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Hubble Notes > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Number of bacterial morphology

A

4

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2
Q

Unit of measurement for bacteria

A

Micrometer (microns)

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3
Q

Unique component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

A

Lipopolysaccharides

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4
Q

They grow in the absence of O2 and obtain O2 from O2 containing compounds

A

Anaerobes

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5
Q

Term used to denote “cold-loving” bacteria

A

Psychrophile / Cryophile

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6
Q

Nutrient media is made of extracts of _____ & _____

A

Meats & soybeans

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7
Q

Proper manner of dispensing culture media

A

Weigh agar
Dissolve agar in flask
Sterilize
Dispense into petri dish

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8
Q

To dissolve the agar powder, pour half the amount of _____ in a vessel, then the _____ powder, then pour the rest of the _____

A

Water - agar - water

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9
Q

Type of water used in preparing culture media

A

Deionized / Distilled water

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10
Q

How to determine if an agar is completely dissolved?

A

Should be CLEAR (no particles)

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11
Q

Phenylethylalcohol is added on certain media to inhibit

A

Gram (-) bacteria

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12
Q

Why would thioglycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used?

A

To drive off oxygen

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13
Q

In thioglycollate broth, organisms will grow only in the part where _____ concentration meets their needs

A

Oxygen

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14
Q

__________ grow at the TOP of thioglycollate broth

A

Obligate aerobes

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15
Q

__________ grow NEAR THE TOP of thioglycollate broth

A

Microaerophiles

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16
Q

__________ grow at the BOTTOM of thioglycollate broth

A

Obligate anaerobes

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17
Q

__________ & __________ grow in the ENTIRE thioglycollate broth

A

Facultative anaerobes & Aerotolerant anaerobes

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18
Q

Added to the culture medium to tubes to provide and maintain an anaerobic environment

A

Mineral oil

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19
Q

Composition of blood agar

A

Nutrient agar + 5% sheep blood

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20
Q

How is chocolate agar prepared

A

Applying heat to blood agar to lyse RBC’s

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21
Q

Thayer-Martin medium is basically an __________ agar

A

Enriched chocolate agar

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22
Q

Clear medium for mycobacteria

A

Middlebrook 7H10 / 7H11

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23
Q

Component in SDA that is used as energy source

A

Dextrose

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24
Q

To make agar selective for fungi, what should be added on the medium?

A

Antibiotics + cycloheximide

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25
Q

Ideally, specimens should be transported to the laboratory within ___ hours of collection

A

2 hours

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26
Q

Suitable transport medium for bacteria and viruses

A

Stuart’s medium

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27
Q

Indicates that Cary-Blair medium has reached an acidic pH and cannot be used

A

Indicator become YELLOW

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28
Q

True or false: Some viruses in urine, CSF, or blood can be transported in the specimen ITSELF

A

True

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29
Q

Inhibitor used in mannitol salt agar

A

7.5% NaCl

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30
Q

Purpose of reducing agent in a medium

A

Prevents oxidation

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31
Q

Function of tellurite

A

Inhibit normal flora

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32
Q

Inhibitor used in Salmonella-Shigella agar

A

Bile salts, brilliant green

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33
Q

Indicator used in XLD agar

A

Phenol red

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34
Q

H2S production, other than in TSI agar, requires an organic source of _____ and a source of_____

A

Sulfur; metal

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35
Q

Most commonly used inoculation method to isolate desirable bacteria

A

Streaking method

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36
Q

No. of quadrants on a culture medium streaked for stool culture

A

4

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37
Q

What is the reason for flaming the inoculation wire loop

A

To sterilize

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38
Q

Contained volume of inoculating loop

A

10 uL or 1 uL
(0.01 or 0.001 mL)

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39
Q

Contained volume of inoculating loop for urine cultures

A

1 uL

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40
Q

Dilution factor if 1 uL loop is used

A

1000

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41
Q

Dilution factor if 10uL loop is used

A

100

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42
Q

McFarland standard is used to

A

Adjust turbidity of inoculum

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43
Q

0.5 mL 1.175% BaCl2 + 99.5 mL 1% H2SO4 is a standard composition of

A

0.5 McFarland

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44
Q

pH of Mueller Hinton agar for antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

7.2 to 7.4

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45
Q

After inoculation, how long should the Mueller-Hinton plates dry before adding the disks?

