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Hubble Notes > Blood Banking > Flashcards

Blood Banking Flashcards

1
Q

The FIRST three numbers in ISBT nomenclature represents

A

Blood group system

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2
Q

The SECOND three numbers in ISBT nomenclature represents

A

Antigenic specificity

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3
Q

Chromosomal number of ABO gene

A

9q

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4
Q

HLA-related blood group antigen

A

Bennett-Goodspeed (Bg)

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5
Q

Bg (a), Bg (b), Bg (c)

A

Bg (a) = HLA-B7
Bg (b) = HLA-B17
Bg (c) = HLA-A28

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6
Q

Recessive genes are able to express themselves only when they are in

A

Homozygous form

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7
Q

Blood group antigens may be found in

A

RBCs
Body fluids
Secretions
Epithelial cells

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8
Q

First blood transfusion recipient

A

Pope Innocent VII

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9
Q

Universal blood donor

A

O-

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10
Q

Universal blood recipient

A

AB+

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11
Q

HIGH incidence antigens are called

A

Public antigen

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12
Q

LOW incidence antigens are called

A

Private antigen

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13
Q

Blood group antibody associated with severe HTR

A

ABO antibodies

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14
Q

Blood group antibody associated with severe HDN

A

Rh antibodies

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15
Q

Blood group antibody that is common cause of delayed HTR

A

Kidd (Jk) antibodies

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16
Q

Nature of ABO antibodies

A

IgG, IgM, IgA

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17
Q

Predominant immunoglobulin class of ABO antibodies

A

IgM

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18
Q

Frequency of ABO blood group system (most to least frequent)

A

O > A > B > AB

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19
Q

Antigen (s) found in Group A1 individuals

A

A1 and A

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20
Q

Antigen (s) found in Group A2 individuals

A

A only

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21
Q

Dolichos biflorus will agglutinate on what cell (s)

A

A1 and A1B cells

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22
Q

Bandeiraea simplicifolia will agglutinate on what cell

A

B cells

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23
Q

Ulex europaeus will react on what antigen

A

H antigen

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24
Q

A and B genes are present, Both A and B antigens are expressed on RBC. What principle

A

Law of codominance

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25
Q

Amorph gene

A

O gene

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26
Q

The gene is called an amorph because

A

No detectable antigen on RBCs

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27
Q

Possible blood type on an offspring of an AO and BO mating

A

A, B, AB, and O

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28
Q

Immunodominant sugar in the chain of A blood group antigen

A

N-acteyl-D-galactosamine

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29
Q

Immunodominant sugar in the chain of B blood group antigen

A

D-galactose

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30
Q

Immunodominant sugar in the chain of H blood group antigen

A

L-fucose

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31
Q

The H antigen is present on RBCs of what blood type

A

A, B, AB and O

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32
Q

Number of H antigen structures currently identified

A

4 (H1-H4)

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33
Q

Amount of H substance from greatest to least

A

O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

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34
Q

Cells of approximately 80% of all group A individual are _____ and 20% are _____ or weaker subgroups

A

80% = A1
20% = A2

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35
Q

Homozygous genes (hh) cause the development of

A

Bombay phenotype

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36
Q

No agglutination with anti-A, anti-B, anti-H and autocontrol. What phenotype

A

Bombay phenotype

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37
Q

Antibodies possessed by a Bombay phenotype individual

A

Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-H

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38
Q

Even without prior transfusion or pregnancy, Bombay individuals will always have

A

Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-H antibodies

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39
Q

Blood group of an individual with acquired B phenomenon

A

Group A

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40
Q

Bacteria linked to acquired A phenomenon

A

Proteus mirabilis

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41
Q

Bacteria linked to acquired B phenomenon

A

Proteus vulgaris

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42
Q

Most complex blood group system in humans today

A

Rh

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43
Q

Rh phenotype frequent in Asians and Whites

A

R1 (DCe)

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44
Q

Rh phenotype frequent in Blacks

A

R0 (Dce)

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45
Q

Convert RZ to Fisher-Race nomenclature

A

DCE

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46
Q

Blood factors present in Rh0 individuals

A

Rh0, h’, h”

