Clinical Chemistry Flashcards
(376 cards)
1
Q
Error where there is continued difference between test and comparative method values
A
Constant error
2
Q
Error where difference between test and comparative method values are proportional to analyte concentrate
A
Proportional error
3
Q
Deterioration of reagents is a problem encountered in what phase of clinical analysis
A
Analytical phase
4
Q
Ratio of WARNING to MANDATORY Westgard rules
A
3:3
5
Q
QC Chart that demonstrates the Westgard Multirules
A
Levey-Jennings
6
Q
Most widely used QC Chart in the clinical laboratory
A
Levey-Jennings
7
Q
QC Chart used to compare results of different laboratories
A
Youden Twin Plot
8
Q
Plot that gives the earliest indication of trend
A
CuSum graph
9
Q
Closeness of measured value to the true value
A
Accuracy
10
Q
An ability to give repeated results on the same sample that agree with one another
A
Precision
11
Q
Measures of the diagnostic accuracy of the a test
A
Specificity & Sensitivity
12
Q
Relates to the lowest concentration of a substance that can be detected in a test system
A
Analytical sensitivity
13
Q
Ability to detect only the desired chemical with no interference from other chemicals
A
Analytical specificity
14
Q
Ability to detect the presence of disease
A
Diagnostic sensitivity
15
Q
Indicates the ability of the test to generate more true POSITIVE and few false negative results
A
Diagnostic sensitivity
16
Q
Reflects the ability of the method to detect true NEGATIVE with very few false positive
A
Diagnostic Specificity
17
Q
Indicates the number of patients with an abnormal test result who HAVE the disease
A
Positive Predictive Value (PPV)
18
Q
PPV Formula
A
True Positive / (True Positive + False Positive)
19
Q
Indicates the number of patients with a normal test result who DO NOT HAVE the disease
A
Negative Predictive Value (NPV)
20
Q
NPV Formula
A
True Negative / (True Negative + False Negative)
21
Q
Part (s) of descriptive statistics
A
Central tendency, dispersion
22
Q
Measures of dispersion
A
Variance, SD, CV, Range
23
Q
The lower the CV, the _________ the precision
A
Higher
24
Q
The average of the given set of values
A
Mean
25
Middle or midpoint of a distribution
Median
26
Most frequent observation in a set of data
Mode
27
At least how many control values should be gathered before interpretation is done?
20
28
Normal Gaussian curve appearance
Bell-shaped
29
Normal Gaussian distribution curve occurs if mean __ median __ mode
Mean = median = mode
30
+/- 2SD is equivalent to what % in Gaussian curve?
95%
31
Statistically derived value representing values of "healthy" people
Reference value
32
How many subject specimens are needed to ESTABLISH a reference range interval?
At least 120
33
How many subject specimens are needed to VERIFY a reference range interval?
As few as 20
34
How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test?
Test samples from healthy people
35
Sample used for interlaboratory (external) quality testing
Blind sample
36
Evaluation of method performance by comparing results with other lab
Proficiency testing (EQA)
37
Comparison between patient's most recent result & previous determined value
Delta check
38
Important criteria in evaluating instruments
Specificity & sensitivity
39
A good standard curve
Line is straight.
Line connect all points.
Line goes through the origin of X & Y axes.
40
There is a perfect correlation of values in linear regression if values falls on __
1
41
Test performed usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, RTs, etc.)
Point-of-care testing
42
Nonlaboratory personnel are reaponsible for __ % errors with regard to lab results
29%
43
Specimen used for point-of-care testing (POCT)
Capillary blood
44
QC of POCT instruments should be done every ___
Everyday (Once each day of use)
45
Usual cause of random error in clinical laboratory
Clerical error
46
Vapor & osmotic pressure, boiling & freezing points are example of ___
Colligative properties
47
Used to measure osmolality
Freezing point depression & boiling point depression
48
Specimen (s) for osmolality determination
Serum
49
The relative concentration of a solution
Dilution
50
How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 ml of serum to make 1:20 dilution?