A

Within 15 minutes

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46
Q

Agar plates should be kept _____ whenever possible to prevent water from dripping into the agar surface

A

Inverted / Upside down

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47
Q

In Quebec colony counter, the colonies are presented against _____ background

A

Dark

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48
Q

In MH agar, what can cause increase resistance of P. aeruginosa to aminoglycosides?

A

Increased Ca and Mg

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49
Q

Effect of NON-DILUTED bacterial inoculum to antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

False resistant (heavy inoculum)

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50
Q

Effect of TOO MUCH MOISTURE to antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

Smaller zone

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51
Q

A zone within a zone of inhibition is caused by

A

Swarming phenomenon

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52
Q

What to do if swarming organisms produces zone in an antimicrobial susceptibility testing?

A

Ignore swarming

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53
Q

To isolate an organism from a liquid specimen, what method is used?

A

Pour plate

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54
Q

In the pour-plate method, how does amount of agar added affect the dilution?

A

Dilution is not affected

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55
Q

Filiform, echinulate, beaded, effuse, arborescent, and rhizoid are types of growth on

A

Agar slant

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56
Q

Most common method for determination of antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

Kirby Bauer disk diffusion

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57
Q

It is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that INHIBITS microbial growth

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration

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58
Q

It is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that KILLS 99.9% of bacteria

A

Minimum bactericidal concentration

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59
Q

The zone diameter of inhibition is _____ related to the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

A

Inversely

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60
Q

Used to measure the zone diameter of inhibition

A

Ruler / Caliper

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61
Q

Most commonly used AUTOMATED instrument for antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

Vitek 2

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62
Q

Resistant that resulted in the organism being resistant to an antibiotic

A

Biological resistance

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63
Q

Resistance wherein the antibiotic is no longer effective for clinical use

A

Clinical resistance

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64
Q

It has series of antibiotic concentrations for determining antimicrobial susceptibility in a broth

A

Broth dilution

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65
Q

It provides homogenous atmosphere to bring culture up to optimal conditions faster

A

Smart incubator

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66
Q

Incubator should be set at _____ to meet the temperature of most human pathogens

A

35C

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67
Q

Phase where bacterial cells INCREASE IN SIZE but not in number

A

Lag phase

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68
Q

Capnophilic organisms require how much CO2?

A

5-10%

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69
Q

It can be used as an alternative to anaerobic jar

A

Candle jar

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70
Q

Primary use of candle jar

A

Create atmosphere with approximately 3% CO2

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71
Q

% of gases in a microaerophile environment

A

5% O2; 10% CO2; 85% N2

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72
Q

% of gases in an anaerobic environment

A

5% CO2; 10% H2; 85% N2

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73
Q

Most common failure concerning GasPak jar

A

Inactivated catalyst

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74
Q

Smears of CSF are prepared from

A

CSF sediment

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75
Q

Correct order in Gram Staining

A

Crystal violet
Iodine
Alcohol
Safranin

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76
Q

Purpose of mordant in gram staining

A

Dye fixative

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77
Q

Most critical step in gram staining

A

Decolorization

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78
Q

Differentiation of Gram staining occurs during _____

A

Decolorization

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79
Q

Safranin is replaced by 0.1% fuschin to better visualize

A

Legionella spp.

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80
Q

Mordant used in Zeil-Neelsen acid fast stain procedure

A

Heat

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81
Q

Acid-fast stain that does not use heat as a mordant

A

Kinyoun stain

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82
Q

Difference between modified acid fast stain and regular acid fast stain

A

Weaker decolorizer

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83
Q

Stain retained by acid fast organism

A

Carbolfuchsin

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84
Q

Color of AFB

A

Pink / red

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85
Q

Color of non-AFB

A

Blue

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86
Q

Precaution to treat all human blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious

A

Standard precaution

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87
Q

Precaution to all human blood and all other body fluids containing visible blood

A

Universal precaution

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88
Q

DONNING

A

Gown
Mask
Goggles
Gloves

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89
Q

DOFFING

A

Gloves
Goggles
Gown
Mask

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90
Q

Check the face velocity of safety cabinets every

A

Month

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91
Q

Setting of RPMs on face of rheostat control on centrifuge is checked every

A

Month

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92
Q

Mask protects an individual from

A

Droplet nuclei

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93
Q

Respirator in the lab must have _____ if engineering controls are not feasible

A

HEPA filter

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94
Q

For the N95 respirator to be an effective barrier, it is essential that is is __________, yet comfortably on the face

