated positions

A

Ergonomic hazard

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16
Q

A hazard due to extremely low temperature

A

Cryogenic hazard

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17
Q

_____ hazards include fire/explosion, asphyxiation, pressure buildup, tissue damage similar to burns

A

Liquid nitrogen

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18
Q

Centrifuges, refrigerators, autoclaves, homogenizers, and glasswares are examples of _____ hazards

A

Mechanical

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19
Q

Centrifuge accidents or improper removal of rubber stoppers from test tubes may produce _____

A

Aerosols

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20
Q

Grinding, mixing, vortexing, centrifuging, and preparation of direct smears are known to produce _____

A

Aerosols

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21
Q

It is required that all electrical equipment is grounded in a _____ plug to avoid electrical shock

A

Three-pronged

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22
Q

Flammable chemicals should be stored in a (an) _____ in a remote area

A

Explosion-proof refrigerator

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23
Q

Functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

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24
Q

Part of the nephron that resembles a “sieve”

A

Glomerulus

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25
Q

MW of plasma substances that can be filtered by the glomeruli

A

> 70,000 Daltons

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26
Q

Reference method for measuring glomerular filtration rate

A

Inulin

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27
Q

Analyte (s) used to identify unknown body fluid as urine

A

Urea and creatinine

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28
Q

If the voided sample PRIOR to collection period is included in the 24-hour sample, clearance will be falsely _____

A

High / elevated

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29
Q

If the voided sample PRIOR to collection period is included in the 24-hour sample,

A

Repeat the collection

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30
Q

The greatest source of error in any clearance procedure is the use of _____

A

Improperly timed urine specimens

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31
Q

Blood vessel that supplies blood to the kidneys

A

Renal artery

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32
Q

Normal renal blood flow

A

1,200 mL/min

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33
Q

Normal renal plasma flow

A

600 mL/min

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34
Q

Normal glomerular filtration rate

A

120 mL/min

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35
Q

The fluid leaving the glomerulus normally has a specific gravity of

A

1.010

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36
Q

65% of reabsorption occurs at what part of the nephron?

A

PCT

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37
Q

Substances reabsorbed in the proximal convulated tubule include

A

Salts, water, amino acids, glucose, urea

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38
Q

Passive reabsorption of water takes place in all parts of the nephron except the _____

A

Ascending loop of Henle

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39
Q

A SELECTIVE urine concentration process in the ascending and descending loops of Henle

A

Countercurrent mechanism

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40
Q

A high level of ADH increases permeability of _____ & _____, resulting in increased water reabsorption, and a low-volume concentration

A

DCT and CD

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41
Q

Region of the kidney with the highest solute comcentration

A

Loop of Henle (bottom part)

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42
Q

Effect of high ADH on the walls of DCT and CD

A

Increased permeability to water

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43
Q

Renal threshold for glucose

A

160-180 mg/dL

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44
Q

Renal threshold for ketones

A

70 mg/dL

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45
Q

Renal threshold for sodium

A

120 mmol/L

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46
Q

Renal threshold for water

A

None

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47
Q

Renal threshold for potassium

A

None

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48
Q

Renal threshold for magnesium

A

0.60 - 0.85 mmol/L
(1.46 - 2.07 mg/dL)

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49
Q

Major composition of urine

A

Water, urea, sodium chloride

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50
Q

Major organic substance in the urine

A

Urea

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51
Q

Major inorganic substance in the urine

A

Chloride

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52
Q

Patient is deprived of fluid for 24 hours, then urine SG is measured

A

Fishberg test

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53
Q

Comparison of day and night urine in terms of volume and SG

A

Mosenthal test

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54
Q

Urine pH in renal tubular acidosis

A

Alkaline

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55
Q

Ideal specimen for routine urinalysis, PREGNANCY TESTING, and crystal identification

A

First morning urine

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56
Q

Why is 1st morning urine the most ideal specimen in urinalysis?

