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Hubble Notes > Other Body Fluids > Flashcards

Other Body Fluids Flashcards

1
Q

A tracheobronchial secretion; a mixture of upper and lower respiratory tract

A

Sputum

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2
Q

Most preferred sample for routine sputum analysis

A

1st morning

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3
Q

Sputum collection method for unconscious / ventilated patients

A

Tracheal aspiration

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4
Q

Color of Charcot-Leyden crystals using Wright stain

A

Pink or purple

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5
Q

% population of lymphocytes in the broncheoalveolar lavage

A

1-15%

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6
Q

This cell in the broncheoalveolar lavage is elevated in cigarette smokers

A

Neutrophil

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7
Q

Sweat chloride of >70 mEq/L indicates

A

Cystic fibrosis

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8
Q

Puncture site when performing CSF lumbar puncture

A

Between 3rd and 4th / 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae

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9
Q

Added to CSF to increase cell yield prior to cytocentrifugation

A

30% albumin

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10
Q

Diluent used for TOTAL CELL COUNT in the CSF

A

Normal saline

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11
Q

Diluent used for the CSF WBC COUNT

A

3% acetic acid with methylene blue

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12
Q

Subtract 1 WBC for every _____ RBCs seen in the CSF

A

700

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13
Q

Predominant normal cells in the CSF

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

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14
Q

Normal value for CSF glucose

A

60-70% of plasma glucose

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15
Q

For an accurate evaluation of CSF glucose, a __________ must be run for comparison

A

Blood glucose test

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16
Q

Specimen for blood glucose should be drawn ___ hours prior to spinal tap to allow time for equilibrium

A

2

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17
Q

Normal value for CSF lactate

A

10-22 mg/dL

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18
Q

Normal value for CSF protein in adults

A

15-45 mg/dL

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19
Q

2nd most abundant CSF protein

A

Prealbumin

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20
Q

Most routinely used techniques for measuring total CSF protein

A

Turbidimetry and dye-binding

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21
Q

Concentration of TCA (&SSA) for CSF total protein determination

A

3%

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22
Q

IgG index indicative of immunoglobulin production within the CNS

A

> 0.70 (or >0.77)

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23
Q

Analyte used to identify unknown body fluid as CSF

A

Prealbumin / “tau” transferrin

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24
Q

In CSF electrophoresis by immunofixation or isoelectric focusing, what stain is used?

A

Silver stain

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25
Q

Used to monitor the course of multiple sclerosis

A

Myelin basic protein

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26
Q

Indirect test for ammonia in the CSF

A

CSF glutamine

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27
Q

Limulus lysate test detects

A

Gram-negative endotoxin

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28
Q

Increased NEUTROPHILS; high CSF protein; LOW CSF glucose; high CSF lactate

A

Bacterial meningitis

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29
Q

Increased LYMPHOCYTES; high CSF protein; NORMAL CSF glucose and CSF lactate

A

Viral meningitis

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30
Q

Marker used to differentiate bacterial from non-bacterial (viral) meningitis

A

Procalcitonin

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31
Q

Pellicle or WEB-LIKE clot formation is seen in what time of meningitis?

A

Tubercular meningitis

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32
Q

Specimen (s) used in latex agglutination test for detection of Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Serum and CSF

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33
Q

Site of specimen maturation

A

Epididymis

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34
Q

Part of male reproductive system responsible for coagulation and LIQUEFACTION

A

Prostate gland

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35
Q

ACP, citric acid, zinc and other proteolytic enzymes are produced by what gland?

A

Prostate gland

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36
Q

Period of abstinence prior to semen collection

A

2-7 days

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37
Q

What part of the ejaculate should the patient collect for semen analysis?

