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Hubble Notes > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Term used when an individual received SAME ALLELES from both parents

A

Homozygous

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2
Q

Chinese way of immunization (variolation) with smallpox

A

Inhalation of skin crust

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3
Q

Normal human has how many pairs of autosomes

A

22

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4
Q

The practice of deliberately exposing an individual to material from smallpox lesions

A

Variolation

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5
Q

Cowpox vaccine does prevent smallpox from developing. This is called

A

Cross-immunity

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6
Q

Injection of antibodies produced by ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL is an example of what immunity

A

Passive artificial

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7
Q

Normal biota means

A

Normal flora

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8
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Thymus and bone marrow

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9
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches

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10
Q

B cells develop in the

A

Bone marrow

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11
Q

T cells are located primarily in the _____ of the spleen

A

Periarteriolar sheath

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12
Q

Double negative thymocytes are

A

Immature T cells

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13
Q

CD that appears during 1st stage of T cell development and present as an identifying marker for T cells

A

CD2

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14
Q

CD markers found on MATURE, peripheral helper T cells

A

CD2, CD3, CD4

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15
Q

Population of T lymphocytes in the peripheral blood

A

60-70%

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16
Q

Population of B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood

A

10-20%

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17
Q

Population of NK cells in the peripheral blood

A

10-15%

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18
Q

What is the body’s general response to injury and infectious agent

A

Inflammation

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19
Q

Most important defense of the body against fungal infections

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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20
Q

Cell that stimulates transformation of B cell into plasma cell

A

Helper T cells

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21
Q

Cell that express the CD8 marker and acts to kill tumors or VIRALLY infected cells

A

T cytotoxic

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22
Q

What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen

A

TcR, consisting of two chains, alpha and beta

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23
Q

A soluble protein mediator released by sensitized lymphocytes on contact with an antigen

A

Lymphokine

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24
Q

What are lymphokine activated killer (LAK) cells

A

NK cells + IL-2

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25
Q

T lymphocytes kill infected cells by releasing

A

Perforin (and granzymes)

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26
Q

Immunosuppressive agents that inhibit IL-2 mediated T cells

A

Tacrolimus, cyclosporine

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27
Q

Ferrata cells (tissue neutrophils) in exudates are indicative of

A

Acute inflammation

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28
Q

Cell considered to be a homeostatic regulator of inflammation

A

Eosinophils

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29
Q

Protein released by eosinophils that are toxic to parasites

A

Major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein

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30
Q

Most of the pathology associated with a parasitic infection results from

A

Immune response to offending organism

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31
Q

The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host

A

Inability to eliminate the infective agent

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32
Q

Cells that release HISTAMINE causing allergic reaction

A

Mast cells, basophils

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33
Q

Resembles mast cell

A

Basophil

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34
Q

Macrophage found in the liver

A

Kupfer cell

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35
Q

Most potent antigen presenting cell (APC)

A

Dendritic cells

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36
Q

Dendritic cell in the epidermis (skin)

A

Langerhans cell

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37
Q

Major site of antibody production

A

Spleen

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38
Q

Hybridomas are formed from

A

B cell (plasma cell)

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39
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are produced (in vivo or in vitro)

A

Both in vivo and in vitro

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40
Q

In mixed lymphocyte culture, what cell is treated with mitomycin C

A

Donor lymphocyte

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41
Q

Anticoagulant used in the micro lymphocytotoxicity assay

A

Heparin

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42
Q

Type of microscope used in the lymphocytotoxicity assay

A

Phase-contrast

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43
Q

Steps / stages of phagocytosis

A

Initiation, Chemotaxis, Engulfment, Digestion
Chemotaxis, Adherence, Engulfment, Phagosome formation, Fusion, Digestion and destruction

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44
Q

The passage of blood, or any of its formed elements, through the intact walls of blood vessels

A

Diapedesis

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45
Q

Phagocytes can interact with microorganisms directly via

A

Primitive pattern recognition receptors (PPRR)

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46
Q

Cytokines include

A

Chemokines
Interferons (iFN)
Interleukins
Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
Lymphotoxin
TGF

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47
Q

These stimulate leukocyte MOVEMENT AND ATTRACTION (chemotaxis)

