Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet3 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Question,Option(s),Answer

Answer

A

Question,Answer,Explanation

Question 2

Q

1,In the map the given four areas are differently shaded, three of which indicate cereal crops production areas and one indicates non-cereal crop production area. As per the index given, the non-cereal crop production area is :, (a) 1 ,(b) 2 ,(c) 3 ,(d) 4,

Answer

A

1,d,Cotton grows in Andhra Pradesh due to its suitable climate and soil conditions.

Question 3

Q

2,Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease :, (a) leaf blight ,(b) leaf spot ,(c) leaf rust ,(d) rut,

Answer

A

2,c,Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was discontinued due to the leaf rust disease caused by Hemileia vastatrix, affecting both the fruit and leaves of coffee plants.

Question 4

Q

3,Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a good crop of wheat?, (a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall ,(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall ,(c) High temperature and moderate rainfall ,(d) Low temperature and low rainfall,

Answer

A

3,a,Wheat is a temperate region crop and requires moderate temperatures (not exceeding 20°C) and rainfall between 50-100 cm for optimal growth.

Question 5

Q

4,Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak valley?, (a) Jute ,(b) Tea ,(c) Sugarcane ,(d) Cotton,

Answer

A

4,a,Jute is the major crop of Barak Valley in Assam due to its ideal temperature (25° to 30°C) and rainfall (100 to 200 cm) conditions for jute cultivation.

Question 6

Q

Which of the following pairs of states and their important
crops are correctly matched? [1996]
Kerala–Tapioca
Maharashtra–Cotton
West Bengal–Jute
Gujarat–Groundnut
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

A

5,d,Tapioca is not a significant crop in Kerala, making option 1 incorrect.

Question 7

Q

6,Which one of the following areas of India produces largest amount of cotton?, (a) North-west India and Gangetic West Bengal ,(b) North-west and western India ,(c) Western and southern India ,(d) Plains of northern India,

Answer

A

6,c,Western and Southern India, including states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, are the largest producers of cotton in India.

Question 8

Q

7,Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings?, (a) Maize ,(b) Sorghum ,(c) Onion ,(d) Soyabean,

Answer

A

7,c,Onions are typically cultivated by transplanting seedlings.

Question 9

Q

8,Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:, List-I List-II (Crops) (Geographical conditions) A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high altitude D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil, (a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3 (b) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2 (c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3 (d) A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D –1,

Answer

A

8,a,Barley requires cool climates with poor soil quality, whereas rice needs hot and moist climates with rich soil. Millets thrive in hot and dry climates with poor soil, while tea requires warm and moist climates with high altitude.

Question 10

Q

9,Consider the map given below: The place marked A, B, C and D in the map are respectively known for the cultivation of :, (a) groundnut, ragi, tobacco and sugarcane ,(b) groundnut, sugarcane, ragi and tobacco ,(c) ragi, sugarcane, groundnut and tobacco ,(d) ragi, groundnut, sugarcane and tobacco,

Answer

A

9,b,The places marked on the map correspond to Gujarat (groundnut), Maharashtra (sugarcane), Orissa/Andhra Pradesh (ragi), and Andhra Pradesh (tobacco).

Question 11

Q

10,The following are the major oilseeds produced in India: 1. Sesamum 2. Mustard 3. Groundnut 4. Soyabean Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the descending order of the quantity of their production?, (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 ,(b) 3, 2, 4, 1 ,(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 ,(d) 3, 4, 2, 1,

Answer

A

10,d,The correct descending order of oilseed production is Groundnut > Soyabean > Mustard > Sesamum.

Question 12

Q

11,Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:, List-I List-II (Agricultural products) (Foremost producer) A. Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Gram 2. Gujarat C. Black pepper 3. West Bengal D. Pineapple 4. Kerala / Agriculture B 52 Topicwise Solved Papers Codes: (a) A-2; B-1; C- 4; D-3 (b) A-2; B-1; C- 3; D-4 (c) A-1; B-2; C- 4; D-3 (d) A-1; B-2; C- 3; D-4

Answer

A

11,a,Gujarat is the leading producer of cotton, while gram is produced in Madhya Pradesh, black pepper in Kerala, and pineapple in West Bengal.

Question 13

Q

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists: [1999]
List-I List-II
A. Cotton 1. Rainfall 1000–1500 mm;
Temperature 40°–60°C
B. Flax 2. Rainfall 1500–2000 mm;
Temperature 25°–35°C
C. Sugar beet 3. Rainfall 600–800 mm;
Temperature 5°–18º C
D. Jute 4. Rainfall 500–1000 mm;
Temperature 18°–22°C
Rainfall 500–600 mm;
Temperature 18°–22°C
Codes:
(a) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2 (b) A-2; B-3; C-5; D-4
(c) A-4; B-5; C-2; D-1 (d) A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2

Answer

A

12,b,The matching of crops with their suitable climatic conditions is: A-Cotton, B-Flax, C-Sugar beet, D-Jute.

Question 14

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13,Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly?, (a) Organic farming (b) Shifting cultivation (c) Cultivation of high yielding varieties (d) Growing plants in glass-houses,

Answer

A

13,a,Organic farming avoids synthetic and chemical inputs like fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 15

Q

14,Assertion (A) : Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene. Reason (R) : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium., (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true,

Answer

A

14,a,The assertion and reason are both true, and the reason explains why Bt gene is used in insect-resistant transgenic cotton.

Question 16

Q

15,Assertion (A) : In Australia, cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk. Reason (R) : Australians are traditionally nonvegetarians, (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true,

Answer

A

15,b,While the assertion is correct, the reason does not directly explain it but is true; Australian farmers rear cattle for meat, and the majority of Australians are non-vegetarians.

Question 17

Q

16,The high density of population in Nile valley and Islands of Java is primarily due to :, (a) intensive agriculture (b) industrialization (c) urbanization (d) topographic limitations,

Answer

A

16,a,The assertion is true as intensive agricultural practices are facilitated by fertile alluvial soil in regions like the Nile river and Java islands, leading to high population density.

Question 18

Q

17,With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct?, (a) About 90 percent of the area under pulses in India is rainfed (b) Share of pulses in the gross cropped are at the national level has doubled in the last two decades. (c) India accounts for about 15 percent of the total area under rice in the world (d) Rice occupies about 34 percent of the gross cropped are in India,

Answer

A

17,a,About 90% of the area under pulses in Indian agriculture is rainfed, but pulses require less water for cultivation, leading to hampered production due to insufficient rainfall.

Question 19

Q

18,Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India: 1. Arjun 2. Jaya 3. Padma 4. Sonalika Which of these are of wheat?, (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4,

Answer

A

18,c,Arjun and Sonalika are hybrid varieties of wheat developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

Question 20

Q

19,Assertion (A) : Eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast. Reason (R) : Eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast., (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true,

Answer

A

19,c,While the assertion is true, the reason is false. The western coast of India receives more rainfall than the eastern coast, providing suitable conditions for rice cultivation.

Question 21

Q

20,Consider the following statements: 1. India is the original home of the cotton plant 2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production Which of these statements is/are correct?, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Answer

A

20,c,India is the original home of the cotton plant and ranks first in the world in terms of cotton cultivation. Various hybrid varieties like H–4, Raj–16, Dhanalaxmi, and Fateh have been developed in India.

Question 22

Q

21,The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of :, (a) Agriculture (b) Environment and Forests (c) Commerce and Industry (d) Rural-Development,

Answer

A

21,a,The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Question 23

Q

22,Consider the following statements: 1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production 2. India ranks second in the world in export of tobacco Which of these statements is/are correct?, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2,

Answer

A

22,d,India ranks second in fruit production globally and sixth in tobacco production.

Question 24

Q

23,Consider the following crops: 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Maize 4. Mustard Which of the above are kharif crops?, (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4,

Answer

A

23,b,Cotton, Groundnut, and Maize are kharif crops, while Mustard is a rabi crop.

Question 25

Q

24,Consider the following statements: 1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk. 2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above less is/are correct?, (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Answer

A

24,a,India rears five varieties of silkworms for producing five types of silk: Mulberry silk, Muga silk, Tasar silk, Oak Tasar silk, and Eri silk. India is the second-largest producer of sugar in the world.

Question 26

Q

25,Which one of the following statements is correct?, (a) The first meeting of the Parties (MOP) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Phillippines in the year 2004. (b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety protocol/ convention on Biological Diversity. (c) The Biosafety protoco1 deals with genetically modified organisms. (d) United State of America is member of the Biosafety protocol/convention on Biological diversity.

Answer

A

25,c,The Biosafety Protocol regulates international trade, handling, and use of genetically engineered organisms to ensure biodiversity conservation and human health. India is a signatory member to the protocol.

Question 27

Q

26,Assertion (A): The percentage of net sown area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to that of West Bengal. Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is laterite. [2006],(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true,

Answer

A

26,c,Laterite soil, found in regions with high rainfall and temperature, is suitable for crops like rice, ragi, and sugarcane.

Question 28

Q

27,Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production (in million tones) of the given foodgrains in India? [2007],(a) Wheat - Rice - Pulses - Coarse Cereals (b) Rice - Wheat - Pulses - Coarse Cereals (c) Wheat - Rice - Coarse Cereals - Pulses (d) Rice - Wheat - Coarse Cereals - Pulses,

Answer

A

27,d,The correct sequence of production in decreasing order in India is Rice – Wheat – Coarse cereals – Pulses.

Question 29

Q

28,Assertion (A) : There are no tea plantations in any African country. [2007] Reason (R) : Tea plants need fertile soil with high humus.,(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true,

Answer

A

28,d,Tea cultivation was present in three African countries in the 20th century (Tanzania, Kenya, Uganda), making the assertion false. However, the reason is true as tea plants require organic or loamy soils.

Question 30

Q

29,Dalbergia species is associated with which one of the following? [2007],(a) Cashewnut (b) Coffee (c) Tea (d) Rosewood,

Answer

A

29,d,Rosewood is associated with the Dalbergia species, which is used for aromatic oils and as food plants.