A

Most comcentrated

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57
Q

Urine specimen for urobilinogen determination

A

Afternoon urine specimen (2-4 pm)

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58
Q

Preferred specimen for measuring urine creatinine

A

24-hour urine

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59
Q

Urine specimen should be tested within

A

2 hours

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60
Q

Urine specimen should be examined within 2 hours because bacterial contamination will cause _____ of urine

A

Alkalinization

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61
Q

This will integrate in an ALKALINE HYPOTONIC urine

A

Casts

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62
Q

LEAST AFFECTED urine parameter in a unpreserved urine specimen

A

Protein

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63
Q

Most routinely used method of urine preservation

A

Refrigeration

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64
Q

Chemical preservative for urine albumin

A

Boric acid

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65
Q

Unlabeled urine received in the laboratory. What will you do?

A

Reject the specimen

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66
Q

UA is done first. Then 3 hours later, urine is sent for culture. The specimen should be

A

Rejected

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67
Q

Method of preservation if urine is not processed immediately for culture

A

Refrigeration (up to 24 hours)

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68
Q

Specimen for urine culture (out-patient)

A

Midstream clean-catch

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69
Q

Purpose of the 2nd container used in the three-glass collection

A

Control for UTI

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70
Q

Urine volume produced in polyuria

A

> 2,000 mL/day

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71
Q

Disorder associated with polyuria

A

Diabetes Mellitus, Diabetes Insipidus

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72
Q

Single parameter used to differentiate DM and DI

A

SG (specific gravity)

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73
Q

Urine volume produced in oliguria

A

<500 (or 400) mL/day

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74
Q

Complete cessation of urine flow

A

Anuria (<100 mL/day)

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75
Q

Definition of nocturia

A

> 500 mL of urine at night

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76
Q

For urine CLARITY determination, thoroughly mix the specimen then view through a _____

A

Newspaper print

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77
Q

For urine COLOR determination, look down through the container against a _____

A

White background

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78
Q

Major pigment in urine

A

Urochrome

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79
Q

Excess urobilin in urine causes what color?

A

Yellow-orange / orange-brown

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80
Q

White foamy bubbles in urine indicates the presence of

A

Albumin (protein)

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81
Q

Urine that produces yellow foam when shaken contains

A

Bilirubin

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82
Q

Recent consumption of B-complex vitamins or CAROTENE can make the urine appear

A

Dark yellow

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83
Q

Phenol in urine produce what color

A

Green (when oxidized)

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84
Q

Cloudy or smoky red urine

A

Hematuria

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85
Q

Clear red urine

A

Hemoglobin / myogblobin

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86
Q

Causes of tea-colored urine

A

Bilirubin and myoglobin

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87
Q

Portwine or red urine

A

Porphyria (porphyrin)

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88
Q

Homogentisic acid, melanin, and methemoglobin all causes what urine color?

A

Brown or black

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89
Q

Normal urine odor

A

Aromatic / fragrant / distinct / faint

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90
Q

Large numbers of COLIFORMS in urine will produce

A

Foul / ammoniacal odor / Nitrite (+)

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91
Q

Rancid butter urine odor

A

Tyrosinemia

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92
Q

Sulfur urine odor

A

Cystinuria / Cystinosis

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93
Q

Significance of rotting fish (galunggong) urine odor

A

Trimethylaminuria

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94
Q

Significance of cabbage-urine odor

A

Methionine malabsorption

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95
Q

Significant of fruity odor urine

A

Diabetes mellitus (ketones)

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96
Q

Asparagus urine odor is caused by ingestion of

A

Asparagus (methylmercaptan)

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97
Q

Ingestion of onions, garlic, and asparagus, UTI urine odor

A

Pungent

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98
Q

Cause of menthol-like urine odor

A

Phenol-containing medications

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99
Q

Peculiar amount of ODORLESS urine can be seen in

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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100
Q

_____ the edge of the strip on a disposable absorbent pad

A

Blot

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101
Q

Store __________ with desiccant in an opaque, tightly closed container

A

Reagent strips

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102
Q

Store reagent strips in a __________ area

A

Cool, dry

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103
Q

When reading the color reaction, urine reagent strips should be held at what position?