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47
Q

What antibody(ies) could and R1R1 make if exposed to R0R0 blood

A

Anti-c

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48
Q

What does “d” mean in the Fisher-Race nomenclature

A

Absence of D antigen

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49
Q

Rh phenotype with the HIGHEST number of D antigen sites

A

D–

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50
Q

Beta 1 to 3 linkage of the terminal galactose to N-acetylglucosamine of the precursor

A

Precursor type 1 chain

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51
Q

Beta 1 to 4 linkage of the terminal galactose to N-acetylglucosamine of the precursor

A

Precursor type 2 chain

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52
Q

Genes that affect the expression of the Le (b) in secretions

A

Le and Se genes

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53
Q

Effect of Lewis antibodies of a pregnant woman to the developing baby

A

No effect (Lewis antibodies are IgM)

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54
Q

Lewis phenotype in newborns <10 days old

A

Le (a-b-)

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55
Q

k (Cellano) is a high frequency antigen and is found on most RBCs. How often would one find anti-K

A

Rarely

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56
Q

What can be done if HDN is caused by maternal anti-K

A

Monitor the mother’s antibody level

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57
Q

What procedure would help to distinguish between anti-e and anti-Fy (a) in an antibody mixture

A

Run an enzyme panel

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58
Q

Null phenotype common in Filipinos, Indonesians, Japanese, and Polynesians

A

Jk (a-b-)

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59
Q

This antibody is found in black people who possess the S-s-U- phenotype

A

Anti-U

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60
Q

Antibody that gives a refractile mixed-field agglutination reaction

A

Anti-Sd (a)

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61
Q

Blood collected from an individual transfused into ANOTHER individual is called

A

Allogenic blood

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62
Q

Blood collection from the donor should be done within

A

15 minutes (7-10 minutes)

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63
Q

For preparing platelet components, blood collection should be completed within

A

12 minutes

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64
Q

Units requiring >15 minutes to draw may not be suitable for preparation of

A

Platelets
FFP
Cryoprecipitate

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65
Q

Cause of JET-LIKE PULSATING with bright red blood during donation

A

Arterial puncture

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66
Q

Who can bleed blood donors

A

RMT, MD, RN

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67
Q

53 y.o. woman donates blood; 150 lbs; hgb is 13 g/dL; on warfarin and vitamin B12. Accepted?

A

Yes, for red cells only

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68
Q

Woman has a miscarriage in her 4th month of pregnancy. What is the deferral period

A

None

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69
Q

Blood and blood products are considered _____ because of their use in treating diseases

A

Drugs

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70
Q

Blood to anticoagulant ratio in blood bags

A

7:1

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71
Q

If a blood volume collected from a donor is in the low volume range, what will you do

A

Label unit as a “low volume unit”

72
Q

How much anticoagulant is removed from blood bag given a donor who weighs 90lbs

A

12 mL

73
Q

If CPDA-1 is used, ___ mL of plasma can be removed from whole blood

A

200-250 mL

74
Q

If freezing centrifuge is broken, how are packed red cells prepared

A

Sedimentation

75
Q

Why does platelet concentrate need constant agitation

A

To facilitate oxygen transfer

76
Q

Shelf-life of POOLED platelet concentrate

A

4 hours

77
Q

How to prepare platelet concentrate from whole blood donation (RDP)

A

Light spin then heavy spin

78
Q

HARD spin speed and duration for platelet concentrate preparation

A

3600 RPM, 5 mins

79
Q

LIGHT spin speed and duration for platelet concentrate preparation

A

3200 RPM, 2-3 mins

80
Q

Single donor platelets contain a therapeutic equivalent of _____ random donor platelets

A

4-6

81
Q

Minimum number of platelets in a SINGLE donor platelet concentrate

A

3.0 x 10^11

82
Q

Minimum number of platelets in a RANDOM donor platelet concentrate

A

5.5 x 10^10

83
Q

Minimum pH requirement for platelet concentrate

A

6.2

84
Q

Storage and viability of thawed FFP

A

1-6C for 24 hours

85
Q

Plastic bag overwraps are used when thawing FFP in water baths because they prevent

A

Entry ports from water contamination

86
Q

Blood component that helps reduce CMV transmission

A

Leukoreduced RBCs (CMV infects WBCs)