Question 31

Q

30,Which one of the following places was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan Movement at the beginning of the movement? [2007],(a) Udaygiri (b) Rapur (c) Pochampalli (d) Venkatagiri,

Answer

A

30,c,The Bhoodan Movement, initiated by Acharya Vinoba Bhave on April 18, 1951, began at Pochampalli village in Telangana (Andhra Pradesh).

Question 32

Q

31,Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world? [2008],(a) Brazil (b) China (c) India (d) USA,

Answer

A

31,c,India has the largest livestock population globally, with significant numbers of cattle and buffalo, according to the 17th Livestock Census in 2003.

Question 33

Q

32,Consider the following statements: 1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production. 2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee producing region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Answer

A

32,(d),Chikmagalur is famous for coffee. Mandya is famous for sugar and paper production.

Question 34

Q

33,Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. 2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?,(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Answer

A

33,(c),Not only the tea plants but also the coffee plants can be propagated by seeds and stem cutting.

Question 35

Q

34,With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices: 1. Crop rotation 2. Sand fences 3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?,(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,

Answer

A

34,allare used(c),The different types of soil erosion in India are Normal or Geologic Erosion, Accelerated soil Erosion, Wind Erosion, Water Erosion, sheet Erosion, Gully Erosion, Land slides or slip Erosion and stream-bank Erosion.

Question 36

Q

35,An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops? [2010],(a) Rice and wheat only (b) Rice, wheat and pulses only (c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only (d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables,

Answer

A

35,(b),National Food Security Mission launched by government of India to increase the food production of rice, wheat and pulses and commercial gaps like sugarcance jute. The target is to increase the production of rice by 10 million tones, wheat by 8 million tones and pulses, by 2 million tones by the end of Eleventh Plan.

Question 37

Q

36,Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/ reasons is this is attributable? [2010] 1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane. 2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Answer

A

36,(c),As per scientific estimations it has been suggested that more than 2 per cent of human-induced climate warming can be attributed to rice farming. It is predominantly due to methane, a potent greenhouse gas emitted from flooded rice fields. Methanogen bacteria in the waterlogged soil produce it in large quantities. Nitrous oxide is also released from cultivated fields due to transformation of nitrogen based fertilizers that can have a harmful climate effect.

Question 38

Q

37,Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason? [2010] 1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State. 2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available. Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?,(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Answer

A

37,(b),The predominant soil in Tamil Nadu is red which supports cotton cultivation and a rich pool of skilled labour is available in Tamil Nadu.

Question 39

Q

38,Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol ? [2010],(a) Jatropha (b) Maize (c) Pongamia (d) Sunflower,

Answer

A

38,(b),Maize is one of the carbohydrate rich crops; hence it is more suited for ethanol-production among the given crops.

Question 40

Q

39,Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land ? [2011 - I],(a) It greatly increases the crop production (b) It makes some soils impermeable (c) It raises the water table (d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water,

Answer

A

39,(b),Salinization for a long time on the irrigated land led to soil impermeability.

Question 41

Q

40,Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’? [2012 - I],(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops (b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together (d) None of the above,

Answer

A

40,(c),Mixed farming refer to rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.

Question 42

Q

41,Consider the following crops of India : 1. Cowpea 2. Green gram 3. Pigeon pea Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3,

Answer

A

41,ais the upsc official answer key(d),All these crops are leguminous crop (Pulses crops), and have the capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen through symbiotic nitrogen fixation.

Question 43

Q

42,Consider the following crops of India : 1. Groundnut 2. Sesamum 3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are predominantly rained crop/crops?,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3,

Answer

A

42,(d),All of them are predominantly rain fed crops.

Question 44

Q

43,Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in [2013 - I],(a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action (b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding (c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth (d) None of the above,

Answer

A

43,(d),Contour Bunding is one of the simple method of soil and water conservation. This technique is used at places where the land is sloppy. Due to slope, soil and nutrients erode fast which makes agriculture on this land very uneconomical. To adopt this technique the agriculture fields contours are marked and then the bunds are taken along the contours.

Question 45

Q

44,Consider the following crops: 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Wheat Which of these are Kharif crops?,(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

A

44,(c),Rice is the main kharif crop and groundnut and cotton are also the kharif crops wheat is a rabi.

Question 46

Q

45,With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements : 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites. 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents. 3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

45,(c),Neem oil can be used as pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites and also has applications in pharmaceutical industry as neem oil has various medicinal properties.

Question 47

Q

46,Consider the following pairs : Region Well-known for the production of 1. Kinnaur : Areca nut 2. Mewat : Mango 3. Coromandel : Soya bean Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

Answer

A

46,(d),Kinnaur (Himachal) is famous for apples. Areca nut mostly confined to Karnataka, Kerala and Assam. Mewat in haryana is not famous for mango. UP is famous for mango. Similarly, coromandel coast is not famous for soya beans. Top two producers of soya are Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra which are outside coromandel coast. Therefore, (d) is the correct option.

Question 48

Q

47,Consider the following techniques phenomena : 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?,(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None

Answer

A

47,(b,Cytoplasmic male sterility and gene silencing are used for creation of transgenic crops. Grafting and budding in fruit plants are not used for transgenic crop production but used during regular horticulture practices.

Question 49

Q

48,Consider the following statements : 1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

48,(d),All three statements are correct as Maize can be used for the production of starch. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Question 50

Q

49,What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’? 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

A

49,(b),NPK (fertilizers) can be applied at the rate of 112 kg, 25 kg and 48 kg per acre, respectively through inorganic or organic methods. Hence statement #3 is wrong, this eliminates (a), (c) and (d). Therefore, answer (b) 1,2,4 only.

Question 51

Q

50,Consider the following pairs : Programme/Project Ministry
1 . Drought-Prone Area : Ministry of Agriculture Programme
2. Desert Development : Ministry of Environment Programme and Forests
3. 3. National Watershed : Ministry of Rural Development Project Development for Rainfed Areas
4. Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
5. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

Answer

A

50,(d),The draught prone area programme is by ministry of Rural development to minimize the adverse effects of drought on production of crops and livestock and productivity of land, water and human resources. The desert development programme is also by ministry of Rural development to minimize the adverse effect of drought and control desertification. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas is by ministry of agriculture.

Question 52

Q

51,What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’? 1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below.,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

A

51,(c),Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) was launched during 2009-10. It aims at Prevention of soil runoff, Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table and Regeneration of natural vegetation.

Question 53

Q

52,In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?,(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of antihistamines (d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel

Answer

A

52,(b),Guar gum is used in hydraulic fracturing technology during shale gas extraction.

Question 54

Q

53,Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants? 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

53,(c),Vegetative reproduction is a form of asexual reproduction in plants. It is a process by which new organisms arise without production of seeds. It helps in development of clones. Vegetative propagation involves only mitosis, this ensures that the genetic information in DNA of vegetative progeny (child) is same as in the mother plant and can be practiced throughout the year. However, it does not help in the elimination of viruses. Plant once systematically infected with a virus, usually remains infected for its lifetime. Thus any vegetative parts taken for propagation remain infected.

Question 55

Q

54,The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of,(a) labour-augmenting technological progress (b) capital-augmenting technological progress (c) capital-reducing technological progress (d) None of the above

Answer

A

54,(b),Capital-augmenting technological progress results in the more productive use of existing capital goods; for example, the substitution of steel from wooden ploughs in agricultural production.

Question 56

Q

55,Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?,(a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others (b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost (c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds (d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies

Answer

A

55,(b),Seed village concept is to promote the quality seed production of foundation and certified seed classes. The area which is suitable for raising a particular crop will be selected, and raised with single variety of a kind. Suitable area for seed production will be identified by the Scientists. The foundation/ certified seeds or University labelled seeds will be supplied by the University through Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) and Research Stations at 50% subsidy cost to the identified farmers in the area. The farmers will use these quality seeds and take up their own seed production in a small area (1 acre) for their own use. The crops are Rice, Pulses and Oilseeds.

Question 57

Q

56,What can be the impact of excessive / inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,(a) 1 and 3 only

Answer

A

56,(c),Excessive/ inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers increase the acidity of soil and Leaching of nitrate to the ground water.

Question 58

Q

In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the [2015-I] (a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States (c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 (d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

Answer

A

57,(b),Agricultural Produce Market Committee Acts of respective states are responsible for markets in agricultural products.

Question 59

Q

The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the [2015-I] (a) Food and Agriculture Organization EBD_7335 Agriculture B 55 (b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change (c) World Trade Organisation (d) United Nations Environment Programme

Answer

A

58,(c),’Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ are related to World Trade Organisation.

Question 60

Q

59,The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?
1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
2. 2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapers, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
3. 3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS Select the correct answer using the code given below.,(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

59,(b),(i) In order to safeguard and support the world’s agricultural heritage systems, in 2002 FAO started an initiative for the dynamic conservation of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS). The GIAHS Initiative promotes public understanding, awareness, national and international recognition of Agricultural Heritage systems. It aims to identify and ensure global recognition of the importance of unique traditional agricultural systems for food security and sustainable development. The GIAHS initiative explicitly recognises that change in “traditional” political, social and economic processes is inevitable; they cannot be frozen or re-created. (ii) There is no provision to give Geographical indication to “ALL” varieties. Hence statement 3 is wrong. By elimination method, we are left with answer (b) only 2.

Question 61

Q

60,With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation equipment. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

60,(c),(i) This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner to catalyze increased production of millets in the country. The scheme, through processing and value addition techniques, is expected to generate consumer demand for millet-based food products. Poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme. (ii) 1st and 2nd statements are right. The policy aims to give free kits, but “wanting to shift commercial crop farmers to millet” doesn’t fit logic. There is no such mention in the scheme, nor any talk about giving micro-irrigation equipment. Hence 3rd statement wrong.

Question 62

Q

61,Consider the following statements : The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct?,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

61,(b),A soil health card provides information about 12 soil parameters, so farmers can use appropriate fertilizers. Hence only 3 is the correct statement. Statement 1 and 2 are irrelevant.