3.8 mL
51
It is the amount of 1 substance relative to the amount of other substance in the solution
Concentration
52
Instrument that use diffraction gratings (commonly used monochromator)
Spectrophotometer
53
Beer's law mathematically establishes relationship between concentration and ____
Absorbance
54
A solution that has a transmittance of 1.0% T would have an absorbance of ___
Formula:
Absorbance = 2-log (%T)
2.0
55
Formula for the concentration of the unknown sample (using spectrophotometer)
Unknown Concentration (Cu) = (Au/As) x Cs
56
Visible region
400 to 700 nm
57
<400 nm
UV region (VERY SHORT wavelength)
58
>700 nm
Infrared region
59
Light source in the visible region
Tungsten lamp
60
Light sources in the UV region
Mercury arc, Deuterium, Hydrogen & Xenon Lamp
61
Light sources in the Infrared region
Merst glower & Glober
62
Zeroing the spectrophotometer before testing is done usually using ___
Reagent blank
63
Used to correct for absorbance caused by color of reagents
Reagent blank
64
Monochromator specification to measure true absorbance of compound with absorbance bandwidth of 30nm
5nm bandpass
65
Most commonly used photodetector, and the most sensitive to low levels of light
Photomultiplier tube
66
Detects light scattered towards a detector
Nephelometry
67
Detects amount of light blocked by a particulate matter (for measuring proteins)
Turbidimetry
68
Nephelometry is used for determination of
Ag-Ab complexes
69
Measurement of differences between 2 electrodes in terms of voltage at a constant current
Potentiometry
70
Gold standard for drug testing
GC-MS
71
Non destructive technique for detecting structure of organic compound (lipoprotein particle)
Nuclear magnetic resonance spectrophotometer (NMRS)
72
Effect on quenching on fluorescence
Decreased
73
Support media for zone electrophoresis
Agarose, cellulose acetate, polyacrylamide
74
Most commonly used stain for serum protein electrophoresis (SPE)
Ponceau S
75
A type of chemistry analyzer that uses reagents from different manufacturers / suppliers
Open system analyzer
76
Most basic or simplest pipette
Pasteur (glass/plastic) pipette
77
Parts of positive displacement pipet
Piston, piston seal, capillary
78
Glassware resistant to heat, corrosion & thermal shock
Borosilicate
79
Water that has passed through resin with charged particles is known as
Deionized water
80
Purpose of desiccators / desiccant?
Absorbs moisture
81
In general, oxidizers should never be placed with chemicals that are
Reducing agents
82
10% bleach inactivates hepatitis B virus within how many minutes?
10 minutes
83
10% bleach inactivates HIV within how many minutes?
2 minutes
84
Laboratory hazard prevention strategies include
Work practice controls, engineering controls, PPE, and emergency equipment
85
Equipment used to contain and expel noxious & hazardous fumes from chemical reagents
Fume hood
86
First step in pre-analytical phase
Test order
87
Instructing the patient to undergo fasting is part of ___
Patient preparation
88
Disinfectant for ethanol analysis blood collection
Benzalkonium chloride
89
Preferred site for venipuncture
Antecubital veins (Median cubital > Cephalic > Basilic)
90
Light source used by vein finders
Infrared
91
Most commonly used area for adult skin puncture
2nd, 3rd, 4th finger
92
Type of blood specimen for newborns
Blood spot
93
Ideal site of capillary blood collection in infants
Medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel
94
Shelf life (expiration date) of an evacuated tube is defined by
Vacuum retention & stability of the additive
95
The lower the temperature, the lower the gas pressure, the ________ the drawn volume in evacuated tube
Higher
96
The higher the temperature, the higher the gas pressure, the ________ the drawn volume in evacuated tube
Lower
97
Higher altitudes result to ______ blood volume
Lower
98
EDTA anticoagulant elevates ________ & ________ and lowers ________ & ________.
