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Serology Flashcards

1
Q

The BOND between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site

A

Affinity

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2
Q

The TOTAL STRENGTH with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen

A

Avidity

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3
Q

Type of bond involved in an antigen-antibody reaction

A

Noncovalent

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4
Q

ANTIBODY excess; causes false-negative reaction

A

Prozone phenomenon

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5
Q

ANTIGEN excess; causes false-negative reaction

A

Postzone phenomenon

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6
Q

Remedy for prozone phenomenon

A

Serum dilution

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7
Q

Remedy for postzone phenomenon

A

Repeat test after a week

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8
Q

Maximum precipitation occurs

A

Zone of equivalence

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9
Q

Ideal pH for agglutination reaction

A

6.5-7.5

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10
Q

Type of immunodiffusion in Radial immunodiffusion

A

Single diffusion in 2-dimensions

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11
Q

Type of immunodiffusion in Ouchterlony method

A

Double diffusion in 2-dimensions

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12
Q

Special type of precipitation involving FINE PARTICLES

A

Flocculation

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13
Q

Technique that produces an image of the chromosomes and identifies their abnormalities

A

Karyotype

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14
Q

PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are examples of

A

Molecular assay

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15
Q

PCR, Ligase chain reaction and branch-chain amplification are

A

Amplification methods

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16
Q

Test that facilitates in vitro DNA synthesis

A

PCR

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17
Q

Template for PCR

A

dsDNA

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18
Q

Other name for Scintillation counter

A

Gamma counter

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19
Q

Scintillation counter measures radioactivity by using labels known as

A

Isotopes

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20
Q

Blocking test where Ag is 1st exposed to unlabeled Ab, then to labeled Ab

A

Inhibition immunofluorescent test

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21
Q

Extremely sensitive screening test for ANTI-NUCLEAR ANTIBODIES

A

FANA

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22
Q

Color of fluorescein

A

Green

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23
Q

In fluorescence polarization, the degree of polarization is _____ proportional to the concentration of analyte

A

Inversely

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24
Q

CHANCRES are associated with what stage of syphilis

A

Primary syphilis

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25
GUMMAS are associated with what stage of syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
26
What serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis
Determined 1-3 weeks after appearance of chancre
27
Test developed by the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
VDRL test
28
A reactive qualitative VDRL test should be followed by performing
Quantitative VDRL
29
Nontreponemal (nonspecific) tests for syphilis
RPR (rapid plasma reagin) VDRL
30
What do nontreponemal tests for syphilis detect
Reagin (antibody to cardiolipin)
31
Strain that removes cross reactivity with other treponemes
Reiter stain
32
Positive color in the FTA-ABS test using Nichol's stain
Green
33
Test that uses RBCs coated with treponemal antigen to detect treponemal antibodies
MHA-TP
34
Specimen for detecting LATENTsyphilis
Serum
35
Specimen for detecting TERTIARY syphilis
CSF
36
Anti-DNAse B is a blood test used to detect antibodies to a substance produced by
Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)
37
ASO titer is traditionally reported in what unit
Todd unit
38
Gold standard serologic test for diagnosis of LEPTOSPIROSIS
Microscopic agglutination test
39
Test for dengue that allows rapid detection on the first day of fever
NS1 antigen
40
Confirmatory test for Lyme Disease (if ELISA+)
Western Blot
41
Most common fungal infection for AIDS patient
C. neoformans
42
Standard SCREENING test for HIV/AIDS
ELISA/EIA
43
Standard CONFIRMATORY test for HIV/AIDS
Western Blot
44
The new HIV confirmatory test in the Philippines
rHIVda
45
Interpret results for HIV infection: ELISA (+); repeat ELISA (-); Western blot: no bands
Negative for HIV
46
Method used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV positive mothers
PCR
47
CD4:CD8 ratio in AIDS
1:2 (or 1:3)
48
HPO stands for
Horseradish peroxidase
49
In COMPETITIVE binding assays, the concentration of the patient analyte is _____ proportional to bound radioactive label
Inversely
50
In NONCOMPETITIVE enzyme immunoassays, if a negative control shows the presence of COLOR, it means washing steps are _____
Incomplete
51
How do heterogenous assays differ from homogenous assays
Heterogenous assays require a separation step
52
Blotting technique for detection of DNA
Southern blot
53
Blotting technique for detection of RNA
Northern blot
54
Blotting technique for detection of PROTEINS
Western blot
55
Proteins separated in the Western blot test are blotted on
Nitrocellulose paper
56
Western blot bands that confirm (+) HIV infection (at least 2/3 bands)
p24, gp41, gp120/160
57
1st antibody detected in HIV infection
Anti-gp41 (new) Anti-p24 (old)
58
Last stage of HIV infection
Full blown AIDS
59
Hepatitis B marker that indicates high degree of INFECTIVITY
HBeAg
60
NOT a serologic marker in Hepatitis virus infection
HBcAg
61
Major cause of post-transfusion hepatitis
Hepatitis C virus
62
Surrogate test for HCV that is no longer required
ALT
63
Disinfectant that inactivates hepatitis A virus
Household bleach
64
Other name for HCV RNA
Viral load
65
Test to detect acute HDV infection
IgM anti-HDV
66
Primary antibody type found in H. pylori infection
IgG
67
What does TORCH acronym denote
Congenital infections
68
The "T" in the TORCH acronym stands for
Toxoplasmosis
69
The "C" in the TORCH acronym stand for
Cytomegalovirus
70
Blood products are tested for what virus before being transfused to newborns
CMV
71
The most common congenital infection is
CMV
72
EBV causes latent infection in what cell
B cell
73
Method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in the CSF
PCR
74
Currently, nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) is performed to detect what virus
HIV-1 HCV WNV
75
Most common cause of death in SLE patients
Renal failure
76
Rose-Waaler and latex agglutination tests are used to detect
Rheumatoid factor (RF)
77
In the RF slide agglutination test, what is bound to sheep RBCs
IgG
78
Screening test for heterophile antibodies
Paul-Bunnell

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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