Question 63

Q

62,What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ (NAM) scheme? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below: ,(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

A

62,(c),Both statements are correct as per Government notification.

Question 64

Q

63,Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below: ,(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

A

63,(c),According to the Kurukshetra Magazine November 2017 special issue on irrigation: Tillage exposes the soil to drying, conversely, reductions in tillage help conserve soil water. So #1 is right. The retention of crop residues helps in reducing water loss from the soil to the air and cools the soil. So, #3 is right. According to some random research papers & Google books even gypsum application helps in water conservation so experts were divided between Option (c) or (d). But in the official answer key UPSC has kept (c) as the correct answer.

Answer 65

A

64,(d),Since UPSC has combined the preliminary exam of civil services and forest services, so a few such odd questions are expected. There is no need to lose sleep if you can’t solve it. But let’s do it: NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 6: “Molecular Basis of Inheritance”. It explains the benefits of human genome sequencing that- “It is the sequence of bases in DNA that determines the genetic information of a given organism. So, learning about the DNA sequences can lead to an understanding of their natural capabilities that can be applied toward solving challenges in health care, agriculture, energy production, environmental remediation.” So on that logic, statement 1 and 3 should be possible, and if 1 and 3 are possible then statement 2 ought to be possible as well! So answer (d) all three statements are correct. Searching academic papers on Google Scholar engine confirms that (d) is the answer.

Answer 66

A

65,(c),Kurukshetra February 2018 Issue on Agriculture, page 43 has given three key features of conservation agriculture viz: i. minimum soil disturbance by adopting no-tillage or minimum tillage and reduced traffic for agricultural operations. So, #2 is right. This eliminates Option (a) ii. maximum soil cover by leaving crop residues on the soil surface. So, #4 is right. This eliminates Option (d) iii. adopt spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotation. So, #5 is verbatim right. Hence final answer (c).

Answer 67

A

66,(c),NCERT vocational class 11 floriculturist book page 84: When an element forms precipitate with another substance commonly found in the irrigation water, it is not advisable to use this method. Phosphorus and anhydrous ammonia may form a precipitate in water with high calcium and magnesium content. So they are not used in fertigation. So 2nd statement is wrong by elimination, we arrived at the answer “c”.

Answer 68

A

67,(d),• Open burning of crop residues in the agricultural fields has become an environmental concern in India, particularly during paddy harvesting season. ….The Union government is providing subsidy for Happy Seeders, Zero Till Seed Drill, etc. which can help planting the seeds for the next crop without burning the previous crop. So, #1 is correct. Ref: Economic Survey 2019-20 Volume 2 page 186-189. • In zero tillage, We are not disturbing the soil and we are not burning the previous crop Residue so that way, it could help in Carbon sequestration. So, #3 should be correct.

Answer 69

A

68,(a),• Sugarcane requires an annual rainfall between 75cm.and 100cm. Irrigation is required in the regions of low rainfall. So, #C eliminated. • Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days. • Jute: requires high temperature, heavy rainfall, and a humid climate • Tea: requires cool climate and well-distributed high rainfall throughout the year • Cotton: Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, 210 frost-free days. Considering these descriptions, cotton seems to be the better choice among the given options.

Answer 70

A

69,(d),• Biochar is a stable, carbon–rich form of charcoal that is applied to soil. • Biochars from manures and food wastes recorded higher nitrogen and phosphorus levels. So #2 is right. • Some biochars can increase soil fertility, water-holding capacity, and crop productivity. So #3 is right. There is only one option where #2 and #3 are together so the answer is “d”.

Answer 71

A

Question,Option,Explanation

Answer 72

A

1,b,”Best answer is 1, 2 and 3. Because only Inter State Council is a constitutional body under article 263. So option 4 should not be included.”

Answer 73

A

2,a,”Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a council or for the creation of such a council in a state having no such council, if the Legislative Assembly of the state passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.”

Answer 74

A

3,d,”According to Article 156, the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, the Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.”

Answer 75

A

4,a,”Abolition of Legislative Council of a state does not need the ratification of not less than one half states. Under Art. 169, it has been mentioned that Parliament can create or abolish the council if that every State passes a resolution to do so with special majority. So drop point 4.”

Answer 76

A

5,b,”PM resigns, if he loses the majority in the house is a convention and not mentioned in the constitution. Conventions are unwritten practices which are binding on the three organs of the State. Unlike the President, the Prime Minister does not have a fixed tenure. The full term of the Prime Minister is five years, which coincides with the normal life of the Lok Sabha. However, the term can end sooner if he loses the vote of confidence in the Lower House. So, it can be said that he remains in power as long as he enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister can also resign by writing to the President. There are no term limits on the office of the Prime Minister. There is also no official retirement age.”

Answer 77

A

6,c,”Statement given under option (c) is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But this norm is applied in Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.”

Answer 78

A

7,d,”Assertion is wrong as reservation for women in Parliament and state legislature would require a constitutional amendment.”

Answer 79

A

8,b,”Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 59. Statement 2 is correct as according to Article 79, Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.”

Answer 80

A

9,b,”The Constitution of India was enacted on Nov. 26, 1949 but it was commenced on Jan. 26, 1950.”

Answer 81

A

10,d,”Tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for anti-defection law.”

Answer 82

A

11,c,”The Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic minorities under article 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational rights). However it does not define the term Minority.”

Answer 83

A

12,d,”An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament under article 368. It does not require the President’s recommendation”

Answer 84

A

13,b,”Statement 3 is incorrect as a candidate shall not be allowed to contest from more than two constituencies, it also adds options 1 and 2.”

Answer 85

A

14,c,”73rd Amendment Act added Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution and Part IX, which provides for the Panchayati Raj System.”

Answer 86

A

15,c,”Article 350A was inserted by 7th Constitutional Amendment act 1956. It says, it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Article 349 – Special Procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350 – Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 351 – Directive for development of the Hindi language.”

Answer 87

A

16,d,”Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha.”

Answer 88

A

17,a,”(A) The constitution (69th Amendment) Act, 1991 According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi (B) The constitution (75th Amendment) Act - 1994 Establishment of state level rent tribunal (C) The constitution (18th Amendment) Act, 2000 Accepting the recommendations of the tenth finance commission. (D) The constitution (83rd Amendments) Act 2000 No reservations for scheduled castes in panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh.”

Answer 89

A

18,a,”First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that’s why it should be amended, if a new state is created.”

Answer 90

A

19,a,”(Article of the constitution) (Contents Art. 54 Election of the president of India Art. 75 Appointment of the Prime Minister Art. 155 Appointment of the Governor of a state Art. 164 Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a state.”

Answer 91

A

20,d,”44th Before the 42nd amendment, Article 74(1) stated that, “there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions”. However, there was a slight ambiguity whether the advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President. Forty-second Amendment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) made it explicit that the President shall, “act in accordance with such advice”. The 44th Amendment (1978) however added that the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it. The amendment went into effect from 20 June, 1979.”

Answer 92

A

21,b,”According to the 93rd Amendment, every child of the age group of 6-14 years shall have the right to free and compulsory education. No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/capitation fee/charges. A collection of capitation fee invites a fine up to 10 times the amount collected.”

Answer 93

A

22,a,”These are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution, running from Article 14 – 32.”

Answer 94

A

23,d,”The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish social and economic democracy. Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.”

Answer 95

A

24,a,”This comes under Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution. Article 51 states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.”

Answer 96

A

25,a,”The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act of 1951, which relates to Land Reforms.”

Answer 97

A

26,c,”The President can issue Ordinances under Article 123.”

Answer 98

A

27,b,”Article 143 provides power to the President to consult the Supreme Court.”

Answer 99

A

28,d,”According to Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.”

Answer 100

A

29,d,”Borrowed features from different countries are correct.”

Answer 101

A

30,c,”The 7th Amendment Act of 1956 provides for the composition of the House of the People and re-adjustment after every census. The 31st Amendment Act of 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.”

Answer 102

A

31,a,”The ‘First Schedule’ of the constitution deals with the list of States and Union Territories.”

Answer 103

A

32,d,”The Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament).”

Answer 104

A

33,a,”Article 257 in the Constitution states that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on the States in certain cases; Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; Article 358: Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during emergencies.”

Answer 105

A

34,c,”These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.”

Answer 106

A

35,a,”Article 24 of the constitution states that, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.”

Answer 107

A

36,a,”The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments were passed by Parliament in December 1992. Through these amendments, local self-governance was introduced in rural and urban India. The Acts came into force as the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 on April 24, 1993, and the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992, on June 1, 1993. These amendments added two new parts to the constitution, namely, 73rd Amendment added Part IX titled ‘The Panchayats’ and 74th Amendment added Part IXA titled ‘The Municipalities’. The Local bodies-‘Panchayats’ and ‘Municipalities’ came under Part IX and IXA of the Constitution after 43 years of India becoming a republic.”

Answer 108

A

37,d,”Article 371A to I deals with special provisions for Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Goa. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by naturalization or by registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if they acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.”

Answer 109

A

38,b,”The Constitution 98th Amendment Bill, 2003, seeks to constitute a National Judicial Commission (NJC) by including Chapter IV-A in Part V of the Constitution, which will be in charge of appointing judges to the higher judiciary and for transferring High Court Judges.”

Answer 110

A

39,c,”The Constitution of India has 24 parts, 12 schedules, and more than 444 articles at present. In the original constitution, there were 22 parts, 8 schedules, and 395 articles. Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. Eleventh Schedule was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.”

Answer 111

A

40,c,”Chairman of different Committees of Constituent Assembly: Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru, Drafting Committee – B R Ambedkar, Flag Committee – J B Kriplani, Fundamental Rights and Minority Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel, Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel. Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee.”

Answer 112

A

41,a,”Agriculture (Entry 14), Fisheries (Entry 21), Public Health (Entry 6) are in the State List. Regulation of Labour and safety in mines and oil fields is in the Union list under Entry 55 (Art 246).”