A

Snug fit

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95
Q

Chain of infection requires a continuous link between

A

Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host

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96
Q

6 component (chain of infection)

A

Infectious Agent
Reservoir
Portal of Exit
Mode of Transmission
Portal of Entry
Susceptible Host

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97
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Modes of infection transmission include direct contact, inhalation, ingestion and animal or insect vector bite

A

True

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98
Q

Parenteral inoculations, spills and splashes, ingestions, and inhalation of aerosols are the __________ of laboratory acquired infections

A

Major routes

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99
Q

__________ of microorganisms may result from needlestick, broken glass, animal bites and scratches on fingers

A

Direct inoculation

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100
Q

Generally, bacteria are attracted to a _____ environment

A

Moist

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101
Q

Safest method of sterilization

A

Autoclave

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102
Q

QC for autoclave; it dies after autoclave sterilization

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

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103
Q

QC for dry heat oven

A

Bacillus subtilis var. niger

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104
Q

Morphology or B. Stearothermophilus used as an indicator of autoclave sterilization

A

Spores

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105
Q

Autoclave sterilization is based upon moist heat at ___ C under ___ psi for ___ minutes

A

121C under 15 psi for 15 mins

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106
Q

It is a fumigant used for COLD STERILIZATION of surgical instruments

A

Ethylene oxide

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107
Q

Disinfectant for machines that cannot be autoclaved or heated

A

Ethylene oxide

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108
Q

Term for “hospital acquired”

A

Nosocomial

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109
Q

Process of killing all pathogenic organisms but NOT bacterial spores

A

Disinfection

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110
Q

Process of killing all microorganisms INCLUDING highly resistance bacterial SPORES

A

Sterilization

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111
Q

Most effective method of sterilization

A

Autoclave

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112
Q

Surface disinfectant used for biosafety cabinets

A

10% bleach / Sodium hypochlorite solution

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113
Q

If chlorox is not available in the laboratory, what can be used as a substitute

A

Vinegar

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114
Q

Quarternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by

A

Organic material

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115
Q

Number of bacteria of Grade A milk BEFORE pasteurization

A

75,000/mL

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116
Q

Number of bacteria of Grade A milk AFTER pasteurization

A

15,000/ mL

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117
Q

Certified milk contains _____ or less bacteria per mL

A

10,000

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118
Q

Boiling is (sporicidal or non-sopicidal)

A

Non-sporicidal

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119
Q

Term that means safe to drink and safe to use for cooking

A

Potable

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120
Q

Concentration of H2O2 used for cleansing wounds

A

3% to 6%

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121
Q

Iodine in alcohol

A

Tincture of iodine

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122
Q

Iodophores are composed of iodine and _____

A

Detergents

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123
Q

_____ specimen may be used in blood cultures because it PREVENTS PHAGOCYTOSIS and NEUTRALIZES bactericidal effect of serum

A

SPS

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124
Q

Least responsible in specimen collection

A

Intern

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125
Q

Optimal time to collect blood cultures

A

Before the fever spikes

126
Q

Most common compound used for skin disinfection for blood culture collection

A

70% ethanol followed by iodophore

127
Q

Obtain samples from _____ venipuncture sites within 24 hours at least 1 hour apart

A

2-3

128
Q

Ideally, all cultures should be obtained and sent _____ antibiotics are started

A

Before

129
Q

Throat swab for anaerobic culture, what to do next?

A

Reject the specimen

130
Q

Classification based on a, B, and y hemolysis is developed by?

A

Smith and Brown

131
Q

Greening or browning of blood agar due to PARTIAL lysis of RBCs

A

Alpha hemolysis

132
Q

COMPLETE clearing of blood agar

A

Beta hemolysis

133
Q

NO hemolysis on blood agar

A

Gamma hemolysis

134
Q

Small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by zone of beta hemolysis

A

Alpha-prime hemolysis

135
Q

Viewing hemolysis on BAP uses what light?

A

Transmitted light

136
Q

How often should catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents be tested?

