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Hubble Notes > Parasitology > Flashcards

Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

When naming organisms, the Genus should start with a _____ letter and species with a _____ letter

A

Genus: capital
Species: small

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2
Q

A symbiotic relationship in which 1 organism benefits from the other without causing any harm

A

Commensalism

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3
Q

Parasite that can multiply in fecal matter outside the body

A

Coprophilic parasite

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4
Q

Host in which parasite undergoes an arrested developmental stage

A

Paratenic host

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5
Q

Source of infection is known as the

A

Reservoir

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6
Q

Parasite that lays eggs which HATCH AFTER leaving a host

A

Oviparous

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7
Q

Parasite that lays eggs which HATCH BEFORE living a host

A

Ovoviviparous

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8
Q

Parasite that lays LARVA instead of egg

A

Viviparous

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9
Q

Parasitology slides and photographs are used for?

A

Quality control purposes

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10
Q

A clean, dry, waterproof container with a _____ lid is an appropriate collection container for a stool sample

A

Tight-fitting

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11
Q

CDC recommends that ___ or more samples, collected on separate days, be examined for O & P test

A

3

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12
Q

Beyond 1 hour, stool samples must be

A

Refrigerated

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13
Q

How long can fecal samples be stored in a refrigerator?

A

24 hours

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14
Q

Diarrheic stools must be examined within _____ to _____ after passage

A

30 minutes to 1 hour

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15
Q

Trophozoites are very fragile and could be DESTROYED at _____ temperature

A

Refrigerator

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16
Q

These interferes with identification of parasites, especially protozoan CYSTS

A

Mineral oil droplets

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17
Q

MERCURY CONTAINING fixative used to preserve parasite in stool specimen

A

Polyvinyl alcohol
Schaudinn’s fluid

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18
Q

Preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain

A

Polyvinyl alcohol

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19
Q

Stain recommended for intestinal coccidia

A

Modified-acid fast stain

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20
Q

Preservative in direct fecal smear

A

Formalin

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21
Q

Vector for Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Cockroach

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22
Q

Ascaris eggs without mammillary coating

A

Decorticated egg

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23
Q

This adult female roundworm migrates out of the anus and deposits eggs on perianal area

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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24
Q

Peripheral blood picture in Loeffler’s syndrome

A

Peripheral eosinophilia

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25
Q

Heart-to-Lung Migration

A

*ASH

Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongyloides stercoralis
Hookworm

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26
Q

Unholy three of roundworms

A

*HAT

Hookworm
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichuris trichiuria

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27
Q

Severe itching / allergic reaction at the site of skin penetration by hookworm filariform larvae is called

A

Ground itch

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28
Q

Feeding stage of nematodes (hookworm, threadworm)

A

Rhabditiform larva

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29
Q

Infective stage of nematodes (hookworm, threadworm)

A

Filariform larva

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30
Q

Intestinal roundworm demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in fecal specimen

A

Threadworm

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31
Q

Helminth that induces a microcytic, hypochromic anemia in its host

A

Hookworm

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32
Q

Rhabditiform larvae with SHORT buccal cavity and LARGE GENITAL primordium

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

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33
Q

Rhabditiform larvae with LONG buccal cavity and SHORT GENITAL primordium

A

Hookworm

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34
Q

Intestinal nematode capable of vertical transmission and congenital infections

A

Ancylostoma duodenale

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35
Q

Significant eosinophilia and muscle pain may occur after ingestion of meat infected with?

A

Trichinella spiralis

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36
Q

Agent of CUTANEOUS larva migrans or CREEPING eruption

A

Dog hookworm (A. caninum)

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37
Q

Agent of VISCERAL larva migrans

A

Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati

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38
Q

Pre-larval stage of filarial worms

A

Microfilaria

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39
Q

Most common identified species of filarial worms, sheathed, and nocturnal

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

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40
Q

Definitive host and reservoir of Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Humans

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41
Q

Filarial worm similar to W. bancrofti that may cause lymphadenopathy

A

Brugia malayi

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42
Q

Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that _____

A

On water contact, release larvae

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43
Q

Agent of river blindness

A

Onchocerca volvulus

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44
Q

Vector of Onchocerca volvulus

A

Black fly

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45
Q

Objective used to detect microfilariae

A

LPO

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46
Q

Scientific name of the head of a tapeworm

A

Scolex

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47
Q

Part of cestodes used for ATTACHMENT to the intestinal walls; “ANCHORING ORGAN” of cestodes