Answer 113

A

42,c,”The Indian Parliament has passed the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill, providing reservations for the socially and educationally backward classes, besides the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, in all private aided and unaided educational institutions.”

Answer 114

A

43,c,”Superintendence, direction, and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission under Article 324.”

Answer 115

A

44,c,”Statement 1 is incorrect as this provision was added by the 86th Amendment Act (not 76th).”

Answer 116

A

45,a,”The above provision has been added by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.”

Answer 117

A

46,b,”Statement 1 is incorrect as it is a Fundamental Right under Article 23 of Part III of the Constitution. Statement 2 corresponds to Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 47 under Part IV of the Constitution.”

Answer 118

A

47,b,”Fifth schedule relates to the control and administration of scheduled areas in states other than Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, and Mizoram. While the Sixth Schedule deals with the administration and control of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura.”

Answer 119

A

48,c,”92nd Amendment Act 2003 added Bodo, Santhali, Maithali, and Dogri languages in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution. Originally, there were 14 languages in the 8th schedule. 21st amendment act added Sindhi language. 71st amendment act added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages.”

Answer 120

A

49,b,”The above provision has been added by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003.”

Answer 121

A

50,b,”The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP), which came into effect from 15th August 1995, represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 (Right to Work, to Education, and to Public Assistance in certain cases) of the Constitution.”

Answer 122

A

51,a,”To vote in public elections is not a fundamental duty.”

Answer 123

A

52,b,”Organizing village Panchayats and promoting cottage industries in rural areas are the Gandhian principles reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy.”

Answer 124

A

53,b,”Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution empowering the parliament to make laws in the state list and to create one or more All India Services. This is a special power conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution.”

Answer 125

A

54,d,”The items DPSP, Rural and Urban Local Bodies, 6th Schedule, 7th Schedule provide provision for education.”

Answer 126

A

55,c,”CAG gives three audit reports to the president, which are laid by the president before both houses of parliament. Subsequently, the Public Accounts Committee examines them and reports its findings to parliament.”

Answer 127

A

56,c,”All statements except 2 regarding the Fundamental Duties of citizens are correct.”

Answer 128

A

57,c,”Distribution of power between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Government of India Act, 1935.”

Answer 129

A

58,c,”The members of the Constituent Assembly from the provinces were indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.”

Answer 130

A

59,c,”Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and State government of India to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. They act as a check on the government. It is a yardstick in the hands of the people to measure the performance of the government. It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.”

Answer 131

A

60,d,”An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of parliament. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires ratification by the legislature of at least half of the states.”

Answer 132

A

61,d,”National Development Council is not a constitutional body. It is an extra-constitutional body. Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was created by the Government of India in 1950 by a resolution. Zonal councils were set up under the States Re-Organization Act, 1956 (so it is not a constitutional body) to foster interstate cooperation and coordination among the states. Currently, there are a total of five zonal councils viz Northern, Western, Eastern, Central, and Southern.”

Answer 133

A

62,b,”Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. Planning for economic development and social justice is one such power given to village panchayats. There are 52 items in the concurrent list. Economic and social planning is placed under entry no. 20. Article 40 of the Constitution of India has the provision for the organization of village panchayats. Directive Principles of state policy lay down that the state shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. Accordingly, village panchayats have been entrusted with the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. The National Development Council includes members of the Planning Commission, but it is a separate body.”

Answer 134

A

63,b,”The Preamble to the Constitution of India in its introductory statement says - “Justice- Social, Economic and Political” and the Directive Principles of state policies aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.”

Answer 135

A

64,d,”The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 added the 10th schedule to the Constitution. This is often referred to as the anti-defection law.”

Answer 136

A

65,b,”Promotion of international peace and security is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 51 of the Constitution, which mentions promoting international peace and security, maintaining just and honorable relations between nations, fostering respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encouraging settlements of international disputes by arbitration.”

Answer 137

A

66,a,”The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in these areas. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.”

Answer 138

A

67,d,”The Supreme Court of India is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of the custodian of the Constitution.”

Answer 139

A

68,d,”The idea behind the incorporation of fundamental duties was to remind the citizens of the country that they have certain obligations towards the country and society. The fundamental duties were added to the Constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. There were ten fundamental duties at the time of incorporation, but the eleventh was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India is one of the fundamental duties mentioned in the Constitution.”

Answer 140

A

69,b,”A welfare state is a concept of the government in which the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) provides guidelines to the central and state governments of India to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. The concept behind DPSP is to establish a ‘Welfare State’ rather than a ‘Police State’ such as of the colonial era. In other words, the motive behind the inclusion of DPSP is to establish social and economic democracy rather than political democracy.”

Answer 141

A

70,c,”Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For example, consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth, and ensuring that wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other articles provide for the health of children, rights of working women, etc. DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.”

Answer 142

A

71,d,”If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.”

Answer 143

A

72,b,”The preamble given in any school textbook reads: ‘We, the people of India,…LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship…’ So, ‘B’ is the answer.”

Answer 144

A

73,a,”Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly, had said ‘The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long.’ So ‘A’ is the answer.”

Answer 145

A

74,c,”Prof. D.D. Basu classifies fundamental rights in the following manner: Right against exploitation, Right to equality, Cultural and educational rights. So, 1 and 4 are fitting. Abolition of untouchability. So ‘2’ is wrong in the classification. This eliminates A and D. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. Minorities rights. So ‘3’ is wrong in classification. By elimination, we are left with answer 1 and 4 only.”

Answer 146

A

75,c,”New NCERT, Std. 11, Political Theory Chapter 5: Rights, Page 72. Through these rights, people make demands upon the state. So, ‘C’ is the most fitting answer.”

Answer 147

A

76,d,”Statement 1: While FDs can be enforced by legislative processes (for example, the Environment Protection Act that helps enforce the individual duty of environmental protection), the constitution explicitly does not enforce them via legal provisions or does not explicitly mention in Part IVA that there are legislative processes to enforce them. However, since the Parliament has enforced most fundamental duties already via a legislative process, we will consider this statement 1 as correct. Statement 2: It is not clear what UPSC means by ‘legal duties’, but for all practical purposes, it can be considered as ‘law of the land’. FDs are in sync with legal duties because what is illegal cannot be a fundamental duty, and what is a fundamental duty has also been made a legal duty (e.g. respecting women). Also, it is an Indian citizen’s fundamental duty to abide by the constitutional laws (legal duties); this brings the correlation. Statement 2 is thus correct.”

Answer 148

A

77,a,”Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable, hence A is the answer.”

Answer 149

A

78,b,”The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State: 1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39). 2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A). 3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A). 4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).”

Answer 150

A

79,d,”The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive, and administrative matters. Noted constitutional author Granville Austin considers DPSP as ‘positive obligations’ of the state. Since both the statements are wrong, the answer is (d).”

Answer 151

A

80,a,”First statement is correct. The 1st Amendment to the constitution (1951) had inserted new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule, thus securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws by, among other things, specifying that they could not be challenged on the grounds that they violated the Fundamental Rights. Subsequent governments have added other progressive laws in the same, to give them immunity from litigation. The government adds the acts in the 9th schedule, ‘via parliament’ so the first statement is right. In I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. So statement #2 is WRONG.”

Answer 152

A

81,b,”Residuary powers were in the hands of the Governor-General.”

Answer 153

A

82,b,”Concept of Negative Liberty: Historically speaking, the term liberty was initially defined as the absence of all restraints on an individual. John Stuart Mill, the nineteenth-century English political philosopher, described, ‘Restraint as an evil’. Mill was especially worried about the restraints coming from the state and society. From this concept, we can infer A: if there are more laws, there is less liberty. Concept of Positive Liberty: Since individuals live together in a society, complete absence of restraints would be neither possible nor desirable. It has been very aptly said that your liberty to swing your arm ends where my nose begins. For liberty to be enjoyed by everyone, it should have reasonable restraints. The freedom of many requires restraint of law on the freedom of some. Later liberals supported positive liberty. From this concept, we can infer B: if there are no laws, there is no liberty. So, as such, both A and B (and even D) seem ‘appropriate’, but the question also asks which one reflects both ‘appropriate’ and ‘nicest’ - Option B is the nicest of them three.”

Answer 154

A

83,c,,”This idea of the rule of law implies that all individuals - rich and poor, men or women, forward or backward castes - are subjected to the same law. So, #2 is right. (Equality before the law). The principal role of the judiciary is to protect the rule of law and ensure supremacy of law. It safeguards the rights of the individual…and ensures that democracy does not give way to individual or group dictatorship. So, it also means #1 and #4 are right. Statement #3 is irrelevant, so by elimination, we are left with Option (c).”

Answer 155

A

84,c,,”The Supreme Court ruled that ‘the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution’ so Option c is right. [Ref: IndianExpress 2017-August] Let’s also look at the wrong options: Article 14: Gives the Right to Equality. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976, is known as mini constitution. Article 17: Related to the Abolition of Untouchability. It is part of Right to Equality. Part IV- Directive Principles of State Policy, does not have any mention of Privacy. Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. 44th Constitution Amendment- 44th amendment of the Constitution was enacted by the Janata Government mainly to nullify some of the amendments made by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.”

Answer 156

A

85,b,,”‘Keeping election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review’ is a wrong statement. 99th Amendment had replaced the collegium system of appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a new body called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). In 2015, SC held ‘ultra vires’ the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act and the NJAC

Answer 157

A

86,c,,”The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit motion for impeachment of SC Judges. The address to remove SC Judge must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). So #4 is right, answer is C.”

Answer 158

A

87,b,,”Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas. The Governor can make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes. So, B is the right answer.”

Answer 159

A

88,b,,”Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court. 142 is an Article between 124-147 so, the closest match is B: related to Supreme Court.”