A

1x day of use, when 1st opened

137
Q

What test demonstrates this procedure: “put drop of reagent on colony” ; “rub colony on filter paper strip and add drop of reagent” ; “rub colony on filter paper containing reagent”

A

Oxidase test

138
Q

Some citrate (+) organisms cause false (+) tube coagulase test because they use the _____ and release _____

A

Citrate; calcium

139
Q

Test for identification of S. agalactiae, G. vaginalis, C. jejuni, and L. monocytogenes

A

Hippurate hydrolysis

140
Q

Indicator in the methyl red test

A

Methyl red

141
Q

Testing 3 amino acids in the decarboxylase test requires 4 tubes. Why?

A

1 tube is needed for control

142
Q

Substrate in the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method

A

Nitrocefin

143
Q

Positive reaction for beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosphorin method

A

Color change

144
Q

1 agent of diarrhea in the US and worldwide

A

Campylobacter jejuni

145
Q

1 agent of diarrhea in the PHILIPPINES

A

Salmonella entereditis

146
Q

Food poisoning agents

A

S. aureus
B. cereus
C. botulinum
S. typhi
B. stearothermophilus
Latobacillus

147
Q

Differentiates Staphylococcus from Micrococcus

A

LYSOSTAPHIN susceptibility
Staphylococcus (S) Micrococcus (R)
*LSS

148
Q

Differentiates Staphylococcus and Micrococcus

A

BACITRACIN susceptibility
Staphylococcus (R) Micrococcus (S)

149
Q

_____ toxin of S. aureus is DISRUPTS the smooth muscle in blood vessels & is TOXIC to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes and platelets

A

Alpha

150
Q

_____ toxin of S. aureus is a HEAT-LABILE sphingomyelinase, which CATALYZED hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids resulting in cell lysis

A

Beta

151
Q

_____ toxin of Staphylococci is CYTOLYTIC to erythrocytes and demonstrates nonspecific membrane toxicity to other mammalian cells

A

Delta

152
Q

_____ toxin of S. aureus may actually function in association with PANTON-VALENTINE leukocidin

A

Gamma

153
Q

Spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase / Duran-Reynal factor

154
Q

Preferred method to differentiate S. aureus from S. epidermidis

A

Coagulase test

155
Q

Causes endocarditis from prosthetic heart valves

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

156
Q

Causes UTI in young, sexually-active females; NOVOBIOCIN (R)

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

157
Q

Test to differentiate Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

A

Catalase test

158
Q

Most common pathogen in throat cultures

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

159
Q

Post-sequelae infection of Group A Streptococcus

A

Acute Glomerulonephritis and Acute Renal Failure

160
Q

Antigenic, OXYGEN-LABILE; sub-surface hemolysis

A

Streptolysin O

161
Q

Non-antigenic; OXYGEN-STABLE; surface hemolysis

A

Streptolysin S

162
Q

Streptococcus associated with COLON CANCER

A

Streptococcus bovis

163
Q

“Lancet-shaped” Gram-positive bacteria

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

164
Q

Phadebact test, Fluorescent antibody test, and Lancefield precipitin test are serologic test for confirmation of

A

Streptococci

165
Q

Pneumococci resistant to penicillin should be tested for production of

A

Beta-lactamase

166
Q

Positive result in the Quellung test

A

Capsular swelling

167
Q

“Palisading”, “picket fence”, and “CHINESE LETTERS” appearance

A

Corynebacterium

168
Q

Babes-Ernst granules are characteristics of

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

169
Q

Flexible CALCIUM ALGINATE nasopharyngeal swab is the device of choice for recovery of?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

170
Q

Test that detects Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin in vitro

A

Elek test

171
Q

A normal flora found on skin and mucous membranes; Gram (+) bacteria with “L” AND “V” FORMS