A

Entire ejaculate

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38
Q

Failure to document time a semen is collected primarily affects interpretation of

A

Viscosity

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39
Q

Normal semen liquefaction time

A

30-60 minutes after collection

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40
Q

Cause of BROWN or red seminal fluid

A

Blood

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41
Q

Primary purpose of diluting specimens before performing sperm concentration

A

To immobilize sperms

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42
Q

Alternative diluent for semen dilution

A

Cold tap water

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43
Q

When doing sperm concentration, the counts on both sides of hemocytometer should agree within

A

10%

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44
Q

Normal % sperm motility within 1 hour

A

> 50%

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45
Q

The nucleus (genetic material) of a sperm is located at the

A

Head

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46
Q

Part of a sperm cell responsible for egg penetration

A

Acrosomal cap / acrosome

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47
Q

Abnormalities in the sperm HEAD morphology are associated with

A

Poor ovum penetration

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48
Q

Abnormalities in the sperm TAIL are associated with

A

Poor motility

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49
Q

Part of sperm cell that produces energy needed for motility

A

Neck / midpiece

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50
Q

Hardening of veins that drain the testes; tapered head sperm

A

Varicocele

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51
Q

Stain of choice for sperm morphology determination

A

Papanicolaou stain

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52
Q

Reagent used for assessment of sperm viability

A

Eosin-Nigrosin stain

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53
Q

Color of living sperm cells on Eosin-Nigrosin stain

A

Bluish-white / unstained

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54
Q

Color of dead sperms on Eosin-Nigrosin stain

A

Red against a purple background

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55
Q

Determines sperm velocity, trajectory, morphology, and concentration

A

CASA (computer-assisted semen analysis)

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56
Q

Measurement of neutral a-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the

A

Epididymis

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57
Q

Test for fructose in seminal fluid

A

Resorcinol test (Seliwanoff ‘s)

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58
Q

Positive color in the Resorcinol test

A

Orange-red

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59
Q

If fructose cannot be tested within 2 hours, the semen should be kept

A

Frozen

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60
Q

These are termed round cells found in semen

A

Spermatids and leukocytes

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61
Q

Immature sperm cells; mistaken as WBC

A

Spermatids

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62
Q

Sperm maturation

A

Spermatogonium > primary spermatocyte > secondary spermatocyte > spermatid > spermatozoon

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63
Q

Reagents used on the Florence test

A

Potassium iodide and iodine crystals

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64
Q

Reagents used in the Barbiero’s test

A

Saturated picric acid and TCA

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65
Q

After vasectomy, when should the patient submit semen for analysis?

A

2 months

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66
Q

Normal volume of synovial fluid

A

<3.5 mL

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67
Q

Test (s) to determine an unknown body fluid as synovial

A

Ropes test
Toluidine blue test

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68
Q

A normal synovial fluid forms a string that is _____ long

A

4-6 cm long

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69
Q

Synovial fluid forms a SOLID OR COMPACT CLOT using mucin clot test, this is graded as

A

Good

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70
Q

Synovial fluid WBC diluents

A
  1. NSS with methylene blue
  2. Hypotonic saline
  3. Saline with saponin
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71
Q

Synovial fluid WBC diluents should not contain

A

Acetic acid (forms mucin clot)

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72
Q

Methylene blue is added to the normal saline diluent for what purpose?

A

To stain WBC nuclei

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73
Q

Normal value for synovial fluid RBC count

A

None (0)

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74
Q

Normal value for synovial fluid WBC count

A

<200/uL

75
Q

Neutrophil with DARK cytoplasmic granules containing immune complexes

A

Ragocyte (RA cell)

76
Q

Neutrophils with INGESTED round body

A

LE cell

77
Q

Macrophage with ingested neutrophils

A

Reitter cell

78
Q

Macroscopically resembles POLISHED RICE; microscopically collagen and fibrin

A

Rice bodies

79
Q

Debris or pieces of pigmented cartilage with GROUND PEPPER appearance

A

Ochronotic shards

80
Q

Birefringence of CPPD (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal)

A

Blue (positive BR)

81
Q

Birefringence of MSU (monosodium urate) crystal

A

Yellow (negative BR)

82
Q

Birefringence of apatite crystal in synovial fluid

A

None

83
Q

A control slide for the polarization properties of MSU can be prepared using

A

Betamethasone acetate corticosteroid

84
Q

MSU crystals are seen in

A

Gout

85
Q

CPPD crystals are seen in

A

Pseudogout

86
Q

Normal synovial fluid glucose should be _____ than the blood urine

A

<10 mg/dL lower

87
Q

Normal synovial protein level

A

<3 g/dL

88
Q

Anticoagulant for SEROUS FLUIDS submitted for chemistry tests

A

None / heparin

89
Q

Specimen requirement for pH measurement on serous fluids

A

Heparinized syringe; anaerobic

90
Q

Normal appearance of serous fluids

A

Clear, pale yellow

91
Q

Effusion due to hypoproteinemia, congestive heart failure, and nephrotic syndrome

