Blood Banking Flashcards
1
Q
The FIRST three numbers in ISBT nomenclature represents
A
Blood group system
2
Q
The SECOND three numbers in ISBT nomenclature represents
A
Antigenic specificity
3
Q
Chromosomal number of ABO gene
A
9q
4
Q
HLA-related blood group antigen
A
Bennett-Goodspeed (Bg)
5
Q
Bg (a), Bg (b), Bg (c)
A
Bg (a) = HLA-B7
Bg (b) = HLA-B17
Bg (c) = HLA-A28
6
Q
Recessive genes are able to express themselves only when they are in
A
Homozygous form
7
Q
Blood group antigens may be found in
A
RBCs
Body fluids
Secretions
Epithelial cells
8
Q
First blood transfusion recipient
A
Pope Innocent VII
9
Q
Universal blood donor
A
O-
10
Q
Universal blood recipient
A
AB+
11
Q
HIGH incidence antigens are called
A
Public antigen
12
Q
LOW incidence antigens are called
A
Private antigen
13
Q
Blood group antibody associated with severe HTR
A
ABO antibodies
14
Q
Blood group antibody associated with severe HDN
A
Rh antibodies
15
Q
Blood group antibody that is common cause of delayed HTR
A
Kidd (Jk) antibodies
16
Q
Nature of ABO antibodies
A
IgG, IgM, IgA
17
Q
Predominant immunoglobulin class of ABO antibodies
A
IgM
18
Q
Frequency of ABO blood group system (most to least frequent)
A
O > A > B > AB
19
Q
Antigen (s) found in Group A1 individuals
A
A1 and A
20
Q
Antigen (s) found in Group A2 individuals
A
A only
21
Q
Dolichos biflorus will agglutinate on what cell (s)
A
A1 and A1B cells
22
Q
Bandeiraea simplicifolia will agglutinate on what cell
A
B cells
23
Q
Ulex europaeus will react on what antigen
A
H antigen
24
Q
A and B genes are present, Both A and B antigens are expressed on RBC. What principle
A
Law of codominance
25
Amorph gene
O gene
26
The gene is called an amorph because
No detectable antigen on RBCs
27
Possible blood type on an offspring of an AO and BO mating
A, B, AB, and O
28
Immunodominant sugar in the chain of A blood group antigen
N-acteyl-D-galactosamine
29
Immunodominant sugar in the chain of B blood group antigen
D-galactose
30
Immunodominant sugar in the chain of H blood group antigen
L-fucose
31
The H antigen is present on RBCs of what blood type
A, B, AB and O
32
Number of H antigen structures currently identified
4 (H1-H4)
33
Amount of H substance from greatest to least
O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B
34
Cells of approximately 80% of all group A individual are _____ and 20% are _____ or weaker subgroups
80% = A1
20% = A2
35
Homozygous genes (hh) cause the development of
Bombay phenotype
36
No agglutination with anti-A, anti-B, anti-H and autocontrol. What phenotype
Bombay phenotype
37
Antibodies possessed by a Bombay phenotype individual
Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-H
38
Even without prior transfusion or pregnancy, Bombay individuals will always have
Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-H antibodies
39
Blood group of an individual with acquired B phenomenon
Group A
40
Bacteria linked to acquired A phenomenon
Proteus mirabilis
41
Bacteria linked to acquired B phenomenon
Proteus vulgaris
42
Most complex blood group system in humans today
Rh
43
Rh phenotype frequent in Asians and Whites
R1 (DCe)
44
Rh phenotype frequent in Blacks
R0 (Dce)
45
Convert RZ to Fisher-Race nomenclature
DCE
46
Blood factors present in Rh0 individuals
Rh0, h', h"
47
What antibody(ies) could and R1R1 make if exposed to R0R0 blood
Anti-c
48
What does "d" mean in the Fisher-Race nomenclature
Absence of D antigen
49
Rh phenotype with the HIGHEST number of D antigen sites
D--
50
Beta 1 to 3 linkage of the terminal galactose to N-acetylglucosamine of the precursor
Precursor type 1 chain
51
Beta 1 to 4 linkage of the terminal galactose to N-acetylglucosamine of the precursor
Precursor type 2 chain
52
Genes that affect the expression of the Le (b) in secretions
Le and Se genes
53
Effect of Lewis antibodies of a pregnant woman to the developing baby
No effect (Lewis antibodies are IgM)
54
Lewis phenotype in newborns <10 days old
Le (a-b-)
55
k (Cellano) is a high frequency antigen and is found on most RBCs. How often would one find anti-K
Rarely
56
What can be done if HDN is caused by maternal anti-K
Monitor the mother's antibody level
57
What procedure would help to distinguish between anti-e and anti-Fy (a) in an antibody mixture
Run an enzyme panel
58
Null phenotype common in Filipinos, Indonesians, Japanese, and Polynesians
Jk (a-b-)
59
This antibody is found in black people who possess the S-s-U- phenotype
Anti-U
60
Antibody that gives a refractile mixed-field agglutination reaction
Anti-Sd (a)
61
Blood collected from an individual transfused into ANOTHER individual is called
Allogenic blood
62
Blood collection from the donor should be done within
15 minutes (7-10 minutes)
63
For preparing platelet components, blood collection should be completed within
12 minutes
64
Units requiring >15 minutes to draw may not be suitable for preparation of
Platelets
FFP
Cryoprecipitate
65
Cause of JET-LIKE PULSATING with bright red blood during donation
Arterial puncture
66
Who can bleed blood donors
RMT, MD, RN
67
53 y.o. woman donates blood; 150 lbs; hgb is 13 g/dL; on warfarin and vitamin B12. Accepted?