Answer 160

A

89,(c),,As per the bare act: In case of a woman who has two or more children, the maternity benefit will continue to be 12 weeks. If less than two children then she’ll get 26 weeks paid leave. Every establishment with 50 or more employees to provide crèche facilities within a prescribed distance. The woman will be allowed four visits to the crèche in a day. So #2 is wrong. We are left with Answer C: only 3.

Answer 161

A

90,(d),,The Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the judiciary. I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. Thus #1 is wrong. So, D: neither 1 nor 2 correct

Answer 162

A

91,(b),,Article 75: The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. So, b is the right choice.

Answer 163

A

92,(a),,Directive principles of state policy are given in the Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Article 36®51). Within that, Article 38 mentioned about State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.

Answer 164

A

93,(b),,Constitution of India does not define the term ‘basic structure’. It is a judicial tool that was invented by the Supreme Court of India in the Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) landmark judgment. Even though, the Supreme Court invented the concept of Basic Structure in the aforementioned judgment, it did not define the same. However, it is only in the later judgments that the court has added various elements to the list of the basic structure of the Constitution. So, 1st statement is incorrect. Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘CONCEPT’ of Judicial Review however, it does not explicitly mentions the term judicial review. But assuming that question is asking in general sense, the answer should be “b”: Only 2nd statement correct.

Answer 165

A

94,(a),,Stateless Society: A society which lacks formal institutions of government. Gandhiji is a philosophical anarchist. Anarchist is one who is opposed to every type of state; Gandhian Ramrajya is that it is a self-regulating system where everyone is one’s own ruler. Marxism revolves a classless society and stateless society. Karl Marx had predicted that the proletariats will take control of the state and production, then destroy all class differences and class antagonisms, and finally resulting in the ‘withering Away of the State’. Thus, the end result will be a stateless society. Thus, we can inform that both Gandhi & Marx aimed for Stateless society.

Answer 166

A

95,(d),,A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. Berubari Vs Union (1960): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) ® Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. The combined effect of the 3 judgments has been that even though the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but it is not enforceable in a court of law. However, the Preamble helps in ascertaining the vision of the Constitution and hence, independently, it is non-justiciable.

Answer 167

A

96,(d),,Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy (Article 36 to Article 51) Article 37: Provisions of Part-IV shall not be enforceable by any court (Hence, 2nd statement is correct) Article 37 of the Indian Constitution also states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country. So, #3 is correct. So, by elimination, the answer is d.

Answer 168

A

97,(d),,Preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about dignity of an individual. Preamble of Indian Constitution speaks about “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity” So #1 is correct. Article 23 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about the Right to Work. Similar concept in Article 41 of the Indian Constitution, under the head of DPSPs. Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about duties. A similar concept that was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A).

Answer 169

A

Question,Option,Description

Answer 170

A

1,c,”The Election commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country. The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.”

Answer 171

A

2,c,”The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution of India is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the states; up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President of India, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.”

Answer 172

A

3,d,”As India follows Universal Adult Suffrage, elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature (i.e., LAs) have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The State Legislature, besides making laws, also has one electoral power in electing the President of India. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly along with the elected members of Parliament are involved in this process.”

Answer 173

A

4,d,”There are only five states with bicameral legislature (Legislative Assembly as well as Legislative Council) - UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Jammu & Kashmir.”

Answer 174

A

5,b,”In Gujarat and Maharashtra, the Chief Ministers come under the ambit of Lok Ayukta Act.”

Answer 175

A

6,d,”All the parties mentioned are state level parties.”

Answer 176

A

7,b,”Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) was concerned with electoral reforms. It suggested providing state funding in kind to political parties. It also suggested that a candidate should not be allowed to contest election from more than two constituencies.”

Answer 177

A

8,d,”A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one-sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit. When a very large number of candidates contest the election, due to the distribution of votes, the winning candidate may get less than 1/6th of valid voters.”

Answer 178

A

9,,”Incomplete question. In this question no data is provided for percentage of SC population. That’s why the number of reserved seats for SCs cannot be predicted.”

Answer 179

A

10,d,”According to article 54, electoral college of President includes elected members of LS, RS and State legislative assemblies. Under article 61, members of state legislative assemblies do not take part in the process of impeachment of the president.”

Answer 180

A

11,c,”PM has complete discretion to choose his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily from the two Houses of Parliament but can also choose any other person. That person should become member of either house within 6 months from the date he enters the office.”

Answer 181

A

12,a,”Captain Charles Cunningham Boycott was a British land agent whose ostracism by the local community in Ireland as part of a campaign for agrarian tenants’ rights in 1880 gave the English language the verb to boycott, meaning ‘to ostracise’.”

Answer 182

A

13,b,”Both statements are correct but do not explain the assertion. At present, the Minorities Commission has a Statutory status. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Bill provides for granting constitutional status to the Minorities Commission. The bill has not passed by the Houses of Parliament.”

Answer 183

A

14,a,”Because no-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (not in RS) by the opposition.”

Answer 184

A

15,c,”The expression at present population in 1997 here means the previous census, i.e., 1971.”

Answer 185

A

16,c,”Oath or affirmation by the President under article 60; Oath or affirmation by Judge of SC, Members of Parliament, Ministers for the Union comes under Third Schedule of the Constitution.”

Answer 186

A

17,a,”The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a series of agreements between the People’s Republic of China and India. They were formed in 1954. The 5 principles are called the Panchsheel, which form the basis of the Non-Aligned Movement, were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru. Those are: 1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty 2. Mutual non-aggression against anyone. 3. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs 4. Equality and mutual benefit 5. Peaceful co-existence”

Answer 187

A

18,a,”A Money bill can be introduced only in LS (not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.”

Answer 188

A

19,d,”Decorum means maintaining proper behaviour. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means to vote against the party lines. Yielding the floor means the speaker giving part of his or her speaking time to another speaker. While this practice is allowed in some legislative bodies, it is not allowed in deliberative assemblies, unless specifically authorized in the rules.”

Answer 189

A

20,a,”Under Article 76, impeachment procedure of the Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.”

Answer 190

A

21,c,”Article 280; It shall be the duty of the commission to make recommendations to the President as to: (i) the distribution between union and states of the met proceeds of taxes, grants in aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated Fund of India, any matter referred to the commission by the president in the interests of sound finance.”

Answer 191

A

22,d,”It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.”

Answer 192

A

23,d,”Presently (2018) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha each have 5 seats reserved for schedule caste in the Lok- Sabha. But according to the question, Madhya Pradesh is the appropriate ensure.”

Answer 193

A

24,c,”Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner and Cabinet Secretary is the correct order of precedence.”

Answer 194

A

25,d,”As per provisions under Article 149, the Comptroller and Auditor General shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States as were conferred on or exercisable by the Auditor General of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in relation to the accounts of the Dominion of India and of the Provinces respectively.”

Answer 195

A

26,a,”Parliamentary Committees are formed to dispose off the large volume of work in time but with detailed scrutiny. Their appointment, terms of office as well as functions etc are regulated by provisions under Article 118(1). These are of 2 kinds: Standing Committees and Ad-hoc Committees.”

Answer 196

A

27,a,”The State government does not have control over its local bodies in matters of Citizens’ grievances.”

Answer 197

A

28,d,”All the statements are correct.”

Answer 198

A

29,b,”President can issue an ordinance only when both houses of parliament are not in session (Art 123). No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court in the Constitution. The age of a Judge of the SC shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as parliament may by law provide. NDC is composed of the PM as its head, all Union Cabinet ministers, the CMs of all states, CMs/Administrators of all UTs and the members of the Planning Commission. There is no constitutional provision regarding the accountability of the planning commission the parliament.”

Answer 199

A

30,b,”The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers and salaries. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is 6 years or till he
attains the age of 65 years or whichever is earlier

Answer 200

A

31,c,”As of 2018; The security deposit for Lok Sabha election is Rs 25,000 while for an Assembly election it is Rs 10,000. A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one-sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit.”

Answer 201

A

32,c,”The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of a national emergency under Article 352.”

Answer 202

A

33,a,”The finance commission will be governed by the principles to allocate grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated fund of India.”

Answer 203

A

34,c,”In Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who have special knowledge in art, science, literature, and social service. In Lok Sabha, 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian community (Art 331). A nominated member can vote only in the Vice-Presidential elections.”

Answer 204

A

35,d,”So far three joint sittings have been held. First was held on Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961. Second was held on Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978. Third was held on Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002. The presiding officer of a joint sitting is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.”

Answer 205

A

36,d,”According to Article 368, an amendment of the Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.”

Answer 206

A

37,c,”Order of precedence is President, Vice President, PM, Governor of State within their respective states, Former Presidents and Deputy PM, CJI and Speaker of LS.”

Answer 207

A

38,b,”Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. The commission makes recommendations to the president with regard to the distribution of the proceeds of taxes between the union and the states, the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to be given to the states, and any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest of sound finance.”

Answer 208

A

39,b,”The value of an MP’s vote is calculated by dividing the total value of all MLAs’ votes by the number of MPs.”

Answer 209

A

40,a,”The PAC is formed every year with a strength of not more than 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, and 7 from Rajya Sabha. The term of office of the members is one year. Option 3 is not correct.”

Answer 210

A

41,d,”Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science and Technology, is the oldest scientific department of the Govt. of India. It was set up in 1767.”

Answer 211

A

42,a,”Appropriation Bill is a money bill. In case of a money bill, Rajya Sabha has only recommendatory power and need not to be passed by Rajya Sabha.”

Answer 212

A

43,a,”The High Court (and not the Election Commission) is the final authority to give a final verdict in case of election disputes. In the alternative special election benches may be constituted in high courts and earmarked exclusively for the disposal of election petitions and disputes.”

Answer 213

A

44,d,”Lok Sabha speaker is the presiding officer or head of Lok Sabha. He is the guardian of power and privileges of members and committees of Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses. ‘Adjournment’ is a postponement of the sitting or proceedings of the House from one time to another specified for the reassembling of the House. During the course of a session, the Lok Sabha may be adjourned from day to day or for more than a day. It may also be adjourned sine die which means the termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for its next sitting.”