A

Horizontal

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104
Q

Normal pH range (random urine)

A

4.5 - 8.0

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105
Q

pH range in the first morning

A

5.0 - 6.0

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106
Q

A fruit that can cause acidic urine and is used as a home remedy for bladder infections

A

Cranberry

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107
Q

A vegetarian individual will produce urine that is

A

Alkaline

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108
Q

Normal daily protein excretion

A

Less than 150 mg/day

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109
Q

A protein that originate from the urinary tract itself

A

Uromodulin (THP)

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110
Q

Increased filtration of APRs leads to what category of proteinuria?

A

Pre-renal

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111
Q

It has an indicator that changes color with the pH being constant

A

Protein reagent strip

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112
Q

Reason behind protein error of indicators

A

Protein accepts H+ from indicator

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113
Q

The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to

A

Albumin

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114
Q

Negative reagent strip for protein and positive SSA test indicates

A

Proteins other than albumin

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115
Q

Bence-Jones protein coagulates at _____, then dissolves at _____

A

40-60C; 100C
(50-60C); 100C

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116
Q

Bence-Jones protein is seen in

A

Multiple myeloma

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117
Q

Purpose of determining the albumin:creatinine ratio

A

To detect microalbuminuria

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118
Q

Principle of Micral test strip

A

Enzyme immunoassay

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119
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA produces positive reaction with what reagent parameter?

A

Protein

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120
Q

Patient preparation for detecting orthostatic proteinuria

A

Empty bladder before going to bed

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121
Q

Increased pressure on the renal vein when in the vertical position is believed to account for _____ proteinuria

A

Orthostatic

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122
Q

A non-specific test for reducing sugars

A

Clinitest (copper reduction test)

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123
Q

Copper sulfate is used to determine what ability of glucose?

A

Reducing / reduction

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124
Q

Cause of FALSE-POSITIVE copper reduction test for urine sugars

A

Ascorbic acid, uric acid

125
Q

Cause of FALSE-NEGATIVE copper reduction test for urine sugars

A

Detergents / pass-thru phenomenon

126
Q

To prevent pass-through phenomenon, use how many drops of urine?

A

2 drops

127
Q

Rubner’s test detects what sugar (s)?

A

Lactose and glucose

128
Q

If glucose reagent strip is 4+ what other parameter (s) should be checked?

A

Ketones and protein

129
Q

Patient is on a starvation diet. What can be found in urine?

A

Ketones

130
Q

Ketone body not detected by reagent strip?

A

Beta-hydroxybutyrate (78%)

131
Q

Percentage of acetoacetic acid in the ketone bodies

A

20%

132
Q

Ketone body detected when glycine is included in the reagent strip

A

Acetone (2%)

133
Q

Toxic to the renal tubular epithelium

A

Hemoglobin, myoglobin

134
Q

A person suffering from crush injuries will manifest _____ in urine

A

Myoglobinuria

135
Q

Drug that causes rhabdomyolysis leading to myoglobinuri

A

Statin (cholesterol-lowering drug)

136
Q

Test to differentiate hemoglobin and myoglobin

A

Blondheim’s test

137
Q

A red PRECIPITATE in urine is formed after adding ammonium sulfate. What is present?

A

Hemoglobin

138
Q

A red SUPERNATANT in urine is formed after adding ammonium sulfate. What is present?

A

Myoglobin

139
Q

Urine specimen handling for bilirubin testing

A

Wrap the specimen in foil

140
Q

Bilirubin reagent strip detects what bilirubin fraction?