87
Q

Radioactive source used to irradiate blood components

A

Celsium-137, Cobalt-60, X-ray

88
Q

1 unit of whole blood increases HEMATOCRIT by

A

3-5%

89
Q

1 unit of whole blood increases HEMOGLOBIN by

A

1-1.5 g/dL

90
Q

The citrate in the ACD functions as

A

Anticoagulant

91
Q

Prevents caramelization of dextrose when heated

A

Citric acid

92
Q

Function of phosphate in CPD

A

Maintains pH and 2,3-DPG

93
Q

Anticoagulant component that serves as substrate for ATP production (energy)

A

Dextrose / glucose

94
Q

Function of adenine in the CPDA1

A

Improve survival of RBCs

95
Q

% RBC retained after leukoreduction of a unit

A

85%

96
Q

Process to restore depleted metabolites and improve function of RBCs

A

Rejuvenation

97
Q

The only allowed (FDA approved) rejuvenation solution

A

Rejuvesol

98
Q

Rejuvesol contains

A

Phosphate
Inosine
Pyruvate
Adenine

99
Q

A plasma expander and a sedimenting agent in leukapheresis

A

HES (hydroxyethylstarch)

100
Q

Position of blood bags when stored inside the refrigerator

A

Upright/vertical

101
Q

Temperature of blood bank refrigerators

A

1-6 C

102
Q

Temperature for transporting blood components

A

1-10 C

103
Q

Shelf-life of blood bag stored in an ICE BOX during mass blood donation

A

8 hours

104
Q

Shelf-life of blood bag stored in a HOUSEHOLD REF during mass blood donation

A

24 hours

105
Q

% glycerol used in SLOW freezing of RBCs

A

40% (high glycerol)

106
Q

% glycerol used in FAST freezing of RBCs

A

20% (low glycerol)

107
Q

It contains albumin, factors II, V, VII, IX, X, XI and ADAMTS13

A

Cryo-poor plasma (cryosupernatant)

108
Q

Concentrate that contains factors II, VII, IX, X

A

Prothrombin complex (Factor IX) concentrate

109
Q

Cryoprecipitate + thrombin =

A

Fibrin glue

110
Q

Blood component for individuals with Rosenthal syndrome

A

FFP

111
Q

Transfusion of 1 unit of blood must be completed within ___ hours of transfusion

A

4 hours

112
Q

Needle gauge for blood transfusion (AABB)

A

18 (24 or 25 for newborns)

113
Q

Blood given in an emergency situation (no time to type for recipient’s sample)

A

Group O, Rh-negative pRBCs

114
Q

Patient for blood transfusion. 6 units ordered STAT. No time to draw patient specimen. O- blood is released. When to do crossmatch?

A

When patient sample is available

115
Q

Blood given for intrauterine and neonatal transfusions

A

Group O Rh-negative RBCs

116
Q

While ABO-compatible units are preferred, it is okay to use ABO-compatible units with

A

Cryoprecipitate

117
Q

Fetal specimen used to confirm HDFN

A

Cord blood

118
Q

Test to determine if there is fetal blood in maternal circulation

A

Kielhauer-Betke test

119
Q

Appearance of RBCs containing ADULT hemoglobin in the Kleihauer-Betke test

A

Pale pink (ghosts)

120
Q

Appearance of RBCs containing FETAL hemoglobin in the Kleihauer-Betke test

A

Deep red

121
Q

The final clerical check before blood transfusion is done by

A

Nurse (DOH) and/or attending physician

122
Q

Transfusions of NEOCYTES is indicated for chronically transfusion-dependent patients such as in

A

Thalassemia

123
Q

Neocytes have a _____ post-transfusion survival time

A

Longer

124
Q

EXCHANGE TRANSFUSIONS are used to primarily to remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and thus prevent

A

Kernicterus

125
Q

It involves removal of part of the circulating maternal antibody and removal of sensitized RBCs

A

Exchange transfusion

126
Q

Blood for exchange transfusion be _____ old, CMV-_____ and should not contain _____

A

<7 days old
CMV-negative
No hemoglobin S

127
Q

Blood units <7 days old are preferred to reduce risk of _____ and to maximize 2,3-DPG levels in newborns

A

Hyperkalemia

128
Q

If the temperature of off-site storage cannot be documented, blood should not be away from the blood bank for __________

A

More than 30 minutes

129
Q

Both donors and recipient samples must be stored for a minimum of _____ following transfusion