Answer 214

A

45,a,”In case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. No-Confidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favor that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favor, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion.”

Answer 215

A

46,d,”Article 67(b) in the Constitution of India states, a Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.”

Answer 216

A

47,b,”Stock Exchanges are listed in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246) List I-Union List, item no. 90 that reads, taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets. Forests-Concurrent List, 17-A, Post Office Savings Bank -Union List-3, Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries - State List -6.”

Answer 217

A

48,b,”The highest decision-making body for planning in India is the Parliament, National Development Council is at the second position and Planning Commission at the third position. Economic and social planning is placed under Entry 20 in the Concurrent list.”

Answer 218

A

49,a,”Haryana was founded in 1966 when the former state of Punjab was divided into Haryana and the modern Punjab. The 1967 general elections or the 4th Lok Sabha was held in February. Tripura, Manipur, and Meghalaya became full-fledged states on Jan 21, 1972. Mysore state was renamed Karnataka in 1997.”

Answer 219

A

50,,”Food and Nutrition Board works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It is a technical support wing under Child Development Bureau of the Ministry. None of the given options is correct.”

Answer 220

A

51,a,”Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 249. Statement 2 is incorrect as resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed by both Houses of Parliament (not only LS).”

Answer 221

A

52,d,”Assertion is false because the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only.”

Answer 222

A

53,d,”Terms of Jawaharlal Nehru (1947-52; 1952-57; 1957-62; 1962-64). He died in 1964 during his 4th Prime-ministerial term. He represented Phulpur constituency in UP. The first non-congress PM of India was Morarji Desai (Janta Party) from 1977-1979.”

Answer 223

A

54,b,”GV Mavalankar (1952-56), Hukum Singh (1962-67); K.M. Munshi and U.N. Dhebar were never the Speakers of the Lok Sabha.”

Answer 224

A

55,a,”Statement 1 is correct as under Article 360, any Proclamation of Financial Emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions Passed by both Houses of Parliament. If approved by both Houses, then it operates for 6 months. During the proclamation of financial emergency. President of India can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the union including the judges of the supreme court and the High courts.”

Answer 225

A

56,a,”Statement 2 is incorrect as the Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.”

Answer 226

A

57,b,”Mohd. Hidayatullah (1979-84); Shankar Dayal Sharma (1987-92)”

Answer 227

A

58,b,”Ashok Desai was Attorney General of India (1996-98); Nagendra Singh was President of the International Court of Justice (1985-88); AN Ray was CJI (1973-77); RK Trivedi was Chief Election Commissioner (1982-85)”

Answer 228

A

59,b,”Statement 2 is correct as per provisions given under Article 173. Statement 1 is incorrect as according to Article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.”

Answer 229

A

60,d,”Statement 1 is incorrect as members of Rajya Sabha can become cabinet ministers. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the PM.”

Answer 230

A

61,b,”According to Article 70, the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 is made by the President of India under Article 77 of the constitution for the allocation of business of the government of India. The Ministries/ Departments of the government of India are created by the president on the advice of the prime Minister under these Rules.”

Answer 231

A

62,b,”Statement 1 is incorrect as Advocate General of the state is appointed by the governor of the State. Statement 2 is correct. The original civil jurisdiction of the High Courts has not altogether been abolished but retained in respect of actions of higher value. The Original Criminal Jurisdiction of High Courts has, however, been completely taken away by the criminal procedure code, 1973.”

Answer 232

A

63,b,”Statement 1 is incorrect as CAT was set up in 1985 during the prime ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.”

Answer 233

A

64,a,”The number of ministries at the Centre can vary based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to different sectors, changes of orientation of policy etc. On 15 Aug, 1947, the number of ministries at the centre was 18.”

Answer 234

A

65,c,”The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.”

Answer 235

A

66,d,”If the annual union budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, it is tantamount to a no-confidence motion. So the government submits the resignation of his council of ministers.”

Answer 236

A

67,b,”Parliament shall have the power to authorize by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made.”

Answer 237

A

68,a,”Adjournment motion: (i) It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance. (ii) It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house. (iii) It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha cannot introduce Adjournment Motion. (iv) The discussion on adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.”

Answer 238

A

69,d,”None of the above statements are correct (i) Union Territories (Delhi and Pondicherry) are represented in the Rajya Sabha. (ii) It is not within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. It is the Supreme Court and High Court which look into the disputes. (iii) According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, and the President of India.”

Answer 239

A

70,b,”If the Lok Sabha Speaker wants to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha.”

Answer 240

A

71,c,”Inclusive governance means that the benefit of governance should reach the downtrodden and to the last corner of the country. Provisions given in options 2, 3, and 4 lead to inclusive governance. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial companies to do banking is not directly linked to inclusive governance.”

Answer 241

A

72,c,”Only the 2nd and 3rd statements are correct. (2) CAG reports on execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. (3) Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finance.”

Answer 242

A

73,a,”Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. The Constitution permits a person to be appointed PM without his/her being a member of either House of the Parliament at the time of appointment. However, he/she has to become a Member of either house of parliament within Six Months from the date of his/her appointment as prime-minister.”

Answer 243

A

74,a,”Joint sitting is an extraordinary Machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to Money bills or constitutional amendment bills.”

Answer 244

A

75,a,”When a money bill returns to the Lok Sabha with amendments made by the Rajya Sabha, it is open to Lok Sabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Lok Sabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.”

Answer 245

A

76,c,”No procedure has been laid down in the constitution of India for the removal of a governor from his/her post.”

Answer 246

A

77,c,”The Attorney General of India has a post parallel to any minister in Parliament. He can take part in the proceedings of either house. He can be a member of any committee of Parliament. He has the right to speak in the Parliament but he has no right to vote.”

Answer 247

A

78,d,”Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List, it reads - ‘entering into treaties and agreements with foreign countries and implementing treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries’.”

Answer 248

A

79,a,”Minister/ministers can be removed by issuing no-confidence motion in the parliament. All cabinet members are mandated by the constitution to be the member of either house of the parliament of India. The cabinet is headed by the prime minister and is advised by the cabinet secretary who also acts as the head of Indian Administrative service.”

Answer 249

A

80,b,”Article – 75 (4): The ministers Shall hold office during the pleasure of the president. Article – 75 (5): The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok-Sabha. Article–78 (2): Prime minister shall furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation on the president may call for.”

Answer 250

A

81,b,”The first statement is not correct because it talks about the chairman as well as the deputy chairman. The Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha also chooses from amongst its members, a Deputy Chairman. President: Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha). Elected members of State legislative members, including that if NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry. Vice President: Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of the parliament. The second statement is correct.”

Answer 251

A

82,a,”Clause (3) of Article 77 (‘Conduct of Business of the Government of India’) of the Constitution of India lays down as follows: ‘The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. The Constitution of India mentions that, ‘All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.’ Therefore, only option (a) is correct.”

Answer 252

A

83,b,”It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.”

Answer 253

A

84,c,”Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a no-confidence motion. But the word ‘no confidence motion’ itself is not mentioned in Constitution. It comes from Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. Rajya Sabha cannot pass or remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion. No confidence motion can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.”

Answer 254

A

85,b,”The largest Committee is the committee of Estimates, given its 30 members. Committee on: Public Accounts - 22, Estimates - 30, Public Undertakings - 22, Petitions LS(15), RS(10)”

Answer 255

A

86,b,”The governor has Constitutional discretion in cases of Reservation of bill for consideration of the President and Recommendation of the imposition of President’s rule. Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are definitely right. Moreover, the Governor only appoints those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. So Governor doesn’t have ‘Discretion’ in appointment of the minister. Therefore, 2 is wrong.”

Answer 256

A

87,c,”The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings & Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However, Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries as per the provisions in the budget is the task of the finance ministry.”

Answer 257

A

88,b,”A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty viz a viz State Authority.”

Answer 258

A

89,d,”The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the legislative assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The chairman of the legislative council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.”

Answer 259

A

90,c,”The department of economic affairs under the ministry of finance is responsible for the preparation of union Budget that is presented to the parliament. Consolidated fund of India is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited. No money can be appropriated (issued or drawn) out of the consolidated fund of India without the authorization from the parliament of India. Public account of India is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.”

Answer 260

A

91,d,”The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible to the legislature for all its actions. The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha.”

Answer 261

A

92,b,”A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok-Sabha.”

Answer 262

A

93,a,”In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for the purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting. Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. If the bill in dispute is passed by a majority of the total number of members both the houses present and voting in the joint sitting, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the houses.”

Answer 263

A

94,d,”The Executive powers of the Union of India are vested in the President. The Cabinet Secretary (and not the Prime Minister) is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.”

Answer 264

A

95,a,”The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e., the desire, approval, and participation of people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning. Therefore, intelligence and character are called in. Hence, answer ‘A’.”

Answer 265

A

96,a,”The first step towards bringing about equality is, of course, ending the formal system of inequality and privileges. The caste system in India prevented people from the ‘lower’ castes from doing anything except manual labor. In many countries, only people from some families could occupy high positions. Attainment of equality requires that all such restrictions or privileges should be brought to an end.”

Answer 266

A

97,b,”When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. Therefore, options involving ‘2’ are incorrect. Hence, by elimination, we are left with answer ‘B’: 1 and 3 only.”

Answer 267

A

98,d,”Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states unlike the American federation. Therefore, ‘D’ is not a feature of Indian federalism.”

Answer 268

A

99,b,”Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralization,’ which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.”

Answer 269

A

100,c,”Parliamentary system is also known as Cabinet Government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. Hence, answer ‘C’.”

Answer 270

A

101,c,”Some experts felt that cabinet form of Government helps in work distribution and thereby speeding up efficiency. However, other experts went by the interpretation given in M. Laxmikanth’s book on Indian Polity: ‘Parliamentary system is also known as cabinet Government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.’ So, answer ‘C’.”

Answer 271

A

102,d,”The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no-confidence motion, etc., and Supplementary questions can be asked during the question hour. Therefore, all three are correct.”