A

Conjugated (direct, B2)

141
Q

Positive Ictotest result

A

Blue to purple after 60 seconds

142
Q

Parameter reported in Ehrlich units

A

Urobilinogen

143
Q

Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units?

A

0.4 EU (CF : 1)

144
Q

Differentiates urobilinogen, porphobilinogen, and other Ehrlich-reactive compounds

A

Watson-Schwartz test

145
Q

Soluble in (extracted by) both chloroform and butanol

A

Urobilinogen

146
Q

Insoluble in (not extracted) both chloroform and butanol

A

Porphobilinogen

147
Q

Soluble in (extracted by) butanol, insoluble in (not extracted by) chlorofom

A

Other Ehrlich reactive compounds

148
Q

Patient preparation prior to testing urinary nitrite

A

Eat vegetables the night before

149
Q

Bacteria that produces positive nitrite reagent strip

A

E.coli (gram-negative bacilli)

150
Q

What is responsible for pink color reaction in the nitrite reagent pad?

A

Azo dye reacting with aromatic compounds

151
Q

All leukocytes contain esterase enzyme except?

A

Lymphocytes

152
Q

Nitrite should NOT INTERFERE with the reagent strip test for

A

Leukocytes

153
Q

Relationship of urine SG to urine volume

A

Inversely proportional

154
Q

Urine SG is equal to 1.010

A

Isosthenuria

155
Q

Urine SG >1.010

A

Hypersthenuria

156
Q

Urine SG <1.010

A

Hyposthenuria

157
Q

Actual SG formula

A

Actual SG = Decimal portion of given SG x Dilution factor

158
Q

If urine specimen yielded an SG reading of 1.014 after using 1:4 dilution, the actual SG is?

A

1.056

159
Q

Urine volume requirement for urinometry

A

10-15 mL

160
Q

Used to calibrate a urinometer to base (1.000)

A

Distilled water

161
Q

Instrument based of refractive index

A

Total solids meter (refractometer)

162
Q

Refractive index is a comparison of

A

Light velocity in air to light velocity in solution

163
Q

Urine volume needed by the refractometer?

A

1 or 2 drops

164
Q

Specific gravity of (triple) distilled water

A

1.000

165
Q

Specific gravity of 3% sodium chloride

A

1.015 +/- 0.001

166
Q

Specific gravity of 5% sodium chloride

A

1.022 +/- 0.001

167
Q

Specific gravity of 7% sodium chloride

A

1.035 +/- 0.001

168
Q

Specific gravity of 9% sucrose

A

1.034 +/- 0.001

169
Q

Specific gravity of potassium sulfate solution

A

1.015 +/- 0.001

170
Q

_____ for every 3C that the specimen temperature is ABOVE calibration temperature

A

+0.001

171
Q

_____ for every 3C that the specimen temperature is BELOW calibration temperature

A

-0.001

172
Q

Correction factor in urinometer or refractometer for every 1 g/dL of glucose present in urine

A

-0.004

173
Q

Correction factor in urinometer or refractometer for every 1 g/dL of protein present in urine

A

-0.003

174
Q

Temperature correction factor when using REFRACTOMETER

A

None

175
Q

Reading of distilled water using refractometer is 1.002. What should you do?

A

Adjust set screw to 1.000

176
Q

11th pad in the reagent strip

A

Ascorbic acid

177
Q

Specimen used for Addis count

A

12-hour urine

178
Q

Preservative for Addis count urine specimens, excellent sediment preservative

A

Formalin

179
Q

Normal values for Addis count

A

0-500,000 RBCs
0-1,800,000 WBCs and EC
0-5,000 Hyaline casts

180
Q

Primary components of the microscope LENS system

A

Oculars
Objectives
Adjustment knobs

181
Q

Components of the microscope ILLUMINATION system

A

Light source
Condenser
Diaphragms

182
Q

Components of the microscope BODY

A

Base
Body tube
Nosepiece

183
Q

They perform the INITIAL magnification of object on the mechanical stage

A

Ojectives

184
Q

Objective used for preliminary assessment (screening) of the urine sediment

A

10x (LPO)