A

Chemokines

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48
Q

A chemical that enhances phagocytosis

A

Opsonin

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49
Q

Boyden chamber assay is a test for

A

Chemotaxis

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50
Q

Function of cytokines

A

Immunoregulation

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51
Q

A cytoplasmic body formed by fusion of phagosome with a lysosome during phagocytosis

A

Phagolysosome

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52
Q

Most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms

A

Hydrogen peroxide

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53
Q

Group of proteins acting as defense against viral pathogens; interfere with viral replication

A

Interferons

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54
Q

Cytokine produced by NK cells and activated T cells

A

Interferon-gamma

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55
Q

Cytokine produced by the kidney that stimulates RBC production by the bone marrow

A

Erythropoeitin

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56
Q

Induces fever, mediator of acute phase response

A

IL-1

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57
Q

Source of IL-2

A

T cells (primarily CD4+)

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58
Q

Interleukin that acts as both inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokine

A

IL-6

59
Q

IL-1 and IL-6 are both produced by what cell

A

Macrophage

60
Q

Function of IL-8

A

Pro-inflammatory

61
Q

IL-2 regulating the T cells that produce it is a type of _____ signaling

A

Autocrine

62
Q

Substances added to vaccine to enhance immune response

A

Adjuvants

63
Q

A small molecule than can bind to a larger carrier molecule and behave as an antigen

A

Hapten

64
Q

Mitogen that activates both B and T cells

A

Pokeweed mitogen

65
Q

Mitogen that activates T cells

A

Phytohemagglutinin
Concanavalin A

66
Q

Mitogen that activates B cells

A

Lipopolysaccharide

67
Q

HLA complex is located primarily on chromosome

A

6

68
Q

Anticoagulant used for HLA phenotyping, DNA and paternity testing

A

ACD

69
Q

Purified _____ is used for HLA class I typing

A

T cell

70
Q

Purified _____ is used for HLA class II typing

A

B cell

71
Q

Tests performed in paternity testing

A

HLA typing
DNA testing

72
Q

BM transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for what antigen system

A

HLA

73
Q

Ability of the antigen to induce antibody formation is known as

A

Immunogenicity

74
Q

It is influenced by foreignness, molecular size, chemical complexity, and route, dosage and timing

A

Immunogenicity

75
Q

__________ antibodies are formed after exposure to environmental agents

A

Naturally-occurring

76
Q

Antigens shared by genetically identical twins are characterized as

A

Syngeneic

77
Q

Antigen determinant; ANTIGEN binding

A

Paratope

77
Q

Antigen determinant; ANTIBODY binding

A

Epitope

78
Q

Refers to the heavy chain that determines the IMMUNOGLOBULIN CLASS

A

Isotype

79
Q

Refers to the variations in the CONSTANT regions of heavy and light chains

A

Allotype

80
Q

Refers to the variations in the VARIABLE regions of heavy and light chains

A

Idiotype

81
Q

u heavy chain; chromosome ___

A

14

82
Q

kappa and lambda light chains; chromosome ___ & ___

A

2 and 22

83
Q

Region of immunoglobulin molecule that can bind antigen

A

Fab

84
Q

Flexibility of the hinge region is due to what amino acid

A

Proline

85
Q

Determines the passage of Ig through the placenta, contains the CHO component and determines C’ fixation

A

Fc region

86
Q

Region that determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement

A

CH (Constant heavy chain)

87
Q

Pepsin cleaves IgG into how many fragments

A

2

88
Q

Papain cleaves IgG into how many fragments

A

3

89
Q

Fragments of IgG formed by pepsin

A

1 Fab, 1 Fc

90
Q

Fragments of IgG formed by papain

A

2 Fab, 1 Fc

91
Q

Predominant antibody in PRIMARY immune respone

A

IgM

92
Q

Predominant antibody in SECONDARY (anamnestic) immune response

A

IgG

93
Q

Antibody type capable of agglutination; C’ fixation, opsonization and toxin neutralization

A

IgM

94
Q

IgG subclass best to cross the placenta

A

IgG1

95
Q

IgG subclass that does not cross the placenta

A

IgG2

96
Q

IgG subclass best to fix complement

A

IgG3 (IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2)