Yes, for red cells only
68
Woman has a miscarriage in her 4th month of pregnancy. What is the deferral period
None
69
Blood and blood products are considered _____ because of their use in treating diseases
Drugs
70
Blood to anticoagulant ratio in blood bags
7:1
71
If a blood volume collected from a donor is in the low volume range, what will you do
Label unit as a "low volume unit"
72
How much anticoagulant is removed from blood bag given a donor who weighs 90lbs
12 mL
73
If CPDA-1 is used, ___ mL of plasma can be removed from whole blood
200-250 mL
74
If freezing centrifuge is broken, how are packed red cells prepared
Sedimentation
75
Why does platelet concentrate need constant agitation
To facilitate oxygen transfer
76
Shelf-life of POOLED platelet concentrate
4 hours
77
How to prepare platelet concentrate from whole blood donation (RDP)
Light spin then heavy spin
78
HARD spin speed and duration for platelet concentrate preparation
3600 RPM, 5 mins
79
LIGHT spin speed and duration for platelet concentrate preparation
3200 RPM, 2-3 mins
80
Single donor platelets contain a therapeutic equivalent of _____ random donor platelets
4-6
81
Minimum number of platelets in a SINGLE donor platelet concentrate
3.0 x 10^11
82
Minimum number of platelets in a RANDOM donor platelet concentrate
5.5 x 10^10
83
Minimum pH requirement for platelet concentrate
6.2
84
Storage and viability of thawed FFP
1-6C for 24 hours
85
Plastic bag overwraps are used when thawing FFP in water baths because they prevent
Entry ports from water contamination
86
Blood component that helps reduce CMV transmission
Leukoreduced RBCs (CMV infects WBCs)
87
Radioactive source used to irradiate blood components
Celsium-137, Cobalt-60, X-ray
88
1 unit of whole blood increases HEMATOCRIT by
3-5%
89
1 unit of whole blood increases HEMOGLOBIN by
1-1.5 g/dL
90
The citrate in the ACD functions as
Anticoagulant
91
Prevents caramelization of dextrose when heated
Citric acid
92
Function of phosphate in CPD
Maintains pH and 2,3-DPG
93
Anticoagulant component that serves as substrate for ATP production (energy)
Dextrose / glucose
94
Function of adenine in the CPDA1
Improve survival of RBCs
95
% RBC retained after leukoreduction of a unit
85%
96
Process to restore depleted metabolites and improve function of RBCs
Rejuvenation
97
The only allowed (FDA approved) rejuvenation solution
Rejuvesol
98
Rejuvesol contains
Phosphate
Inosine
Pyruvate
Adenine
99
A plasma expander and a sedimenting agent in leukapheresis
HES (hydroxyethylstarch)
100
Position of blood bags when stored inside the refrigerator
Upright/vertical
101
Temperature of blood bank refrigerators
1-6 C
102
Temperature for transporting blood components
1-10 C
103
Shelf-life of blood bag stored in an ICE BOX during mass blood donation
8 hours
104
Shelf-life of blood bag stored in a HOUSEHOLD REF during mass blood donation
24 hours
105
% glycerol used in SLOW freezing of RBCs
40% (high glycerol)
106
% glycerol used in FAST freezing of RBCs
20% (low glycerol)
107
It contains albumin, factors II, V, VII, IX, X, XI and ADAMTS13
Cryo-poor plasma (cryosupernatant)
108
Concentrate that contains factors II, VII, IX, X
Prothrombin complex (Factor IX) concentrate
109
Cryoprecipitate + thrombin =
Fibrin glue
110
Blood component for individuals with Rosenthal syndrome
FFP
111
Transfusion of 1 unit of blood must be completed within ___ hours of transfusion
4 hours
112
Needle gauge for blood transfusion (AABB)
18 (24 or 25 for newborns)
113
Blood given in an emergency situation (no time to type for recipient's sample)
Group O, Rh-negative pRBCs
114
Patient for blood transfusion. 6 units ordered STAT. No time to draw patient specimen. O- blood is released. When to do crossmatch?