Elevates = Sodium & Potassium
Lowers = Calcium & Iron
99
Anticoagulant that produces least interference with analyses
Heparin
100
Preferred anticoagulant for electrolyte testing
Heparin
101
CTAD coagulant is used for
Coagulation testing
102
Temperature for lyophilization
-40C or less
103
Normal color of serum
Straw / pale yellow
104
Conversion of glucose to lactate or pyruvate
Glycolysis
105
Conversion of non-carbohydrate compound into glucose
Gluconeogenesis
106
Ability to maintain steady glucose concentration in the blood
Glucoregulation
107
Glucose hormone produced by the ALPHA-cells of the Islets of Largerhans in the pancreas
Glucagon
108
Routine examination that assesses glucose homeostasis
FBS (Fasting Blood Sugar)
109
In OGTT, patient undergoes UNRESTRICTED diet of ___ CHO per day for ___ before testing
150 grams; 3 days
110
Standard glucose load for OGTT according to WHO
75 grams
111
Mode of administration of tolbutamide in the tolbutamide tolerance test
Intravenous
112
Part of "Glucose tolerance factor"
Chromium
113
Plasma glucose returns to normal level ____ hours after eating
1 1/2 to 2 hours
114
Long term glucose MONITORING (2-3 months)
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C)
115
Short term glucose monitoring
Fructosamine
116
Fasting blood glucose is _____ than in serum or plasma
10-15% lower
117
Venous blood glucose is _____ than capillary blood (due to tissue metabolism)
7 mg/dL lower
118
Capillary blood glucose is _____ with arterial blood glucose
Same
119
10% contamination with 5% dextrose will increase glucose by _____
500 mg/dL
120
Effect of hemolysis and bilirubin on plasma glucose using hexokinase method
False decrease
121
Glycolysis at ROOM temperature
7 mg/dL/hr
122
Glycolysis at REFRIGERATION temperature
2 mg/dL/hr
123
End product of glucose determination using Folin-Wu method
Phosphomolybdenum blue
124
End product of glucose determination using Nelson -Somogyi method
Arsenomolybdenum blue
125
The most specific enzyme reacting with only B-D-glucose
Glucose oxidase
126
The most specific glucose method
Hexokinase
127
Reference method for blood glucose determination
Hexokinase
128
Hallmark of Diabetes Mellitus
Hyperglycemia
129
Causes of hyperglycemia during pregnancy
Hormonal changes
130
A type of GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE with onset or first recognition during pregnancy
Gestational Diabetes Mellitus
131
Overzealous treatment of DM may lead to _____
Hypoglycemia
132
Symptoms of hypoglycemia appear at what glucose level?
50-55 mg/dL
133
Blood glucose level diagnostic for hypoglycemia
< 50 mg/dL
134
Biological substances that are insoluble in water & most biologic fluids
Triglyceride
135
Steroids are derived from _____
Non-glyceride lipids
136
Lipoprotein found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT deficiency
Lipoprotein X
137
Fasting period to produce reliable lipid profile result
12 hours
138
Lipid greatly affected by non-fasting specimens
Triglycerides
139
Fasting has a little effect on
Cholesterols
140
Triglycerides will increase how many hours after a meal?
2 hours
141
Serum is lipemic when triglyceride levels exceed
400 mg/dL
142
Triglyceride level if plasma is CLEAR
<200 mg/dL
143
Triglyceride level that causes HAZY/TURBID plasma
>300 mg/dL
144
Triglyceride level that causes MILKY plasma
>600 mg/dL
145
What is the purpose of acetic anhydride in Liebermann-Burchard assay?
Solvent & dehydrating agent
146
Enzymatic methods for cholesterol determination uses what enzyme (s)?
Cholesterol esterase & Cholesterol oxidase
147
LDL can be calculated from measurement of __________, __________, __________ by Friedewald approximation
Total cholesterol, HDL, and Triglycerides
148
LDL Formula
LDL = Total cholesterol - HDL - (Triglyceride/5)
149
What is the formula for VLDL using Friedewald method
VLDL = TAG/5 (*mg/dL) or TAG/2.175 (*mmol/L)
150
What is the formula for VLDL using De Long method
VLDL = TAG/6.5 (*mg/dL) or TAG/2.825 (*mmol/L)
151
Friedewald equation should not be used when plasma TAG exceeds
400 mg/dL
152
Reference method for quantitation of lipoproteins
Ultracentrifugation
153
24-hour plasma standing test is used to test
Chylomicrons
154
Produces floating creamy layer
Chylomicrons
155
Largest lipoprotein
Chylomicrons
156
Minor lipoproteins
IDL, Lp (a)
157
Lipoprotein that is the primary target of cholesterol lowering therapy; PRIMARY MARKER FOR CHD DISEASE
LDL
158
Lipopathy associated with acanthocytosis, abetlipoproteinemia, & mutations in MTTP gene
Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
159
Familial HDL deficiency
Tangier's disease
160
Thyroid disorder with LOW cholesterol and triglycerides
Hyperthyroidism
161
Thyroid disorder with HIGH cholesterol and triglycerides
Hypothyroidism
162
Xanthelasma is most commonly caused by?