Answer 272

A

103,d,”A private member’s bill is a bill introduced by any member of the parliament who’s not a minister. Hence the first statement is wrong. The Indian Express report in 2016 says only 14 private members’ bills have been passed since 1952. So statement 2 is also wrong.”

Answer 273

A

104,c,”For the election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.”

Answer 274

A

105,d,”India has a first-past-the-post system wherein a candidate who wins the election may not necessarily get a majority (50%+1) of votes. So, statement #1 is wrong. Up to the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. Meaning it’s an ‘informal consensus’ among political parties, and not a Constitutional provision. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.”

Answer 275

A

106,c,”Right to vote in elections is an important constitutional right. One of the important decisions of the framers of India Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in India the right to vote. Combining the interpretation of both textbooks, ‘C’ is the answer.”

Answer 276

A

107,d,”Election Commission has three election Commissioners. Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Hence, answer ‘D’: only 3.”

Answer 277

A

108,b,”In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition.’ The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 so a minimum of 10% doesn’t translate to 75 in any case. Hence statement #3 is wrong. By elimination, we get ‘B’: 2 only.”

Answer 278

A

109,b,”Committee on government assurances - checks the assurances, promises, and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through. In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members, and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. It was constituted in 1953. Committee on Subordinate legislation - examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953. Rules committee - considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the rules of the House. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members, including the Speaker as its ex-officio chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 16 members, including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman. Business advisory committee - regulates the program and timetable of the House. It allocates time for the transaction of legislative and other business brought before the House by the government. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members, including the Speaker as its chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it has 11 members, including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman.”

Answer 279

A

110,c,”Article 110(1)(A): a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provisions related to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. Article 110(1)(c): the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund. Article 110(1)(g): any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). Depending on how you interpret these provisions, it is difficult to outline any of the given statements as wrong. However, UPSC has kept ‘C’ as the official answer.”

Answer 280

A

111,a,”Statement 1 - Correct: The value of 1 MLA’s vote is based on the total population of the state to be divided by the total MLAs. Hence it ought to vary from state to state. Statement 2 - vaguely worded and open to multiple interpretations: Interpretation 2(i): While the value of an MLA’s vote depends on the population of the state he or she belongs to, the value of an MP’s vote remains the same at 708, so statement #2 is wrong. However, if you interpret it as ‘collective’ value, then LS has more seats than RS, the (collective) value of the vote of MPs of LS > RS, then #2 should be right. Accordingly, experts were divided over answer A or C. UPSC has also kept ‘A’ as the official answer.”

Answer 281

A

112,a,”The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases: 1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly. Constitution of India, Art 179: ““…Provided further that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution.”” So, statement#1 is right.”

Answer 282

A

113,c,”Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office. Thus, both statements are right.”

Answer 283

A

114,b,”The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356… He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. So ‘B’ is the right answer.”

Answer 284

A

115,a,”Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to reduce the scope of Judicial review in the matters of land reforms and Zamindari-Abolition. Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations but at present (in 2016) their number is 282. So, if it was made in the 50s, then it must be Prime Minister Nehru.”

Answer 285

A

116,a,”If ‘Office of Profit’ was well defined in Constitution, then there wouldn’t have been controversies related to AAP-MLAs’ disqualification (2018-Jan), and Kejriwal & Co. wouldn’t have been running from pillar to post between EC and SC to prevent their disqualification. So, #3 is wrong, and by elimination we are left with Answer A:1 and 2 only.”

Answer 286

A

117,c,”Governor can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. So #1 is right. Article 208 of the Constitution: A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Thus, it’s not mandated in the Constitution for the State legislature to (ALWAYS) follow / copy the rules of Lok Sabha. So, #2 is wrong. Thus, answer A: only 1. Counterview: As per IndianExpress Article in 2016-September, the second statement is correct so the answer should be C: Both 1 and 2. Final verdict: UPSC official Answer key says “C: both statements are correct”.”

Answer 287

A

118,c,”Centre-State relations: While selecting Governors, the Central Government should adopt the following strict guidelines as recommended in the Sarkaria Commission report: He should be a detached figure and not too intimately connected with the local politics of the states.”

Answer 288

A

119,a,”Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission was setup for a limited time period under Justice B.N. Srikrishna’s chairmanship. And its mandate did not include reviewing the electricity regulator. #4 is wrong. Similar reason eliminates Finance Commission (#3) which is setup periodically for the tax distribution between Union and States. Thus B and C are eliminated. NITI Ayog is a think tank and policy advisor for the Government. Yes, it reviews development work in the Aspirational districts and SDG implementation across India but reviewing independent regulators is not under its purview. So, #5 is wrong. This eliminates D. Thus by elimination, we are left with Answer A: only 1 and 2.”

Answer 289

A

120,d,”Historically speaking, the term liberty was initially defined as absence of all restraints on an individual. This is known as the negative concept of liberty. Early liberalism championed negative liberty. John Stuart Mill, the nineteenth century English political philosopher, described, “Restraint as an evil”. So, (d) is appropriate. However, after the examination, many of the coaching classes felt that answer should be “b” based on another interpretation by D.D.Basu. But as per the official UPSC Answerkey, correct answer is “d”.”

Answer 290

A

121,d,”Bureaucrats are appointed by the President / Governor of India for implementing the policies of the government of the day. Other options are less suitable.”

Answer 291

A

122,8,”As per the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. There is no clause of “permanent disqualification” in the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. So, answer could be (a) or (d). It all depends on the validity of the first statement#1. According to some experts, #1 is right because A citizen becomes eligible to vote upon attaining the age of 18. Whereas to become a member of the Vidhan Sabha, he must be minimum 25 years old. Article 164(4) of the Indian Constitution (r) A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister. So, accordingly, some experts interpret that even 18 or 19 year old person (Who is eligible to vote), can become minister for at least 6 months. So#1 is right. Other experts differ, that “since Constitution itself has not specifically said this, so statement#1 is wrong”, so answer is “d”. Final judge: we’ve to wait for the official answerkey of UPSC”

Answer 292

A

123,c,”Article 85 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to summon each house of the Parliament at such time and place as he thinks fit. (Hence, 1st statement is correct) The Constitution of India does not mention anything about the number of Parliamentary sessions in a year. (Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect) There is some ambiguity in the 3rd statement. If the UPSC interprets it in a narrow and literal sense, then the exact number of days for which the Parliament is supposed to meet in a year is not mentioned in the Constitution and hence, 3rd statement is correct. However, if we interpret the question in a broader manner, then Article 85 of the Indian Constitution mentions that 6 months shall not intervene in the 2 sessions of the Parliament. Interpreting this clause, it essentially means that Parliament has to meet at least for 2 days in a year to prevent the violation of Article 85. In such a scenario, 3rd statement is incorrect.”

Answer 293

A

124,b,”* Article 312: With regards to the creation of All India Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers such that if Rajya Sabha is passing a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting, Parliament may, by law, create one or more All India Services in national interest. So A is wrong. · Article 75(3) hold the government collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, in this regards, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha. So C is wrong. · Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce the amount allocated to the ministries in the demand for grants, can be made only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations with regards to the cut motion. So d is wrong. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional Amendment Bill. So b is right.”

Answer 294

A

125,d,”In India, the constitutional government is a limited government. The powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part-III of the Indian Constitution, that are essentially given to us against the state actions.”

Answer 295

A

126,b,”* During the Expansionary Money / Cheap Money / Dovish Monetary Policy, RBI will try to increase the supply of money and/or reduce the loan interest rates. * So reducing the SLR, bank rate and repo rate will help in that regard. So, RBI may do 1 and 3. So, here question is asking, “WHAT RBI WILL NOT DO?” So, Option a, c and d are eliminated. we are left with answer b: Only 2. * Increasing the MSF will raise the loan interest rates, so, if RBI pursues Expansionary policy, it’ll not do it. * Some candidates engage in hairsplittery (cky dh [kky fudkyuk), that under the external benchmark system, loans are linked with repo rate so #2 unlikely to have any impact. But such hairsplittery is not required for the scope of exam”

Answer 296

A

Question,Correct Option

Answer 297

A

b.According to 73rd Amendment Act 1993, under Article 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats should be reserved for women in local bodies.,b

Answer 298

A

According to 73rd Amendment Act, three-tier system of Panchayats exists: Village level, District Panchayat at the district level, the intermediate Panchayat which stands between the village and District Panchayats in the States where the population is above 20 Lakhs.,c

Answer 299

A

Panchayati Raj System was first introduced in Nagaur district of Rajasthan on October 2, 1959 followed by Andhra Pradesh in 1959.,a

Answer 300

A

Provision given in option (d) is not included under 73rd Amendment Act 1993.,d

Answer 301

A

Name in the voters list is the important condition.,c

Answer 302

A

Local bodies States as in 1999: Zila Parisad at the sub-divisional level - Assam, Mandal Praja Parishad - Andhra Pradesh, Tribal Councils - Meghalaya, Absence of village panchayat - Mizoram,a

Answer 303

A

Duration of Panchayats is five year. Fresh election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed before the expiry of its term; or in case of dissolution fresh election is to be conducted before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the date of its dissolution.,c

Answer 304

A

In 1688, the first Municipal Corporation of India was set up in Madras.,b

Answer 305

A

District planning committee comes under 74th Amendment not in 73rd Amendment.,c

Answer 306

A

Recommendation of Gram sabha or Panchayat at the appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals (not for any minerals) in the sheduled areas. Therefore statement 3 is false.,b

Answer 307

A

Section C of the Forest Dwellerwws Act provides a transparent three step procedure for deciding on who gets rights. Firstly, the Gram Sabha makes a recommendation- i.e, who has been cultivating land for how long, which minor forest produce is collected; etc. The Gram Sabha plays this role because it is a public body where all people participate and hence is fully democratic and transparent. The Gram Sabha’s recommendation goes through two stages of screening committees- the Taluka and the District levels.,d

Answer 308

A

12.c. The salient feature of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) and the modalities worked out to grant rights to tribals in the country are: (i) Legislation on Panchayats shall be in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practices of community resources; (ii) Habitation or a group of habitations or a hamlet or a group of hamlets comprising a community and managing its affairs in accordance with tradiations and customs; and shall have a separate Gram Sabha. (iii) Every Gram Sabha to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution.,d

Answer 309

A

c.Financial mobilization is not the fundamental objective of PRls. Even though Panchayats have the powers to collect revenue. Political accountability refers to the responsibility or obligation of government officials (both politicians and civil servants) to act in the best interests of society or face consequences.,c

Answer 310

A

b.The minimum age to contest Panchayat elections is 21 years. 2nd statement is correct.,b

Answer 311

A

(a) The objective of the price policy underlying MSP is to
bring a balanced and integrated price structure for
agricultural commodities and not to ensure maximum price
for the farmers

Answer 312

A

Here the possible answer is (d) because Statement 2 is incorrect as it is not mandatory that each state must have a State Human Rights Commission. But statement 4 is correct as Chairperson of the National Commission on Women is also the member of NHRC.,d
The chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India, or a judge of the Supreme Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and three persons (out of which atleast one should be a woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.

