Serology Flashcards
The BOND between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site
Affinity
The TOTAL STRENGTH with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen
Avidity
Type of bond involved in an antigen-antibody reaction
Noncovalent
ANTIBODY excess; causes false-negative reaction
Prozone phenomenon
ANTIGEN excess; causes false-negative reaction
Postzone phenomenon
Remedy for prozone phenomenon
Serum dilution
Remedy for postzone phenomenon
Repeat test after a week
Maximum precipitation occurs
Zone of equivalence
Ideal pH for agglutination reaction
6.5-7.5
Type of immunodiffusion in Radial immunodiffusion
Single diffusion in 2-dimensions
Type of immunodiffusion in Ouchterlony method
Double diffusion in 2-dimensions
Special type of precipitation involving FINE PARTICLES
Flocculation
Technique that produces an image of the chromosomes and identifies their abnormalities
Karyotype
PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are examples of
Molecular assay
PCR, Ligase chain reaction and branch-chain amplification are
Amplification methods
Test that facilitates in vitro DNA synthesis
PCR
Template for PCR
dsDNA
Other name for Scintillation counter
Gamma counter
Scintillation counter measures radioactivity by using labels known as
Isotopes
Blocking test where Ag is 1st exposed to unlabeled Ab, then to labeled Ab
Inhibition immunofluorescent test
Extremely sensitive screening test for ANTI-NUCLEAR ANTIBODIES
FANA
Color of fluorescein
Green
In fluorescence polarization, the degree of polarization is _____ proportional to the concentration of analyte
Inversely
CHANCRES are associated with what stage of syphilis
Primary syphilis
GUMMAS are associated with what stage of syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
What serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis
Determined 1-3 weeks after appearance of chancre
Test developed by the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
VDRL test
A reactive qualitative VDRL test should be followed by performing
Quantitative VDRL
Nontreponemal (nonspecific) tests for syphilis
RPR (rapid plasma reagin)
VDRL
What do nontreponemal tests for syphilis detect
Reagin (antibody to cardiolipin)
Strain that removes cross reactivity with other treponemes
Reiter stain
Positive color in the FTA-ABS test using Nichol’s stain
Green
Test that uses RBCs coated with treponemal antigen to detect treponemal antibodies
MHA-TP
Specimen for detecting LATENTsyphilis
Serum
Specimen for detecting TERTIARY syphilis
CSF
Anti-DNAse B is a blood test used to detect antibodies to a substance produced by
Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)
ASO titer is traditionally reported in what unit
Todd unit
Gold standard serologic test for diagnosis of LEPTOSPIROSIS
Microscopic agglutination test
Test for dengue that allows rapid detection on the first day of fever
NS1 antigen
Confirmatory test for Lyme Disease (if ELISA+)
Western Blot
Most common fungal infection for AIDS patient
C. neoformans
Standard SCREENING test for HIV/AIDS
ELISA/EIA
Standard CONFIRMATORY test for HIV/AIDS
Western Blot
The new HIV confirmatory test in the Philippines
rHIVda
Interpret results for HIV infection: ELISA (+); repeat ELISA (-); Western blot: no bands
Negative for HIV
Method used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV positive mothers
PCR
CD4:CD8 ratio in AIDS
1:2 (or 1:3)
HPO stands for
Horseradish peroxidase
In COMPETITIVE binding assays, the concentration of the patient analyte is _____ proportional to bound radioactive label
Inversely
In NONCOMPETITIVE enzyme immunoassays, if a negative control shows the presence of COLOR, it means washing steps are _____
Incomplete
How do heterogenous assays differ from homogenous assays
Heterogenous assays require a separation step
Blotting technique for detection of DNA
Southern blot
Blotting technique for detection of RNA
Northern blot
Blotting technique for detection of PROTEINS
Western blot
Proteins separated in the Western blot test are blotted on
Nitrocellulose paper
Western blot bands that confirm (+) HIV infection (at least 2/3 bands)
p24, gp41, gp120/160
1st antibody detected in HIV infection
Anti-gp41 (new)
Anti-p24 (old)
Last stage of HIV infection
Full blown AIDS
Hepatitis B marker that indicates high degree of INFECTIVITY
HBeAg
NOT a serologic marker in Hepatitis virus infection
HBcAg
Major cause of post-transfusion hepatitis
Hepatitis C virus
Surrogate test for HCV that is no longer required
ALT
Disinfectant that inactivates hepatitis A virus
Household bleach
Other name for HCV RNA
Viral load
Test to detect acute HDV infection
IgM anti-HDV
Primary antibody type found in H. pylori infection
IgG
What does TORCH acronym denote
Congenital infections
The “T” in the TORCH acronym stands for
Toxoplasmosis
The “C” in the TORCH acronym stand for
Cytomegalovirus
Blood products are tested for what virus before being transfused to newborns
CMV
The most common congenital infection is
CMV
EBV causes latent infection in what cell
B cell
Method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in the CSF
PCR
Currently, nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) is performed to detect what virus
HIV-1
HCV
WNV
Most common cause of death in SLE patients
Renal failure
Rose-Waaler and latex agglutination tests are used to detect
Rheumatoid factor (RF)
In the RF slide agglutination test, what is bound to sheep RBCs
IgG
Screening test for heterophile antibodies
Paul-Bunnell