Hyoercholesterolemia
163
In SPE, using a buffer solution at pH 8.6, proteins exhibit
Net negative charge
164
The most negatively charged serum protein
Albumin
165
Serum protein electrophoretic patter (anode to cathode)
Albumin > a1 > a2 > B > y
166
Why are plasm samples not recommended for standard protein electrophoresis?
Pseudo-gamma bridging effect
167
Cause of relative hyperproteinemia
Dehydration
168
Cause of artifactual hyperalbuminemia
Prolonged tourniquet application
169
Cause of dysproteinemia
Clonal proliferation of B plasma cells
170
Common in multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
Increased IgM
171
Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with what disease?
Wilson's disease
172
In Wilson's disease, ceruloplasmin levels are ___
Decreased
173
Myoglobin level of >300 ug/L, when will you report result?
Immediately
174
Biomarker for thrombosis / pulmonary embolism
D-dimer
175
Popular marker for congestive heart failure
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
176
According to Kjeldhal, 1 gram of nitrogen is equivalent to _____ grams of protein
6.54
177
Disease (s) associated with low A/G ratio
Multiple myeloma, cirrhosis, kidney disease, autoimmune infection
178
Made up of alkaline CuSO4, NaOH, KI, and NaK tartrate (Rochelle salt)
Biuret reagent
179
Bromcrescol green (BCG) is more sensitive to _____ than hydroxybenzene benzoic acid (HABA)
Albumin
180
Plays a vital role in controlling blood pressure and fluid balance
Renin
181
Causes vasodilation of the afferent arterioles and constriction of the efferent arterioles *VACE
Angiotensin II
182
A hormone that also acts as an enzyme
Renin
183
Measures the ability of the kidneys to eliminate substance from the blood
Clearance test
184
Measure of completeness of a 24-hour urine collection
Creatinine clearance
185
Most commonly used clearance test to estimate GFR
Creatinine clearance
186
What is 1440 in the creatinine clearance formula?
Constant (24 hours = 1440 minutes)
187
It is freely filtered by glomerulus, not reabsorbed, BUT MINIMALLY SECRETED by the renal tubules
Creatinine
188
UV method uses _____ enzyme to convert uric acid (⬆️ absorbance) into allantoin (⬇️ absorbance)
Uricase
189
Uric acid absorbs light strongly in the region around _____ nm
285 (UV region)
190
Reference method for NPNs (urea)
IDMS
191
Reagent in the urea determination that uses colorimetry forming a yellow end-product
Diacetyl monoxime (DAM)
192
Jaffe reaction is the most frequently used method to measure CREATININE that uses _____ reagent
Alkaline picrate
193
Accurate results are obtained when Fuller's earth or Lloyd's reagent is used for _____ measurements
Creatinine
194
Creatinine levels in the blood are affected by _____
Muscle mass
195
Normal BUN:CREATININE ratio
(10-20) : 1
196
Product of purine metabolism
Uric acid
197
Use of chemotherapeutic agents increases what NPN?
Uric acid
198
What condition is associated when metabolism of uric acid, and not of other NPNs is impaired
Gout
199
An elevated condition of urea (& creatinine) in the blood is called
Azotemia
200
Very high plasma concentration accompanied by renal failure is called
Uremia / Uremic syndrome
201
Three main categories of azotemia
Prerenal azotemia
Renal azotemia
Postrenal azotemia
202
BUN and creatinine will be significantly elevated if the GFR is decreased by at least ___ %
50%
203
Major waste product of protein catabolism
Urea
204
Product of amino acid deamination
Urea/Ammonia
205
Marker for hepatic coma (hepatic encephalopathy)
Ammonia
206
Appropriate sample for ammonia determination
Freshly drawn blood
207
Effect of cigarette smoking on plasma ammonia determination
Increased
208
Liver function tests are usually based on which principle?