185
Q

Magnification power of ocular lens

A

10x

186
Q

_____ illumination precisely focuses and centers the light path and spreading the light uniformly over the field of view

A

Kohler

187
Q

A type of microscope that forms a HALO around the specimen

A

Phase-contrast

188
Q

Microscope for identifying hyaline/mixed cellular casts and mucus threads

A

Phase-contrast

189
Q

To convert a brightfield into a darkfield microscope, what should be replaced?

A

Condenser

190
Q

To convert a brightfield into a polarizing microscope, what should be installed?

A

2 polarizing filters

191
Q

Microscope that produces 3D image and layer-by-layer imaging of the specimen

A

Interference-contrast

192
Q

Nomarski and Hoffman are examples of _____ microspcope

A

Interference-contrast

193
Q

_____ microscopes can be adapted for Hoffman and Nomarski microscopes

A

Bright-field

194
Q

Optical surfaces of the microscope should be cleaned with

A

Lens paper

195
Q

Used to remove DUST on the optical surface of the microscope

A

Camel-hair brush

196
Q

Clean any contaminated lens immediately with

A

Commercial lens water

197
Q

If lens cleaning solution is not available, what can be used as an alternative?

A

Alcohol-based solution

198
Q

Supravital stain that differentiates WBCs from RTE cells

A

Toluidine blue

199
Q

Lipid stains can stain triglycerides and neutral fats, but not

A

Cholesterol

200
Q

Color produced by neutral fats using Sudan III stain

A

Orange-red

201
Q

Preferred stain for urinary eosinophils

A

Hansel stain

202
Q

Stain for hemosiderin in urine

A

Prussian blue

203
Q

Stain used in automated UA to visualize WBC, mitochondria, nuclear and cell membrane

A

Carbocyanine (green)

204
Q

Stain used in automated UA to visualize DNA elements

A

Phenathridine (orange)

205
Q

RBCs in hypotonic urine will

A

Swell / hemolyze (ghost cell)

206
Q

RBCs in hypertonic urine will

A

Shrink / crenate

207
Q

RBCs in glomerular membrane damage or bleeding appear as

A

Dysmorphic

208
Q

When blood is negative but RBCs were reported on microscopy, recheck sediment and look for __________

A

Budding yeasts

209
Q

Uniform blue color on blood reagent pad, 8 ghost cells seen/HPF. This indicates?

A

Hematuria (RBCs are lysed)

210
Q

Positive for blood reagent strip, 0-1 RBC/HPF. What indication?

A

Hemoglobinuria / myoglobinuria

211
Q

Term that indicates presence of WBCs in urine

A

Pyuria / leukocyturia

212
Q

Glitter cells are seen in urine with

A

Low specific gravity

213
Q

Normal value for urinary eosinophils

A

1% or less

214
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The percentage of eosinophils in 100-500 cells is NOT determined

A

False; determined

215
Q

If eosinophils in urine are >1%, this is associated with what condition?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

216
Q

Largest cell in the urine sediment

A

Squamous epithelial cell

217
Q

Epithelial cell variant associated with bacterial vaginosis / Gardenella vaginalis

A

Clue cell

218
Q

Epithelial cell known as “bladder cell”

A

Transitional epithelial cell

219
Q

These cells originate from the lining of renal pelvis, calyces, ureters, & bladder and from upper portion of male urethra

A

Urothelial cells

220
Q

Most clinically significant epithelial cell

A

RTE (renal tubular epithelial) cell

221
Q

Clinically significant squamous epithelial cell

A

Clue cell

222
Q

Epithelial cell in urine with eccentric nucleus

A

RTE cell

223
Q

Shape of proximal convulated tubule RTE cells

A

Oblong / cigar / rectangular / columnar

224
Q

Shape of distal convulated RTE cells

A

Round / oval

225
Q

Shape of collecting duct RTE cells

A

Polygonal, cuboidal, columnar

226
Q

Number of RTE cells per HPF indicative of tubular injury

A

> 2 per HPF

227
Q

Oval fat bodies are derived from what cell?