A

Scolex

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48
Q

When man becomes intermediate host for T. solium, this disease is manifested

A

Cysticercosis

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49
Q

Cestode capable of causing cysticercosis

A

Taenia solium

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50
Q

Humans serve as _____ host for T. solium

A

Definitive (or accidental intermediate)

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51
Q

Life span of T. solium

A

Up to 25 years

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52
Q

New species of Taenia discovered in Taiwan ; 3rd Taenia spp. ; Taiwan Taenia

A

Taenia asiatica

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53
Q

T. asiatica adult resembles T. saginata, but the _____ is close to T. solium

A

Cysticerci

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54
Q

Parasite that causes megaloblastic anemia

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

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55
Q

Lifespan of D. latum

A

25 years

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56
Q

Mistaken as adult Diphyllobothrium latum

A

Spirometra

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57
Q

Found in the intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus

A

Hydatid cyst

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58
Q

Diagnostic stage of Echinococcus spp. in humans

A

Hydatid cyst

59
Q

Used for sterilization when removing a hydatid cyst

60
Q

Definitive host for Echinococcus multilocularis

A

Foxes, coyotes, dogs

61
Q

Fluke found in sheep and cattle

A

Fasciola hepatica

62
Q

Fluke that causes vitamin B12 deficiency and intestinal obstruction

A

Fasciolopsis buski

63
Q

Trematode that can cause cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis, Opisthorchis viverrini, Fasciola

64
Q

Most flukes are hermaphroditic (have both sexes) except

A

Schistosoma (separate sexes)

65
Q

Stage of schistosomes that goes out of the snail to go to water

66
Q

Schistosoma spp. infects human by

A

Skin penetration

67
Q

Katayama fever is associated with what parasite

A

Schistosomes

68
Q

Swimmer’s itch or cercarial dermatitis is caused by

A

Cercaria of schistosomes

69
Q

Habitat of Schistosoma japonicum inside human host

A

Superior mesenteric vein (small intestine)

70
Q

Schistosome EGG recovered in URINE

A

Schistosoma haematobium

71
Q

What is a Schistosomule

A

Cercaria minus tail

72
Q

Operculated ovum seen in bloody sputum with CHARCOT-LEYDEN CRYSTALS

A

Paragonimus westermani

73
Q

Adult P. westermani resides on what organ?

74
Q

How to prevent paragonimiasis?

A

Avoid eating raw freshwater crabs

75
Q

Treatment for P. westermani infection

A

Praziquantel

76
Q

Avoiding consumption of AQUATIC PLANTS is a way to prevent infection with

A

Fasciolopsis and Fasciola

77
Q

Nonmotile, nonfeeding and infective stage of amebae

78
Q

Motile, reproducing and feeding stage of protozoa

A

Trophozoite

79
Q

Objective used when viewing trichrome stained smear of protozoa

80
Q

Color of trophozoite GLYCOGEN using trichrome stain

81
Q

Color of trophozoite NUCLEUS using trichrome stain

A

Red-purple

82
Q

Color of CHARCOT-LEYDEN CRYSTAL using trichrome stain

A

Bright red

83
Q

Color of CHROMATOID BODIES using trichrome stain

A

Bright to red

84
Q

Pathogenic amoebic trophozoite that ingests RBCs of its host

A

Entamoeba histolytica

85
Q

Point of differentiation between E. histolytica and E. hartmanni

86
Q

Mature cyst of E. histolytica has how many nuclei?

87
Q

Mature cyst of E. coli has how many nuclei?

88
Q

Trichuris trichiuria infection provides a good site for what protozoan?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

89
Q

SREHP stands for

A

Serine-rich Entamoeba histolytica protein

90
Q

Amoeba with a “GROUND GLASS” cytoplasm

A

Entamoeba histolytica / Entamoeba dispar

91
Q

Sluggish, non-directional motility, has a “DIRTY CYTOPLASM”

A

Entamoeba coli

92
Q

Amoeba with a characteristic “BASKET NUCLEUS”

A

Iodamoeba butschlii

93
Q

Amoeba that contains INGESTED NEUTROPHILS

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

94
Q

Amebae inhabiting the CNS enter the body through the

A

Nasal mucosa

95
Q

DOUBLE-WALLED CYST with outer wrinkled wall and inner polygonal wall

A

Acanthamoeba spp.