A

Transudate

92
Q

Effusion caused by infection, inflammation, and malignancies

A

Exudate

93
Q

Most reliable tests to distinguish transudate from exudate

A

Fluid : serum protein and LD ratios

94
Q

Total protein level that differentiates transudate (T) and exudates (E)

A

<3.0 g/dL (transudate)
>3.0 g/dL (exudate)

95
Q

Method of collection for pleural fluid

A

Thoracentesis

96
Q

Method of collection for pericardial fluid

A

Pericardiocentesis

97
Q

Method of collection for ascites and peritoneal fluid

A

Paracentesis

98
Q

Also increased in pleural effusions resulting from pancreatitis and pulmonary infarction

A

Neutrophils

99
Q

How to differentiate hemothorax from hemorrhagic exudate

A

Run a hematocrit on the fluid

100
Q

Type of effusion in empyema

A

Pleural exudate

101
Q

Adenosine deaminase level highly indicative of tuberculosis

A

> 40 U/L

102
Q

WBC count in peritoneal fluid is 775/uL. This indicates

A

Bacterial peritonitis, cirrhosis

103
Q

Significance of green peritoneal fluid

A

Gall bladder / pancreatic disorder

104
Q

Significance of milky peritoneal fluid

A

Lymphatic trauma and blockage

105
Q

Significance of black pleural fluid

A

Aspergillosis

106
Q

A product of fetal metabolism; its constituents provide information about the metabolic processes taking place

A

Amniotic fluid

107
Q

Major contributor to amniotic fluid volume DURING 1st trimester of pregnancy

A

Maternal plasma

108
Q

Major contributor to amniotic fluid AFTER 1st trimester of pregnancy

A

Fetal urine

109
Q

Ultimate source of amniotic fluid water and solutes

A

Placenta

110
Q

Normal volume of amniotic fluid during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

800-1200 mL

111
Q

Amniotic fluid storage condition for FETAL LUNG MATURITY (FLM) tests

A

Refrigerated or frozen

112
Q

Amniotic fluid storage condition for CYTOGENETIC STUDIES

A

Room temperature or 37C

113
Q

Amniotic fluid storage condition for HDN testing

A

Protected from light

114
Q

Significance of dark green amniotic fluid

A

Meconium

115
Q

First fetal bowel movement

A

Meconium

116
Q

Significance of dark red-brown amniotic fluid

A

Fetal death

117
Q

Instrument used in the O.D 450 test

A

Spectrophotometer

118
Q

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of

A

Bilirubin

119
Q

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 410 nm indicates the presence of

A

Oxyhemoglobin

120
Q

LILEY GRAPH ZONE: not affected / mildly affected fetus

A

Zone 1 (no/mild HDN)

121
Q

LILEY GRAPH ZONE: moderately affected fetus and requires careful monitoring

A

Zone 2 (moderate HDN)

122
Q

LILEY GRAPH ZONE: severely affected fetus and requires intervention

A

Zone 3 (severe HDN)

123
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid is produced by

A

Fetal liver

124
Q

Maternal serum AFP is usually measured around

A

15th to 18th week of pregnancy

125
Q

When should assessment of Down Syndrome be performed?

A

18th week (15th to 18th week of pregnancy)

126
Q

Tests for FLM, fetal distress, HDN, and infection should be done around

A

20th to 42nd week of pregnancy

127
Q

Down syndrome is also known as

A

Trisomy 21

128
Q

Reagent used in the FOAM STABILITY TEST in amniotic fluid

A

95% ethanol

129
Q

Lung surfactant produced by Type 2 pneumocytes

A

Lamellar bodies

130
Q

Specimen requirement prior to Lamellar Bodies testing

A

Centrifuge at 2,000g for 10 minutes

131
Q

Lamellar body count uses platelet channel of hematology analyzers that are based on

A

Electrical impedance / optical light scatter

132
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is produced by _____ cells of the placenta

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

133
Q

How many days will hCG disappear after ectopic pregnancy

A

3-7 days

134
Q

Source of anti-hCG in home-based pregnancy test kits

A

Rabbit

135
Q

The anti-hCG in the POCT PT kits is directed against what subunit

A

Beta-subunit of the amino acid

136
Q

Positive cut-off point for pregnancy

A

25 mIU/mL

137
Q

NEGATIVE reaction in POCT pregnancy test

A

1 colored band

138
Q

POSITIVE reaction in POCT pregnancy test

A

2 colored bands

139
Q

Protein that functions as BIOLOGICAL GLUE, attaching fetal sac to uterine lining

A

Fetal fibronectin (fFN)

