Immunology Flashcards
Term used when an individual received SAME ALLELES from both parents
Homozygous
Chinese way of immunization (variolation) with smallpox
Inhalation of skin crust
Normal human has how many pairs of autosomes
22
The practice of deliberately exposing an individual to material from smallpox lesions
Variolation
Cowpox vaccine does prevent smallpox from developing. This is called
Cross-immunity
Injection of antibodies produced by ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL is an example of what immunity
Passive artificial
Normal biota means
Normal flora
Primary lymphoid organs
Thymus and bone marrow
Secondary lymphoid organs
Spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches
B cells develop in the
Bone marrow
T cells are located primarily in the _____ of the spleen
Periarteriolar sheath
Double negative thymocytes are
Immature T cells
CD that appears during 1st stage of T cell development and present as an identifying marker for T cells
CD2
CD markers found on MATURE, peripheral helper T cells
CD2, CD3, CD4
Population of T lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
60-70%
Population of B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
10-20%
Population of NK cells in the peripheral blood
10-15%
What is the body’s general response to injury and infectious agent
Inflammation
Most important defense of the body against fungal infections
Cell-mediated immunity
Cell that stimulates transformation of B cell into plasma cell
Helper T cells
Cell that express the CD8 marker and acts to kill tumors or VIRALLY infected cells
T cytotoxic
What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen
TcR, consisting of two chains, alpha and beta
A soluble protein mediator released by sensitized lymphocytes on contact with an antigen
Lymphokine
What are lymphokine activated killer (LAK) cells
NK cells + IL-2
T lymphocytes kill infected cells by releasing
Perforin (and granzymes)
Immunosuppressive agents that inhibit IL-2 mediated T cells
Tacrolimus, cyclosporine
Ferrata cells (tissue neutrophils) in exudates are indicative of
Acute inflammation
Cell considered to be a homeostatic regulator of inflammation
Eosinophils
Protein released by eosinophils that are toxic to parasites
Major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein
Most of the pathology associated with a parasitic infection results from
Immune response to offending organism
The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host
Inability to eliminate the infective agent
Cells that release HISTAMINE causing allergic reaction
Mast cells, basophils
Resembles mast cell
Basophil
Macrophage found in the liver
Kupfer cell
Most potent antigen presenting cell (APC)
Dendritic cells
Dendritic cell in the epidermis (skin)
Langerhans cell
Major site of antibody production
Spleen
Hybridomas are formed from
B cell (plasma cell)
Monoclonal antibodies are produced (in vivo or in vitro)
Both in vivo and in vitro
In mixed lymphocyte culture, what cell is treated with mitomycin C
Donor lymphocyte
Anticoagulant used in the micro lymphocytotoxicity assay
Heparin
Type of microscope used in the lymphocytotoxicity assay
Phase-contrast
Steps / stages of phagocytosis
Initiation, Chemotaxis, Engulfment, Digestion
Chemotaxis, Adherence, Engulfment, Phagosome formation, Fusion, Digestion and destruction
The passage of blood, or any of its formed elements, through the intact walls of blood vessels
Diapedesis
Phagocytes can interact with microorganisms directly via
Primitive pattern recognition receptors (PPRR)
Cytokines include
Chemokines
Interferons (iFN)
Interleukins
Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
Lymphotoxin
TGF
These stimulate leukocyte MOVEMENT AND ATTRACTION (chemotaxis)
Chemokines
A chemical that enhances phagocytosis
Opsonin
Boyden chamber assay is a test for
Chemotaxis
Function of cytokines
Immunoregulation
A cytoplasmic body formed by fusion of phagosome with a lysosome during phagocytosis
Phagolysosome
Most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms
Hydrogen peroxide
Group of proteins acting as defense against viral pathogens; interfere with viral replication
Interferons
Cytokine produced by NK cells and activated T cells
Interferon-gamma
Cytokine produced by the kidney that stimulates RBC production by the bone marrow
Erythropoeitin
Induces fever, mediator of acute phase response
IL-1
Source of IL-2
T cells (primarily CD4+)
Interleukin that acts as both inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokine
IL-6
IL-1 and IL-6 are both produced by what cell
Macrophage
Function of IL-8
Pro-inflammatory
IL-2 regulating the T cells that produce it is a type of _____ signaling
Autocrine
Substances added to vaccine to enhance immune response
Adjuvants
A small molecule than can bind to a larger carrier molecule and behave as an antigen
Hapten
Mitogen that activates both B and T cells
Pokeweed mitogen
Mitogen that activates T cells
Phytohemagglutinin
Concanavalin A
Mitogen that activates B cells
Lipopolysaccharide
HLA complex is located primarily on chromosome
6
Anticoagulant used for HLA phenotyping, DNA and paternity testing
ACD
Purified _____ is used for HLA class I typing
T cell