97
Q

IgG subclass that is ineffective in fixing the complement

A

IgG4

98
Q

Stimulates IgE production

A

Allergen

99
Q

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in

A

Number and position of disulfide bridges

100
Q

Immunoglobulin classes found on B lymphocytes

A

IgM and IgD

101
Q

_____ appears first on the surface of developing B cells, followed by

A

IgM, IgD

102
Q

Immunoglobulin present on mature B cells

A

IgM and IgD

103
Q

Reaginic antibody

A

IgE

104
Q

IgE antibodies are heat (labile or stable)

A

Labile

105
Q

IgE interacts with what cell

A

Eosinophil, basophil, mast cell

106
Q

What immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine

A

IgE

107
Q

Immunoglobulin type (s) that contain (s) J chain

A

IgA and IgM

108
Q

Bond that connects IgM monomers

A

Disulfide (s-s) bond

109
Q

Test that measures ALLERGEN-SPECIFIC IgE antibodies

A

Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)

110
Q

Test that measures TOTAL IgE antibodies

A

Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)

111
Q

Immunoglobulin type found in secretions and is responsible for mucosal immunity

A

IgA

112
Q

IgA level in absolute IgA deficiency

A

<0.5 mg/dL

113
Q

Role of IgD

A

B cell receptor, immunoregulation

114
Q

Named with a capital C followed by a number

A

Complement proteins

115
Q

A small letter after the number means that the protein is a smaller protein derived from _____ of a larger precursor by a pretease

A

Cleavage

116
Q

Alternative pathway generates __________ that activates C3

A

C3 convertase (C3bBb)

117
Q

Lipopolysaccharides, inulin, zymosan, and endotoxins and the aggregated IgG2, IgA and IgE activates the

A

Alternative pathway

118
Q

PROPERDIN is associated with what complement pathway

A

Alternative pathway

119
Q

Lectin pathway begins with what protein

A

MBP (mannan binding protein) / Lectins

120
Q

Complement protein with the highest MOLECULAR WEIGHT

A

C1qrs complex bound to Ca2

121
Q

Complement protein with the highest PLASMA CONCENTRATION

A

C3

122
Q

Complement protein COMMON to all the pathways

A

C3

123
Q

Complement protein that serves as an OPSONIN

A

C3b

124
Q

Anaphylatoxins

A

C3b, C4a, C5a

125
Q

Anaphylatoxin and chemotaxin

A

C5a

126
Q

C3 convertase in the classical and alternative pathways

A

Classical = C4b2a
Alternative = C3bBb

127
Q

C5 convertase in the classical and alternative pathways

A

Classical = C4b2a3b
Alternative = C3bBb3b

128
Q

Membrane attack complex

A

C5b678

129
Q

In vitro hemolysis in blood bank is usually caused by what complement pathway

A

Classical

130
Q

Complement is inactivated at what temperature

A

56C

131
Q

Inactivation of the complement

A

56C for 30 minutes

132
Q

Reinactivation of the complement

A

56C for 10 minutes

133
Q

Many autoimmune diseases are associated with genes in the _____ region

A

MHC

134
Q

Many autoimmune diseases are associated with specific _____ HLA

A

Class II

135
Q

Anti-thyroglobulin titer in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

> 1:1000

136
Q

Nonspecific indicator of inflammation; antibody to the C-polysaccharide of pneumococci

A

CRP

137
Q

CRP is produced by what cell

A

Hepatic cells

138
Q

Normal concentration of CRP in the blood

A

0.5 mg/dL

139
Q

In acute inflammation, CRP increases _____ and serum amyloid A increases _____

A

CRP = 20-1000x
Serum Amyloid A = 1000x

140
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is associated to what protein

A

Neural thread protein

141
Q

The “CA” in the tumor marker stands for

A

Carbohydrate Ag / Cancer Ag

142
Q

Expressed in developing FETUS and tumors, but absent in normal adult tissues

A

Oncofetal antigen

143
Q

Patient has PSA of 60 ng/mL before surgery, 1 week following surgery, PSA was 8 ng/mL. Reason?

A

Testing too soon after surgery

Hubble Notes (13 decks)

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