When patient sample is available
115
Blood given for intrauterine and neonatal transfusions
Group O Rh-negative RBCs
116
While ABO-compatible units are preferred, it is okay to use ABO-compatible units with
Cryoprecipitate
117
Fetal specimen used to confirm HDFN
Cord blood
118
Test to determine if there is fetal blood in maternal circulation
Kielhauer-Betke test
119
Appearance of RBCs containing ADULT hemoglobin in the Kleihauer-Betke test
Pale pink (ghosts)
120
Appearance of RBCs containing FETAL hemoglobin in the Kleihauer-Betke test
Deep red
121
The final clerical check before blood transfusion is done by
Nurse (DOH) and/or attending physician
122
Transfusions of NEOCYTES is indicated for chronically transfusion-dependent patients such as in
Thalassemia
123
Neocytes have a _____ post-transfusion survival time
Longer
124
EXCHANGE TRANSFUSIONS are used to primarily to remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and thus prevent
Kernicterus
125
It involves removal of part of the circulating maternal antibody and removal of sensitized RBCs
Exchange transfusion
126
Blood for exchange transfusion be _____ old, CMV-_____ and should not contain _____
<7 days old
CMV-negative
No hemoglobin S
127
Blood units <7 days old are preferred to reduce risk of _____ and to maximize 2,3-DPG levels in newborns
Hyperkalemia
128
If the temperature of off-site storage cannot be documented, blood should not be away from the blood bank for __________
More than 30 minutes
129
Both donors and recipient samples must be stored for a minimum of _____ following transfusion
7 days
130
Automated method that uses microwells
Solid-phase
131
Reagent used for WASHING red cells for preparing an RBC suspension
NSS
132
Type of serology testing a BB technologist perform when determining blood group of a patient
Phenotyping
133
How to determine fetal blood type
Obtain cord blood
134
Removal of baby's blood from the umbilical cord for testing
Cordocentesis / PUBS
135
What are perfluorocarbons (PFC)
Blood substitute (artificial O2 carriers)
136
To remove Wharton's jelly, cord cells should be washed
6-8x
137
Components of MAJOR crossmatch
Donor cell, patient serum
138
Components of MINOR crossmatch
Donor serum, patient cell
139
Replaces minor crossmatch
Antibody screen
140
SERUM to RED CELLS ratio (in drops) used in tube crossmatching
2:1
141
10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. What would occur
False-negative due to antigen excess
142
Antiglobulin crossmatch temperature
37C
143
Technique necessary for weak D testing
37C incubation + IAT
144
When may immediate spin (IS) crossmatching be performed?
If no history of antibody and antibody screen is negative
145
Major crossmatch and screen cells are 2+ at IS phase, 1+ at 37C and (-) at IAT phase. Cause?
Cold alloantibody
146
Antibody screen is (+) at IAT phase using a three-cell screen and autocontrol is negative. Cause?
High-frequency alloantibody or mixture of alloantibodies
147
6 units are crossmatched. 5 compatible, 1 incompatible. Patient's antibody screen is negative. Cause
Donor unit may have a positive DAT
148
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as automated control are (+)
Wash cells with warm NSS, adsorb serum
149
Purpose of autocontrol in blood banking
To detect the presence of autoantibodies
150
What is the disposition of a donor red blood cell unit that contains an antibody
Label that it has antibody and release to inventory
151
Purpose of water bath in the blood bank laboratory
Incubation of serum and RBCs
152
The most important initial test for a kidney transplant donor
ABO typing
153
(+) DAT is seen in
HDN, HTR, AIHA, DIHA
154
Specimen used in DAT
EDTA / citrated whole blood
155
Plasma is not the specimen of choice for blood banking because
Anticoagulant interferes with complement
156
Incubation temperature for indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
37C
157
Enhances agglutination by cross-linking sensitized cells
AHG reagent
158
Polyspecific AHG contains
Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
159
Most common monospecific AHG reagent
Anti-IgG
160
Action of protein media, LISS, proteolytic enzymes
Reduce the zeta potential
161
Cause of POSITIVE autocontrol in serologic testing
Autoantibodies/abnormal protein
162
Methyldopa can cause positive DAT by what mechanism
Autoantibody formation
163
Most common initial manifestation during hemolytic transfusion reactions
Fever
164
The only presenting sign of delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is
Unexplained drop ini HGB or HCT
165
1st thing to do in cases of transfusion reactions
STOP the transfusion
166
Cut-off point for BNP in TACO
1.5
167
Most common transfusion transmitted infection
Hepatitis
168
Most common transfusion-related sepsis is transfusion of
Platelet concentrate
169
This organism is destroyed under prolonged cold temperature storage
Treponema pallidum
170
Donor blood is reactive for RPR. What to do next
Do a confirmatory testing
171
What to do when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen
Do antibody identification panel; titer if needed
172
Common treatment for HDN
Phototherapy
173
The first discovered human retrovirus
HTLV-1
174
Blood bank SOPs should be reviewed every
1 year
175
BB utilization management team includes
BB medical director
BB supervisor
Nurse
Clinical staff
IT associate
176
LIS password for laboratory personnel should be
Strictly confidential