Photometry
209
Formula for total bilirubin
TB = CB + UB
210
Normal value for total bilirubin in adults
0.2 - 1.0 mg/dL
(3 - 17 umol/L)
211
Jaundice is clinically evident when bilirubin level exceeds
2 mg/dL
212
In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated by addition of
Glucuronyl groups (glucuronic acid)
213
Bilirubin fraction increased in PRE-HEPATIC (hemolytic) jaundice
Unconjugated
214
Bilirubin fraction increased in HEPATIC jaundice
Conjugated & Unconjugated
215
Bilirubin fraction increased in POST-HEPATIC (obstructive) jaundice
Conjugated
216
Bilirubin fraction that DOES NOT require an accelerator to react
Conjugated (direct) bilirubin
217
Form of bilirubin that is soluble in water
Conjugated (direct) bilirubin
218
Form of bilirubin that is insoluble in water
Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin
219
Form of bilirubin that has LONGER HALF-LIFE than other forms of bilirubin
Delta bilirubin
220
Elevation of bilirubin in newborns (due to immature liver)
Physiologic jaundice
221
Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN in the
Brain tissues
222
Neonate bilirubin level is 28 mg/dL. When will you report the result?
Immediately
223
The danger of kernicterus is a certainty at bilirubin levels exceeding _____
20 mg/dL
224
True or false: Enzymes are proteins
True
225
Reaction rate is directly proportional to SUBSTRATE concentration
First order kinetics
226
Reaction rate only depends on ENZYME concentration
Zero order kinetics
227
Phase in which enzyme activity is usually measured
Linear phase
228
Two general methods that are used to measure the extent of an enzymatic reaction
Fixed-time
Kinetic assays
229
In this assay, multiple measurements of change in absorbance are made during the reaction
Kinetic / continuous monitoring assay
230
In this assay, reactants are mixed; reaction proceeds for designated time; and reaction is stopped & measurement is made
Fixed-time assay
231
What is this called? "E + S = ES = E + P"
Enzyme catalytic reaction
232
What is this called? "Vmax (S) / Km + S"
Michaelis-Menten equation
233
This is needed to achieve full enzyme activity
Coenzyme
234
Non-protein molecule necessary for enzyme activity
Cofactor
235
ACP, ALP, ALT, AMY, AST, CK, GGT, LD, and LPS are?
Macroenzymes
236
ALP isoenzyme electrophoretic pattern (anode to cathode)
Liver > Bone > Placental > Intestinal
237
ALP isoenzyme heat stability (most heat stable to most heat labile)
Placental > Intestine > Liver > Bone
238
Levamisole inhibits what ALP isoenzyme (s)?
Bone and Liver ALP
239
Phenylalanine inhibits what ALP isoenzyme (s) ?
Placental and Intestinal ALP
240
3M Urea inhibits what ALP isoenzyme (s) ?
Bone ALP
241
Buffer used in ALP analysis
AMP (amino methyl propanol)
242
Physiologic increase in serum ACP has been reported in specimens obtained from patients after _____ exam
Rectal
243
Enzyme that is also useful in forensic clinical chemistry, in the investigation of rape cases
ACP
244
Effect of high concentration of bilirubin & hemoglobin to ACP determination
Increased (specimen is hemolyzed)
245
Enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose
Amylase
246
Assay for amylase that involves formation of maltose
Coupled-enzyme
247
Assay for amylase that measures the disappearance of starch SUBSTRATE
Amyloclastic
248
Assay for amylase that measures the appearance of PRODUCT
Saccharogenic
249
Assay for amylase that measures increasing COLOR from production of PRODUCT
Chromogenic
250
Enzyme that is best indicator of PANCREATIC function
Lipase
251
Least specific enzyme (found in many tissues)
Lactate dehydrogenase
252
Cause (s) of flipped LD pattern
Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI), renal infarction, hemolysis
253
Major tissue sources of AST
Cardiac tissue
Liver
Skeletal muscle
254
LIVER specific enzyme
ALT
255
Old name for AST
SGOT
256
Old name for ALT
SGPT
257
Enzyme indicator used in measuring ALT activity
Lactate dehdrogenase
258
Enzyme indicator used in measuring AST activity
Malate dehydrogenase
259
More sensitive and specific screening test for post-transfusion hepatitis
ALT
260
Enzyme increased in alcoholism
GGT
261
Enzyme whose significance is DECREASED ACTIVITY
Pseudocholinesterase
262
Positive result in the turbidimetric method for lipase
Decreased turbidity
263
Chloride shift is maintained by a reversible exchange process between _____ & _____
Bicarbonate & chloride
264
Formula for Anion Gap; Normal value: 10-20 mmol/L
AG = (Na + K) - (Cl + HCO3)
265
Formula for Anion Gap; Normal value: 7-16 mmol/L
AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
266
The difference between the unmeasured cations and unmeasured anions is called
Anion gap
267
It is a form of quality control for the analyzer used to measure electrolytes
Anion gap
268
Hypernatremia occurs when serum sodium is
>145 mmol/L (increased)
269
Hyponatremia occurs when serum sodium is
<135 mmol/L (decreased)
270
Hormone that regulate sodium reabsorption
Aldosterone
271
Relationship of ADH and sodium levels
Inverse
272
Effect of low ADH on serum sodium
Increased sodium
273
Effect of high glucose on serum sodium concentration
Decreased sodium
274
Promotes natriuresis, blocks aldosterone secretion, inhibits vasopressin
Atrial natriuretic factor
275
Hyperlipidemia causes artifactual _____
Hyponatremia
276
Low sodium caused by pseudohyponatremia, what to do?