A

RTE cell

228
Q

Highly refractile RTE cell

A

Oval fat body

229
Q

Oval fat bodies are seen in what condition?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

230
Q

RTE cell variant seen in acute tubular necrosis

A

Bubble cell

231
Q

RTE cell inclusion that are formed after prolonged hemoglobinuria

A

Hemosiderin granules

232
Q

Glucose (+); Round cells insoluble in dilute acetic acid. What is present?

A

Moniliasis (yeast)

233
Q

To consider as significant for yeast infection, yeast cells should be accompanied by?

A

WBC

234
Q

Most frequently encountered parasite in urine; Leukocyte esterase (+)

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

235
Q

When not moving, Trichomonas is more difficult to identify. Observe for the presence of

A

Undulating membrane

236
Q

Mistaken for non-motile Trichomonas vaginalis in urine

A

RTE cell / WBC / Transitional epithelial cell

237
Q

Most common fecal contaminant in urine

A

Enterobius vermicularis

238
Q

Most common urine contaminant in female patients

A

Squamous epithelial cells

239
Q

Might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed

A

Casts

240
Q

Objective used for DETECTING cast

A

LPO

241
Q

Objective used for IDENTIFYING cast

A

HPO

242
Q

Total magnification for reporting casts

A

100x (LPO x ocular lens)

243
Q

Major component of urinary casts

A

Uromodulin (THP)

244
Q

Other protein component of urinary casts

A

Albumin, immunoglobulins

245
Q

Order of casts degeneration

A

Hyalin > cellular > coarsely granular > finely granular > waxy

246
Q

The most commonly seen broad cast are

A

Granular and waxy

247
Q

This can occur following strenuous exercise

A

Cylinduria

248
Q

RBC casts can be easily identified due to its

A

Orange-red color

249
Q

Final degenerative form of all cast types; Seen in chronic renal failure

A

Waxy cast

250
Q

Also known as renal failure cast

A

Broad cast

251
Q

As a mold of the distal convoluted tubules, the presence of broad casts indicates _____ of the tubular walls

A

Destruction (widening)

252
Q

Pink sediment in urine

A

Amorphous urates

253
Q

What to do in a precipitated specimen containing pink precipitates before testing?

A

Heat urine at 60C

254
Q

White precipitate in urine

A

Amorphous phosphates and carbonates

255
Q

Envelope or pyramid-shaped, octahedral, square with an “X” crystal

A

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

256
Q

Common form of calcium oxalate crystals

A

Dihydrate or Weddellite

257
Q

Calcium oxalate crystals are also associated with foods high in oxalic acid, such as _____ and asparagus, and ascorbic acid

A

Tomatoes

258
Q

Amorphous urates + acetic acid

A

Uric acid

259
Q

Gold lemon-shaped crystals

A

Uric acid

260
Q

Crystal associated with chemotherapy, leukemia, lymphoma or polycythemia vera

A

Uric acid

261
Q

Shape of ammonium biurate crystals

A

Thorny apples

262
Q

Feathery, fern-leaf, coffin-lid, prism

A

Triple phosphate

263
Q

Other name for struvite

A

Triple phosphate, magnesium ammonium phosphate

264
Q

Colorless, flat rectangular plates or thin prisms often in rosette forms

A

Calcium phosphate

265
Q

Other name for apatite

A

Calcium phosphate

266
Q

Most abnormal crystals are found in what urinary pH?

A

Acidic or neutral

267
Q

Colorless hexagonal crystals

A

Cystine

268
Q

Staircase pattern with notch in one or more corners

A

Cholesterol

269
Q

Notched crystals are seen in what condition?