96
Q

Agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)

A

Naegleria fowleri

97
Q

Best staining procedures for Naegleria and Acanthamoeba

A

H & E
Wright stain

98
Q

In what specimen are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually found?

99
Q

Trophozoite with karyosomal chromatin appearing as ROSETTE of 4-6 granules

A

Naegleria fowleri

100
Q

Protozoan often mistakes as cyst of amebae

A

Blastocystis hominis

101
Q

The only ciliate pathogenic in humans

A

Balantidium coli

102
Q

Associated with steatorrhea and GAY BOWEL SYNDROME

A

Giardia lamblia

103
Q

Intestinal flagellate trophozoite with sucking disc, 2 nuclei, 8 flagella, and 1 axostyle

A

Giardia lamblia

104
Q

The ONLY BILATERALLY SYMMETRICAL protozoan is

A

Giardia lamblia

105
Q

Causes “CRYPT” hypertrophy in the duodenum and subsequently diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

106
Q

Protozoan with an UNDULATING MEMBRANE

A

Trichomonas
Trypanosoma

107
Q

What does D. fragilis have in common with T. vaginalis?

A

Neither has a cyst form

108
Q

Specimen used for rapid diagnosis of T. vaginalis

A

Vaginal swab

109
Q

Definitive host of Plasmodium spp.

A

Female Anopheles mosquito

110
Q

Infective stage of malarial parasite to the VECTOR

A

Gametocyte

111
Q

Infective stage of malarial parasite to HUMANS

A

Sporozoite

112
Q

Principal vector of malaria in the Philippines?

A

Anopheles minimus flavirostris

113
Q

Plasmodium spp. responsible for 90% of malaria cases

A

Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax

114
Q

Plasmodium spp. that may cause relapse of infection

A

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

115
Q

HYPNOZOITES may be seen in malarial infection caused by

A

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

116
Q

Paroxysmal cycle of Plasmodium knowlesi

117
Q

RBC inclusion produced by Plasmodium knowlesi

A

Sinton and Mulligan’s stipling

118
Q

Type of blood specimen preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoan

A

Finger puncture

119
Q

Stain of choice for diagnosis of malaria thick and thin smear

A

Giemsa stain

120
Q

When performing thick and thin blood smears for malaria, which smear is FIXED?

A

Thin smear

121
Q

Venipuncture blood is NOT recommended for

A

Malaria, Babesia and Hemoflagellates

122
Q

To detect stippling, prepare blood films within _____ after being drawn

A

30 minutes to 1 hour

123
Q

Type of microscope used for quantitative buffy coat method for malaria

A

Fluorescent

124
Q

Oocyst of this parasite can be recovered in cat feces

A

Toxoplasma gondii

125
Q

Patient with cerebral calcification must be tested with

A

Toxoplasma antibody titer

126
Q

Important cause of chorioretinitis

A

Toxoplasma

127
Q

Parasite that can undergo autofuorescence

A

Cyclospora

128
Q

Specimen for detection of microsporidia

A

Fresh stool or formalin-fixed stool

129
Q

Intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates

A

Leishmanial

130
Q

How is Trypanosoma cruzi trasmitted?

A

Bite of reduviid bug

131
Q

Agent of GAMBIAN disease / “West African Sleeping Sickness”

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

132
Q

Agent of RHODESIAN disease / “East African sleeping sickness”

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

133
Q

Vector of African sleeping sickness

A

Glossina spp. (Tsetse fly)

134
Q

Glossina palpalis, Glossina fuscipes, Glossina tachinoides are vector of

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

135
Q

Glossina morsitans, Glossina pallidipes, and Glossina swynnertoni are vectors of

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

136
Q

Agent of CHAGA’S DISEASE

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

137
Q

Agent of KALA-AZAR / BLACK FEVER / Dumdum fever / Visceral Leishmaniasis

A

Leishmania donovani

138
Q

Infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans

A

Promastigote

139
Q

This parasite has the following manifestation: WBCs with amastigotes inside

A

Leishmania

140
Q

TRUE OF FALSE: Leishmania donovani, Histoplasma capsulatum, and Toxoplasma gondii are found WITHIN reticuloendothelial cells

141
Q

Agent of “crabs”

A

Pthirus pubis (ectoparasite)

142
Q

Scabies is a type of (infection or infestation)

A

Infestation

143
Q

Also known as “head louse”

A

Pediculus humanus capitis

144
Q

Wingless athropods

A

Ticks, bedbugs, mites, and spiders

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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