Test for osmolality
277
Electrolytes, BUN, crea, osmolality are done on patient who ingested ethanol. What to do?
Determine osmolal gap
278
Electrolytes that transmits nerve impulses
Potassium
279
Marked hyperkalemia may lead to
Cardiac arrest
280
Potassium is falsely _____ in hemolyzed blood samples
Increased
281
Factors affecting serum calcium levels include
⬆️ Vitamin D
⬆️ Parathyroid hormone
⬇️ CALCITONIN
282
Milk-alkali syndrome may lead to
Hypercalcemia
283
A pro-oxidant contributing to DNA damage; lipid peroxidation; carcinogenesis, etc
Iron
284
It REGULATES intracellular iron TRANPORT from intestinal surface to inside the cell
DMT-1
285
For _____ testing, blood should be collected in a tube containing 10 mg NaF & 2 mg K2C2O4 per mL pf blood
Lactate
286
It refers to the dissociable substance that can yield hydroxyl ions
Base
287
A substance that can yield hydrogen (H+) or hydronium (H3O) ion when dissolved
Acid
288
Most important buffer pair in plasma
HCO3 : H2CO3 pair
289
Weak acid or weak base and their related salts; resists any change in pH & H+ ion concentration
Buffer
290
__________ include bicarbonate, carbonic acid, plasma proteins, hemoglobin and inorganic phosphate
Blood buffers
291
It is the primary substance in the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
Bicarbonate
292
Normal ratio of BICARBONATE TO CARBONIC ACID
20:1
293
During onset of fever, pCO2 increases by _____ and pO2 decreases by _____
3% 7%
294
Electrode used for pH
Gas electrode
295
Electrode used for pCO2
Severinghaus electrode
296
Electrode used for pO2
Clark electrode
297
Electrode used for K+
Valinomycin-based electrode
298
Used to calibrate pH meter
Buffer
299
Most common preanalytic error in blood pH measurement
Excess heparin
300
When a blood sample is exposed to air, pH and pO2 levels _____ while pCO2 _____
Increases; decreases
301
When a capped blood is allowed to stand at RT, pH and pO2 levels _____ & pCO2 _____
Decreases; increases
302
Hormone secreted in endocrine cell and released into interstitial space
Paracrine
303
Known as the "master gland"
Pituitary gland
304
The anterior pituitary gland is positioned in what part of the skull?
Sphenoid bone
305
Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland
TSH, Prolactin, FSH, LH, ACTH, GH
306
Most abundant hormone of the anterior pituitary gland
Growth hormone (GH)
307
Hormone markedly increased during deep sleep
Somatotropin (GH)
308
ADH is secreted by what gland
Posterior pituitary gland
309
ADH is produced by what gland
Hypothalamus
310
Excess growth hormone in adults
Acromegaly
311
Increased growth hormone in adults (acromegaly) can cause
Hyperglycemia
312
Mineral compound found in teeth
Hydroxyapatite (Ca phosphate)
313
Part of the thyroid gland that produces hormones
Follicles
314
Thyroid follicles are spheres of thyroid cells surrounding a core of viscous substances called
Colloid
315
Trace element important in thyroid hormone synthesis
Iodine
316
Most abundant thyroid hormone
Thyroxine
317
Thyroid hormones are derived from what amino acid
Tyrosine
318
Thyroxine is present in the body in the largest amount as _____
Thyroxine-bound to globulin (TBG)
319
Comparably, T3 in the circulation is _____ than T4
Lower
320
Indirectly assesses the concentration of circulating free T4
Free thyroxine index (FT4I)
321
Used to confirm results of FT3 & FT4, or abnormalities in the relationship of total T4 and THBR test
Thyroxine-bound globulin (TBG)
322
Single screening test for thyroid disease
TSH Assay
323
If a screening test is high, which test is likely to be ordered next?