A

Nephrotic syndrome (lipiduria)

270
Q

Bilirubin, tyrosine, and leucine crystals are seen together in

A

Liver disease

271
Q

Yellow needle-shaped crystals in amber urine; what significance?

A

Bilirubin, liver disease

272
Q

Crystal precipitated with tyrosine crystals if alcohol is added to urine

A

Leucine

273
Q

Yellow-brown SHEAVES OF WHEAT, rosettes, arrowheads, PETALS, needles

A

Sulfonamide

274
Q

Colorless needles that tend to form BUNDLES following refrigeration

A

Ampicillin

275
Q

Cigarette butt urinary crystal

A

Calcium sulfate

276
Q

Urinary artifact with DIMPLED appearance

A

Starch granules

277
Q

Urinary elements exhibiting maltese cross formation

A

Oval fat bodies
Fatty casts
Fat droplets
Starch granules

278
Q

UA result: pH 5.0, WBCs and struvite crystals present. What to do?

A

Repeat testing

279
Q

Screening for specific substances associated with IEMs in infant’s blood sample

A

MS/MS (tandem mass spectrophotometry)

280
Q

Metabolic disorder that lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase

A

Phenylketonuria

281
Q

The most well known of the aminoacidurias

A

Phenylketonuria

282
Q

The most common in IEM detected in the Philippines

A

MSUD (maple syrup urine disease)

283
Q

Metabolic disorder where urine turns black after opening the container

A

Melanuria

284
Q

Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (CTAD) is screening test for

A

Mucopolysaccharides

285
Q

Positive result in the CTAB test

A

White turbidity

286
Q

Positive color in the MPS (mucopolysaccharide) paper test

A

Blue

287
Q

Increased aminolevulinic acid (ALA) in urine is seen in

A

Lead poisoning

288
Q

When testing urinary ALA, the specimen must be pre-treated with

A

Acetyl acetone

289
Q

Infant urine yielded negative glucose but positive Clinitest results, suspects for

A

Galactosemia

290
Q

Deficient melanin production results in

A

Albinism

291
Q

Metabolite of serotonin

A

5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid)

292
Q

Preservative for urine 5-HIAA testing

A

HCl or boric acid

293
Q

Serotonin-rich foods include

A

Bananas
Pineapples
Tomatoes
Avocadoes
Chocolates
Plums
Walnuts

294
Q

Findings in Henoch-Schonlein purpura include heavy _____ & _____ with RBC casts

A

Proteinura & hematuria

295
Q

Crystal seen in Fanconi’s syndrome

A

Cystine

296
Q

Protein in urine seen microscopically in renal diseases

A

Tamm-Horsfall protein (cast)

297
Q

Precursor of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Respiratory infection (S. pyogenes)

298
Q

Progressive, irreversible renal disease

A

Chronic kidney disease (CRF / CGN)

299
Q

Renal disease with the greatest proteinuria (>3.5 g/day)

A

Nephrotic syndrome

300
Q

Main characteristics of nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinuria and lipiduria

301
Q

Urine SG in acute tubular necrosis

A

1.010 (isosthenuric)

302
Q

Presence of WBCs, bacteria and casts is seen in

A

Acute pyelonephritis

303
Q

Presence of WBCs and bacteria, and absence of CASTS is seen in

A

Cystitis

304
Q

Presence of WBCs and WBC casts; absence of BACTERIA

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

305
Q

Tumor markers for urinary bladder cancer

A

NMP, BTA (nuclear matrix protein, bladder tumor antigen)

306
Q

Primary urinalysis finding in renal lithiasis

A

Microscopic hematuria

307
Q

Urinary calculi are most commonly formed from

A

Calcium

308
Q

Renal calculi may form in the

A

Renal calyces
Renal pelvis
Ureters
Urinary bladder

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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