A

Corynebacterium amycolatum

172
Q

Gram (+); aerobic; nitrate (-); catalase (+); rapid urease; causes UTI

A

Corynebacterium urealyticum

173
Q

Genera that produces spores

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

174
Q

Causes flat sour spoilage

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus and Bacillus coagulans

175
Q

Bacillus spp. that causes progressive ENDOPHTHALMITIS

A

Bacillus cereus

176
Q

Specimen that is best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak

A

Food

177
Q

Causes spoilage of bacon stored in vacuum-packed containers

A

Lactobacillus

178
Q

Bacillus spp. used as bioterrorism agent

A

Bacillus anthracis

179
Q

The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of

A

poly-D-glutamic acid

180
Q

Microscopic appearance of B. anthracis on culture SMEAR

A

Bamboo pole

181
Q

Bacillus anthracis susceptible to penicillin will produce what COLONY morphology

A

String of pearls

182
Q

Tumbling/umbrella motility at 25C; causes meningitis; stillbirth; food poisoning

A

Listeria monocytogenes

183
Q

Bacteria positive in Anton test

A

Listeria monocytogenes

184
Q

Test to differentiate Listeria and Corynebacterium

A

Hippurate hydrolysis
Listeria (+) Corynebacterium (-)

185
Q

Vitamin needed by anaerobes

A

Vitamin K

186
Q

Reaction of Bacteroides fragilis to Kanamycin, Vancomycin, and Colistin

A

Resistant

187
Q

Ethanol shock test is used to differentiate

A

Clostridium (+) and Bacteroides (+)

188
Q

Lecithinase positive, tipase-negative demonstrated on egg yolk agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

189
Q

Agent of clindamycin-associated pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

190
Q

Agent of gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

191
Q

Agent of botulism, flaccid paralysis, FLOPPY BABY SYNDROME, SIDS; canned good bacteria

A

Clostridium botulinum

192
Q

Agent of LOCKJAW; spastic paralysis

A

Clostridium tetani

193
Q

Agent of big head in rams, causes wound infection

A

Clostridium sordellii

194
Q

Anaerobic with terminal LOLLIPOP / tennis-racket shaped / DRUMSTICK spores

A

Clostridium tetani

195
Q

Infants are infected by Clostridium botulinum through

A

Ingestion of spores in food

196
Q

Anaerobic bacteria that serve as trigger for inflammatory acne

A

Propionibacterium acnes

197
Q

Anaerobic bacteria that causes blood culture contamination

A

Propionibacterium acnes

198
Q

SPS disk test is used to identify

A

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

199
Q

Agent of Whipple’s disease

A

Tropheryma whipplei

200
Q

“Ray fungus” ; lumpy jaw ; “MOLAR TOOTH” ; “SULFUR GRANULES” ; urease-negative

A

Actinomyces israelli

201
Q

Extensive branching / aerial hyphae, lysozyme resistant, urease (+)

A

Nocardia

202
Q

Branching gram positive, partially acid fast, does NOT hydrolyze casein, tyrosine, xanthine

A

Nocardia asteroides

203
Q

Nocardia will grow on any media that does not contain

A

Antibiotics

204
Q

Filamentous bacteria growing on tap water agar

A

Streptomyces spp.

205
Q

Agent of Vincent’s angina

A

F. necrophorum, Borrelia vincentii

206
Q

IMVIC reaction is routinely used mostly for identification of

A

Enterobacteriaceae

207
Q

All members of Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase _____ except for __________

A

Oxidase negative; Pleisiomonas shigelloides

208
Q

LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Lysostaphin (+) Ornithine (-) Arginine (-)

209
Q

Serological cross reactions may occur between isolates of Shigella and _____

A

Escherichia coli

210
Q

E. coli that produces heat-labile and heat-stable toxins causing WATERY DIARRHEA

A

ETEC (Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli)

211
Q

E. coli associated with the SHIGA TOXIN causing BLOODY DIARRHEA

A

EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli)

212
Q

COLORLESS colonies on sorbitol MacConkey agar; does not ferment sorbitol

A

0157:H7 Escherichia coli

213
Q

Agent of granuloma inguinale

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

214
Q

What type of assay is employed in TYPHIDOT?

A

ELISA

215
Q

Most sensitive method of laboratory diagnosis of TYPHOID FEVER

A

Bone marrow culture

216
Q

Specimens for Salmonella identification (1st) (2nd) (3rd) week of infection

A

1st: Blood
2nd: Stool
3rd: Urine

217
Q

Test that can be used for the diagnosis of Vibrio cholerae infection

A

String test

218
Q

Stool specimen suspected of containing Vibrio spp. should be collected and transported only in _____ medium

A

Cary-Blair medium

219
Q

01 and 0139 are serogroups of what bacteria?