Purified _____ is used for HLA class II typing
B cell
Tests performed in paternity testing
HLA typing
DNA testing
BM transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for what antigen system
HLA
Ability of the antigen to induce antibody formation is known as
Immunogenicity
It is influenced by foreignness, molecular size, chemical complexity, and route, dosage and timing
Immunogenicity
__________ antibodies are formed after exposure to environmental agents
Naturally-occurring
Antigens shared by genetically identical twins are characterized as
Syngeneic
Antigen determinant; ANTIGEN binding
Paratope
Antigen determinant; ANTIBODY binding
Epitope
Refers to the heavy chain that determines the IMMUNOGLOBULIN CLASS
Isotype
Refers to the variations in the CONSTANT regions of heavy and light chains
Allotype
Refers to the variations in the VARIABLE regions of heavy and light chains
Idiotype
u heavy chain; chromosome ___
14
kappa and lambda light chains; chromosome ___ & ___
2 and 22
Region of immunoglobulin molecule that can bind antigen
Fab
Flexibility of the hinge region is due to what amino acid
Proline
Determines the passage of Ig through the placenta, contains the CHO component and determines C’ fixation
Fc region
Region that determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement
CH (Constant heavy chain)
Pepsin cleaves IgG into how many fragments
2
Papain cleaves IgG into how many fragments
3
Fragments of IgG formed by pepsin
1 Fab, 1 Fc
Fragments of IgG formed by papain
2 Fab, 1 Fc
Predominant antibody in PRIMARY immune respone
IgM
Predominant antibody in SECONDARY (anamnestic) immune response
IgG
Antibody type capable of agglutination; C’ fixation, opsonization and toxin neutralization
IgM
IgG subclass best to cross the placenta
IgG1
IgG subclass that does not cross the placenta
IgG2
IgG subclass best to fix complement
IgG3 (IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2)
IgG subclass that is ineffective in fixing the complement
IgG4
Stimulates IgE production
Allergen
The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in
Number and position of disulfide bridges
Immunoglobulin classes found on B lymphocytes
IgM and IgD
_____ appears first on the surface of developing B cells, followed by
IgM, IgD
Immunoglobulin present on mature B cells
IgM and IgD
Reaginic antibody
IgE
IgE antibodies are heat (labile or stable)
Labile
IgE interacts with what cell
Eosinophil, basophil, mast cell
What immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine
IgE
Immunoglobulin type (s) that contain (s) J chain
IgA and IgM
Bond that connects IgM monomers
Disulfide (s-s) bond
Test that measures ALLERGEN-SPECIFIC IgE antibodies
Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Test that measures TOTAL IgE antibodies
Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)
Immunoglobulin type found in secretions and is responsible for mucosal immunity
IgA
IgA level in absolute IgA deficiency
<0.5 mg/dL
Role of IgD
B cell receptor, immunoregulation
Named with a capital C followed by a number
Complement proteins
A small letter after the number means that the protein is a smaller protein derived from _____ of a larger precursor by a pretease
Cleavage
Alternative pathway generates __________ that activates C3
C3 convertase (C3bBb)
Lipopolysaccharides, inulin, zymosan, and endotoxins and the aggregated IgG2, IgA and IgE activates the
Alternative pathway
PROPERDIN is associated with what complement pathway
Alternative pathway
Lectin pathway begins with what protein
MBP (mannan binding protein) / Lectins
Complement protein with the highest MOLECULAR WEIGHT
C1qrs complex bound to Ca2
Complement protein with the highest PLASMA CONCENTRATION
C3
Complement protein COMMON to all the pathways
C3
Complement protein that serves as an OPSONIN
C3b
Anaphylatoxins
C3b, C4a, C5a
Anaphylatoxin and chemotaxin
C5a
C3 convertase in the classical and alternative pathways
Classical = C4b2a
Alternative = C3bBb
C5 convertase in the classical and alternative pathways
Classical = C4b2a3b
Alternative = C3bBb3b
Membrane attack complex
C5b678
In vitro hemolysis in blood bank is usually caused by what complement pathway
Classical
Complement is inactivated at what temperature
56C
Inactivation of the complement
56C for 30 minutes
Reinactivation of the complement
56C for 10 minutes
Many autoimmune diseases are associated with genes in the _____ region
MHC
Many autoimmune diseases are associated with specific _____ HLA
Class II
Anti-thyroglobulin titer in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
> 1:1000
Nonspecific indicator of inflammation; antibody to the C-polysaccharide of pneumococci
CRP
CRP is produced by what cell
Hepatic cells
Normal concentration of CRP in the blood
0.5 mg/dL
In acute inflammation, CRP increases _____ and serum amyloid A increases _____
CRP = 20-1000x
Serum Amyloid A = 1000x
Alzheimer’s disease is associated to what protein
Neural thread protein
The “CA” in the tumor marker stands for
Carbohydrate Ag / Cancer Ag
Expressed in developing FETUS and tumors, but absent in normal adult tissues
Oncofetal antigen
Patient has PSA of 60 ng/mL before surgery, 1 week following surgery, PSA was 8 ng/mL. Reason?
Testing too soon after surgery