FT4
324
Test to differentiate drug induced TSH elevation and hypothyroidism
FT4 Test
325
Test that quantitates the concentration of TBG
T3 uptake
326
T3 uptake is _____ proportional to T3 and T4 concentrates
Directly
327
Screening test for congenital hypothyroidism
T4 (decreased)
328
Confirmatory test for congenital hypothyroidism
TSH (increased)
329
Most likely interferes with quantitation of thyroglobulin
Anti-thyroglobulin autoantibodies
330
Testing for this HORMONE requires EARLY MORNING specimen collection
Cortisol
331
Specimen for ACTH determination
Pre-chilled EDTA blood
332
ACTH is highest between _____ to _____ and lowest between _____ to _____
Highest = 6:00 - 8:00 am
Lowest = 6:00 - 11:00 pm
333
Excess growth hormone in children
Gigantism
334
Cortisol is highest between _____ to _____ and lowest between _____ to _____
Highest = 8:00 to 10:00 am
Lowest = 10:00 pm to 12:00 mn
335
Increased cortisol, decreased ACTH
Cushing's syndrome
336
Increased cortisol, increased ACTH
Cushing's disease
337
Oral salt loading test is a confirmatory test for
Conn's disease
338
Increased catecholamines is seen in
Pheochromocytoma
339
Major metabolite of catecholamines
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
340
Metabolite of dopamine
Homovanillic acid
341
Specimen (s) for catecholamine measurements
Plasma, 24 hour urine
342
_____ will result in male and female inferitility
Hypogonadism
343
Hormone that prepares the endometrium for embryo implantation and maintains it throughout pregnancy
Progesterone
344
Most potent estrogen
Estradiol
345
Most potent androgen
Testosterone / Dihydrotestosterone
346
Estrogen found in both men and women
Estradiol
347
Estradiol is produced by what gland
Ovaries
348
Method used for measuring URINARY ESTROGENS
Kober reaction
349
Method used for measuring 17-hydroxycorticosteriods (17-OHCS)
Porter-Silber method
350
Method for measuring 17-ketogenic steroids
Zimmerman reaction
351
Method for measuring METANEPHRINES and NORMETANEPHRINES
Pisano method
352
Hormone that inhibits gastric emptying, stimulates pancreatic secretions and gallbladder contractions
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
353
Absorption, circulation, distribution, metabolism, clearance, age, medium, gastric pH, liver and kidney functions are all factors for
Drug metabolism
354
Trough concentrations for most drugs are drawn _____ before the next dose
Right before
355
Peak concentrations are drawn _____ after an orally administered dose
1 hour
356
Anticoagulant suitable for therapeutic drug monitoring
Heparin
357
Anti-tussive opiate
Codeine
358
Most prominent benzodiazepine
Valium
359
Most commonly used assay for aspirin determination
Trinder reaction
360
Used to treat bipolar disorder; may cause hypercalcemia
Lithium
361
Drug of choice for controlling petit mal seizures
Ethosuximide
362
Most sensitive organ to alcohol ingestion
Liver
363
Form of alcohol not suitable for comsumption
METHANOL, isopropyl alcohol
364
Drug of abuse with direct toxicity on myocardium
Cocaine
365
Metabolite of cocaine
Benzoylecgonine
366
Derived from the flowers of the hemp plant Cannabis sativa
Marijuana
367
Psychoactive substance of marijuana
Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
368
A marijuana user may still test positive for THC even after ___ days of last use
45
369
Methylenedioxymethampethamine is commonly known as
Ecstasy
370
Reporting of absence of analyte for drug abuse
Negative
371
Plumbism is associated with an increased in amounts of
Lead
372
"GARLIC ODOR" breath and metallic taste
Arsenic toxicity
373
"BITTER ALMONDS ODOR" breath and altered mental status
Cyanide toxicity
374
Metal with high affinity to keratin
Arsenic
375
Interferes with sulfhydryl groups, reduce oxidative phosphorylation & ATP production
Arsenic
376
Form of mercury that is considered an environmental pollutant
Organic mercury