A

Vibrio cholerae

220
Q

Susceptible to 0/129 disk

A

Vibrio cholera

221
Q

0.5% sodium desoxycholate is a reagent used in

A

String test

222
Q

Any organism that is indole (+) and nitrate reduction (+) is also

A

Cholera red (+)

223
Q

Vibrio has a potential therapeutic resistance against what drug?

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfomethoxazole

224
Q

Bacteria that causes eye infection from contact lens solution

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

225
Q

Agent of “swimmer’s ear”

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

226
Q

Isolated on cystic fibrosis patients

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Burkholderia cepacia

227
Q

Test to differentiate Streptophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia gladioli

A

Lysine decarboxylase test (LDC)

228
Q

Upper respiratory tract flora; non-hemolytic; GROWS ON CAP; requires V FACTOR

A

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

229
Q

Agent of PAINFUL “soft chancre” or chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

230
Q

Agent of PAINLESS “hard chancre”

A

Treponema pallidum

231
Q

S. aureus provides what factor for growth of Haemophilus?

A

V factor

232
Q

SATELLITISM occurs when an organism such as S. aureus, S. pmeumoniae, or Neisseria spp., produces

A

V factor

233
Q

Example of microaerophilic bacteria

A

Campylobacter

234
Q

Bacteria associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

235
Q

Campylobacter requires how much CO2?

A

5-10%

236
Q

Campylobacter, Helicobacter,and Arcobacter are all _____ shaped gram negative bacilli

A

Curved / comma-shaped

237
Q

Curved bacteria with DARTING motility

A

Campylobacter

238
Q

Most common cause of peptic ulcer

A

Helicobacter pylori

239
Q

Best and most accurate method to confirm H. pylori infection

A

Biopsy

240
Q

Organism that produces a positive UREA BREATH test

A

Helicobacter pylori

241
Q

Test to differentiate Campylobacter and Helicobacter

A

Urease test and growth at 42C

242
Q

Legionella associated with BCYE and PONTIAC FEVER

A

Legionella pneumophila

243
Q

Agent of “whooping cough”

A

Bordetella pertussis

244
Q

Specimen of choice for Bordetella pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

245
Q

Test to differentiate Bordetella bronchiseptica and Alcaligenes fecalis

A

Nitrate and Urease
Bordetella (U+N+) Alcaligenes (U-N-)

246
Q

Amino acid (s) required for growth of Francisella tularensis?

A

Cysteine and cystine

247
Q

Microscope used for spirochete detection

A

Darkfield microscope

248
Q

Weil’s disease and jaundice are attributed to

A

Leptospira

249
Q

Definitive test for Leptospirosis

A

Culture

250
Q

Agent of Erythema migrans

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

251
Q

Castañeda blood culture bottle is used to isolate

A

Brucella spp.

252
Q

“Bang’s bacillus” that causes abortion in cattle; CO2 positive; inhibited by thionine

A

Brucella abortus

253
Q

Causes granulomatous disease in animals

A

Actinobacillus

254
Q

Gram negative COFFEE/KIDNEY BEAN shaped diplococci; oxidase (+)

A

Neisseria

255
Q

Neisseria spp. that can cause DIC

A

Neisseria meningitidis

256
Q

“PPNG” stands for

A

Penicillinase-producing gonococci

257
Q

PMNs with Gram (-) cocci from PURULENT DISCHARGE is suggestive of

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

258
Q

Superoxol test is an initial test for

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

259
Q

N. gonorrhoeae is very sensitive to DRYING and TEMPERATURE CHANGES, so it is best to plate cultures _____

A

Immediately

260
Q

Nonpathogenic Neisseria is commonly found in _____ cultures

A

Nasopharyngeal

261
Q

Recommended transport media for Neisseria

A

JEMBEC System

262
Q

Test for presumptive identification of Moraxella catarrhalis isolated from middle-ear fluid

A

Beta-lactamase

263
Q

_____ species can be differentiated by the time of growth, photo reactivity, and biochemical tests

A

Mycobacterium

264
Q

Photoreactivity of Mycobacteria is grouped into 3:

A
  1. Photochromogens
  2. Scotochromogens
  3. Nonchromogens
265
Q

NTM colonies that develop pigment on EXPOSURE TO LIGHT are classified as

A

Photochromogen

266
Q

NTM colonies that develop pigment in the DARK OF LIGHT are classified as

A

Scotochromogen

267
Q

NTM colonies that DO NOT develop pigment in the dark or light are classified as

A

Nonphotochromogen

268
Q

Acceptable specimens for Mycobacteriology culture

A

Respiratory specimens
Body fluids
Body tissues

269
Q

Diagnosis of DSSM (Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy) shall only require submission of how many samples

A

2 samples

270
Q

To sterilize inoculating loops and needles for sputum culture, dip them in __________ before flaming

A

70% alcohol with sand

271
Q

> 25 squamous epithelial cells seen on initial evaluation of sputum. This indicates

A

Sputum mixed with saliva

272
Q

Produces SERPENTINE CORDS on broth cultures

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

273
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is niacin and nitrate reduction _____

A

Positive

274
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Acid-fast rods in a specimen from NASAL MUCOSA are a diagnostic point

A

False; NOT A DIAGNOSTIC POINT

275
Q

M. fortuitum, M. chelonae, M. phlei, M. smegmatis are _____ growers Mycobacteria

A

Rapid

276
Q

Test for rapid growing Mycobacteria

A

Arylsulfatase test

277
Q

Growth inhibition using TCH is used to differentiate M. tuberculosis from

A

Mycobacterium bovis

278
Q

Mycobacterium bovis belongs to _____ Mycobacteria (nontuberculous or tuberculous)

A

Tuberculous

279
Q

Mycobacterium that CANNOT be grown in CELL-FREE culture media

A

Mycobacterium leprae

280
Q

Lepromine test is a _____ test for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Skin test

281
Q

Rickettsias are transmitted by _____

A

Arthropod vectors

282
Q

Vector of Rickettsia prowazekii

A

Louse (squirrel flea / squirrel louse)

283
Q

Rickettsiae not vector-borne associated

A

Coxiella burnetii

284
Q

Best way to prevent Epidemic typhus

A

Bathe regularly; wear clean clothes

285
Q

Gold standard method for detecting Rickettsial antibodies

A

IFA test & Micro-IF
(Immunofluorescence Assay)

286
Q

OX-19 and OX-2 are derived from

A

Proteus vulgaris

287
Q

OX-K is derived from

A

Proteus mirabilis

288
Q

Agent of cat-scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

289
Q

Agent of Oroya fever, Verruga peruana, Carrion’s disease

A

Bartonella bacilliformis

290
Q

Intracellular REPRODUCTIVE FORM of Chlamydia

A

Reticulate body

291
Q

INFECTIOUS FORM of Chlamydia

A

Elementary body

292
Q

How is Chlamydia trachomatis transmitted

A

Sexual contact; childbirth

293
Q

TRIC stands for

A

Trachoma-inclusion conjunctivitis

294
Q

McCoy cells are used to culture

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

295
Q

Transport storage temperature for Chlamydia

A

4C

296
Q

Small bacteria having a size close to viruses

A

Mycoplasma spp

297
Q

Mycoplasmas are not true bacteria because

A

They lack cell wall

298
Q

Agent of primary atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

299
Q

Agent that causes souring of milk

A

Lactobacillus spp.
Streptococcus lactis

300
Q

Agent of yellow milk

A

Flavobacterium
Pseudomonas synxantha

301
Q

Agent of blue milk

A

Pseudomonas syncyanea

302
Q

Agent of blue-green milk

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

303
Q

Agent of red milk

A

Serratia marcescens

304
Q

Agent of stormy fermentation of milk

A

Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium butyricum

305
Q

Agent of ropy or slimy milk

A

Alcaligenis viscosus

306
Q

Test to determine the completeness of milk pasteurization

A

Phosphatase test

307
Q

Results in milk bacteriology are reported as

A

Total plate count

308
Q

It uses four primers and a constant temperature coupled to a strand displacement reaction

A

Loop mediated isothermal amplification

309
Q

It uses LASER EXCITATION to ionize chemical functional groups in the proteins of an organism

A

MALDI-TOF

310
Q

MALDI-TOF MS means

A

Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization Time of Flight Mass Spectometry

311
Q

Instrument maintenance records should be retained in the laboratory for how long?

A

For the life of the instrument

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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