140
Q

Marker used as an indicator of pre-term delivery

A

Fetal fibronectin (fFN)

141
Q

Normal volume of gastric fluid (fasting state)

A

20-50 mL

142
Q

Normal appearance of gastric fluid

A

Pale gray, slightly mucoid

143
Q

Gastric tube inserted through the nose

A

Levin tube

144
Q

Gastric tube inserted through the mouth

A

Rehfuss tube

145
Q

Duration of gastric fluid collection

A

1 hour with 15-min interval (fasting)

146
Q

Tubeless gastric fluid analysis

A

Diagnex

147
Q

Specimen used in Diagnex blue (tubeless test)

A

Urine

148
Q

Produced by parietal cells that breaks down pepsinogen

A

HCl

149
Q

Hormone that stimulates parietal cells to produce HCl

A

Gastrin

150
Q

Enzyme that degrades proteins into smaller amino acids

A

Pepsin

151
Q

Purpose of histamine on the stomach

A

Gastric stimulant

152
Q

BAO stands for

A

Basal acid output

153
Q

MAO stands for

A

Maximum acid output

154
Q

Basal acid output in pernicious anemia

A

Zero (0)

155
Q

Specimen used for quantitative fecal fat determination

A

3 day (72 hour) stool

156
Q

An acid steatocrit of <10% in children is indicative of

A

Steatorrhea

157
Q

Undigested muscle fibers in the feces appearance

A

Has 2 dimensional striations

158
Q

Lactoferrin latex agglutination is used to detect

A

Fecal leukocytes

159
Q

How many neutrophils are indicative of an invasive diarrhea

A

3 neutrophils per HPF

160
Q

Diarrhea with WBCs (+) Lactoferrin latex test, what bacteria?

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia
Enteroinvasive E. coli
Campylobacter

161
Q

Diarrhea without WBCs, what microorganism (s)?

A

Toxin producing (Staphylococcus aureus, Vibrio cholerae)
Virus
Parasite

162
Q

Seen in stool of a patient with allergic reactions

A

Charcot-Leyden crystal

163
Q

Excessive fat excretion in stool is termed of

A

Steatorrhea

164
Q

Specimen (s) used in the D-xylose test

A

2 hour postprandial blood and 5-hour urine

165
Q

Fecal occult blood testing is used to screen

A

Colorectal cancer

166
Q

Positive color for Guaiac test

A

Blue

167
Q

Why is Guaiac reagent preferred in the Fecal Occult Blood testing?

A

Less sensitive (avoids false-positive)

168
Q

Vitamin contraindicated for fecal occult blood testing

A

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

169
Q

Stain used for muscle fiber determination in the feces

A

10% eosin

170
Q

Reagent used in the APT test

A

1% sodium hydroxide

171
Q

Pink solution in the APT test indicates the presence of

A

Fetal blood

172
Q

Yellow-brown supernatant in the APT test indicates the presence of

A

Maternal blood

173
Q

Pancreatic enzyme that breaks down gelatin

A

Trypsin

174
Q

Normal stool pH

A

7.0 - 8.0

175
Q

Reject SMALL body fluid specimen (few drops) in a syringe received more than ___ minutes after collection

A

10

176
Q

Reject LARGER body fluid specimen (>1mL) in a syringe received more than ___ hour after collection

A

1 hour

177
Q

Quality control for urinalysis laboratory must be done

A

Every beginning of the shift / daily

178
Q

Checking the pH and purity meter resistance of deionized water is done every

A

Week

179
Q

Performing bacterial count on deionized water is done every

A

Month

180
Q

It is the time from the test order through analysis to the charting of report

A

TAT (turnaround time)

181
Q

PDCA stands for

A

Plan-Do-Check-Act

182
Q

PDSA stands for

A

Plan-Do-Study-Act

183
Q

PDMAI stands for

A

Plan, Design, Measure, Assess, Improve

184
Q

Refers to the time from ordering a test through the analysis in the lab to the charting of the report

A

Turnaround time

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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