A

7 days

130
Q

Automated method that uses microwells

A

Solid-phase

131
Q

Reagent used for WASHING red cells for preparing an RBC suspension

A

NSS

132
Q

Type of serology testing a BB technologist perform when determining blood group of a patient

A

Phenotyping

133
Q

How to determine fetal blood type

A

Obtain cord blood

134
Q

Removal of baby’s blood from the umbilical cord for testing

A

Cordocentesis / PUBS

135
Q

What are perfluorocarbons (PFC)

A

Blood substitute (artificial O2 carriers)

136
Q

To remove Wharton’s jelly, cord cells should be washed

A

6-8x

137
Q

Components of MAJOR crossmatch

A

Donor cell, patient serum

138
Q

Components of MINOR crossmatch

A

Donor serum, patient cell

139
Q

Replaces minor crossmatch

A

Antibody screen

140
Q

SERUM to RED CELLS ratio (in drops) used in tube crossmatching

A

2:1

141
Q

10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. What would occur

A

False-negative due to antigen excess

142
Q

Antiglobulin crossmatch temperature

A

37C

143
Q

Technique necessary for weak D testing

A

37C incubation + IAT

144
Q

When may immediate spin (IS) crossmatching be performed?

A

If no history of antibody and antibody screen is negative

145
Q

Major crossmatch and screen cells are 2+ at IS phase, 1+ at 37C and (-) at IAT phase. Cause?

A

Cold alloantibody

146
Q

Antibody screen is (+) at IAT phase using a three-cell screen and autocontrol is negative. Cause?

A

High-frequency alloantibody or mixture of alloantibodies

147
Q

6 units are crossmatched. 5 compatible, 1 incompatible. Patient’s antibody screen is negative. Cause

A

Donor unit may have a positive DAT

148
Q

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as automated control are (+)

A

Wash cells with warm NSS, adsorb serum

149
Q

Purpose of autocontrol in blood banking

A

To detect the presence of autoantibodies

150
Q

What is the disposition of a donor red blood cell unit that contains an antibody

A

Label that it has antibody and release to inventory

151
Q

Purpose of water bath in the blood bank laboratory

A

Incubation of serum and RBCs

152
Q

The most important initial test for a kidney transplant donor

A

ABO typing

153
Q

(+) DAT is seen in

A

HDN, HTR, AIHA, DIHA

154
Q

Specimen used in DAT

A

EDTA / citrated whole blood

155
Q

Plasma is not the specimen of choice for blood banking because

A

Anticoagulant interferes with complement

156
Q

Incubation temperature for indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)

A

37C

157
Q

Enhances agglutination by cross-linking sensitized cells

A

AHG reagent

158
Q

Polyspecific AHG contains

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

159
Q

Most common monospecific AHG reagent

A

Anti-IgG

160
Q

Action of protein media, LISS, proteolytic enzymes

A

Reduce the zeta potential

161
Q

Cause of POSITIVE autocontrol in serologic testing

A

Autoantibodies/abnormal protein

162
Q

Methyldopa can cause positive DAT by what mechanism

A

Autoantibody formation

163
Q

Most common initial manifestation during hemolytic transfusion reactions

A

Fever

164
Q

The only presenting sign of delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is

A

Unexplained drop ini HGB or HCT

165
Q

1st thing to do in cases of transfusion reactions

A

STOP the transfusion

166
Q

Cut-off point for BNP in TACO

A

1.5

167
Q

Most common transfusion transmitted infection

A

Hepatitis

168
Q

Most common transfusion-related sepsis is transfusion of

A

Platelet concentrate

169
Q

This organism is destroyed under prolonged cold temperature storage

A

Treponema pallidum

170
Q

Donor blood is reactive for RPR. What to do next

A

Do a confirmatory testing

171
Q

What to do when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen

A

Do antibody identification panel; titer if needed

172
Q

Common treatment for HDN

A

Phototherapy

173
Q

The first discovered human retrovirus

A

HTLV-1

174
Q

Blood bank SOPs should be reviewed every

A

1 year

175
Q

BB utilization management team includes

A

BB medical director
BB supervisor
Nurse
Clinical staff
IT associate

176
Q

LIS password for laboratory personnel should be

A

Strictly confidential

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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