Answer 313

A

The water (cess) Act, 1977 provides for the levy and collection of a cess on water consumed by persons carrying on certain industries and by local authorities, with a view to augment the resources of the Central Board and the State Boards for the prevention and control of water pollution. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 provides for public liability insurance for the purpose of providing immediate relief to the persons affected by accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.,c

Answer 314

A

(b)
Publisher Publication
Ministry of Industry Wholesale Price India
Central statistical
organization
National Accounts Statistics
Reserve Bank of India Economic Survey
Ministry of Finance Report on Currency and
Finance

Answer 315

A

Main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government and the manner of their implementation.,c

Answer 316

A

Madhya Pradesh publishes largest number of newspapers in India.,c

Answer 317

A

The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund and a Public Account under Article 266 and a Contingency Fund for each State under Article 267. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are not subject to a Vote of Parliament.,b

Answer 318

A

The Archaeological Survey of India, established in 1861 is a department of the Government of India attached to the Ministry of Culture. ASI is responsible for archaeological studies and the preservation of archaeological heritage of the country in accordance with the various acts of the Indian Parliament.,a

Answer 319

A

Rural sanitation is not a subject in the Concurrent List. Public Health and Sanitation comes under the State List. Personal and food hygiene have been major cause of many diseases in developing countries. It was in this context that the central Rural Sanitation Programmer (CRSP) was launched in 1986.,c

Answer 320

A

National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) along with other Legal Services Institutions conducts Lok Adalats. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes / cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled / compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filling a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate.,d

Answer 321

A

Statement 1 is incorrect as equal pay for equal work for both men and women is provided under Article 39(d) in Directive Principles of the State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution. Under Article – 340 of the Indian constitution, it is obligatory for the government to promote the welfare of the other Backward classes (OBC).,b

Answer 322

A

National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme was launched by the government of India in 1988 for rehabilitation of Child Labour. The scheme focuses on All the child labours below the age of 14 yeas, identified in the target area. All the adolescent labours below the age of 18 years, occupied in hazardous occupations or processes. Families of such children mentioned in the above points. Gurupadaswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour.,b

Answer 323

A

Article 243ZE – Committee on Metropolitan Planning does not have a sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in metropolitan area. Metropolitan planning committee is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India. According to the constitution of India, every Metropolitan area shall have a Metropolitan planning committee to prepare a draft development plan.,a

Answer 324

A

At present the Public Accounts committee consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The function of the committee is 1. To examine the annual audit reports of the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President. 2. To examine the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union government and any other accounts laid before the Lok-Sabha.,b

Answer 325

A

(c),According to Article 131, The SC has original jurisdiction in any dispute - (a) between the Government of India & one or more States; or (b) between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or (c) between two or more States,c

Answer 326

A

(a),Article – 226 of the constitution empowers a high court to issue writs. Also when the chief justice of a High court acts in an administrative capacity, be is subject to the writ jurisdiction of any other judges of the High court.,a

Answer 327

A

(c),Under article 236 of the Constitution, The term “District Judge” includes judge of a city civil court, additional district judge, joint district judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a small cause court, chief presidency magistrate, additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge and assistant sessions judge and additional sessions judge.,c

Answer 328

A

(b),Assertion and Reason as independent statements are true but does not explain each other.,b

Answer 329

A

(b),As per provisions under Article 143,b

Answer 330

A

(d),There are 24 High Courts in India at present. Six (Bombay, Calcutta, Guwahati, Kerala, Madras and Punjab and Haryana High Court) of them have jurisdiction over more than one state. National Capital Territory of Delhi has High Court of its own.,d

Answer 331

A

(b),The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure /Art 112(3).,b

Answer 332

A

(c),Such is the prerogative of the Parliament.,c

Answer 333

A

(b),The U.T. of Andaman and Nicobar Islands comes under the jurisdiction of high court of Calcutta under its extended jurisdiction Act 1953.,b

Answer 334

A

(d),These provisions are given under Article 233-235 in the chapter of Subordinate Courts in the Constitution of India.,d

Answer 335

A

(c),According to NHRC Act 1993, only a retired CJI can become chairman of NHRC, appointed by President on the recommendation of a committee comprising of PM, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition of both Houses of Parliament and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha,c

Answer 336

A

(b),President comes first, Vice-President second, Prime Minister third and Governors of states with in their respective State comes fourth in the Warrant of Precedence. According to Indian order of precedence, Judges of the Supreme Court – Rank 9 Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Rank 10 Attorney General of India – Rank 11 Members of Parliament – Rank 21,b

Answer 337

A

Question Number,Question

Answer 338

A

(a) There were 21 High Courts in India with three new states created in 2000, having their own High Courts (Chattisgarh at Bilaspur, Uttarakhand at Nainital and Jharkhand at Ranchi). Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh have a common HC at Chandigarh. In the year 2013, three new High Courts in the northeast - Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura were created taking the total number of High Courts in the country from 21 to 24. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own which was established in the year 1966. As if 2018. There are 24 High courts in India.

Answer 339

A

(b) Statement (1) is not correct as according to Article 138(1) of the Constitution, Parliament can enlarge the jurisdiction and powers of the SC w.r.t. to any of the matters in the Union List. Whereas SC’s jurisdiction w.r.t. to any other matter can be enlarged by a special agreement between Government of India and government of the concerned State.

Answer 340

A

(d) Article 214 of the Constitution says–There shall be a High Court for each State. Therefore, Reason (R) is correct. But for twenty-nine states and seven union territories we have only 24 High Courts.

Answer 341

A

(d) PN Bhagwati was CJI during July 1985–Dec 1986. During his tenure as CJI, PIL was introduced to the Indian judicial system.

Answer 342

A

(d) Statement 1 is incorrect because after retirement a permanent judge of High Court shall not plead or act in a Court or before any authority in India, except the SC and a HC other than the HC in which he had held his office (Art 220). Statement 2 is incorrect as according to Article 217, a person is not qualified for appointment as a judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least ten years held a judicial office in the territory of India.

Answer 343

A

(a) Statement 2 is incorrect. After retirement a permanent judge of High Court shall not plead or act in a Court or before any authority in India, except the SC and a HC other than the HC in which he had held his office (Art 220).

Answer 344

A

(b) Bombay HC (Maharashtra & Goa); Guwahati (Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh); Punjab and Haryana HC (Punjab, Haryana)

Answer 345

A

(b) Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to admit PIL’s in the court.

Answer 346

A

(a) When statutory recognition had been given to Lok Adalat, it was specifically provided that the award passed by the Lok Adalat formulating the terms of compromise will have the force of decree of a court which can be executed as a civil court decree. No appeal lies against the award of a Lok adalat How ever award of lok Adalat can be challenged only by filling writ petition. The Lok Adalats can deal with all civil cases, Matrimonial Disputes, Land Disputes, Property disputes, compensation claims and compoundable criminal cusses. HINTS & SOLUTIONS EBD_7335 Judiciary & Legal Rights, Issues etc. C 41

Answer 347

A

(d) Cases that are pending in regular courts can be transferred to a Lok Adalat if both the parties agree. These are usually presided over by retired judges, social Activists, or other members of the legal profession. Lok Adalats can deal with any matter falling within the jurisdiction whether it is of civil or criminal in nature

Answer 348

A

(c) The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes dispute between the Government of India and one or more States, and dispute between two and more States.

Answer 349

A

(c) Both are correct. Hence the option (c) is right.

Answer 350

A

(a) 1st and 3rd are correct statements thus option (a) is right.

Answer 351

A

(c) The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. In every state, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.

Answer 352

A

(d) Rukhmabai was married off at an early age of 11. Hence by 1880 she fought a court case against her husband who demanded to live married life with her & have physical relations with him. She wanted to study further and also wanted the marriage age should be increased leading to the formation of Rukhmibaidefence committee supported by social reformers like Behramji Malabari, finally leading to the Age of Consent Bill- 1891 which increased the Minimum age of Marriage. She also became a doctor after resuming her studies. Hence all 3 statements are correct

Answer 353

A

(b) Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deal with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Within that Article 50 deals prescribes Separation of judiciary from executive

Answer 354

A

(d) Article 14to18 are covered under Right to Equality. Article 23 and 24 - Right against Exploitation. Article 25to28 - Right to Freedom of Religion. Article 29 and 30 - Cultural and Educational Rights.

Answer 355

A

(c) All statements are correct.

Answer 356

A

(a) Fundamental Rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners: Rights available under Article- 15, 16, 19, 29 & 30. Fundamental Rights available to bath citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens): Rights available under Article – 14, 20, 21, 21(A), 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and Article-28. Article 19(1) (g) of constitution of India provides Right to practice any profusion or to carry on any occupation, trade or business to all citizens subject to caution restrictions.

Answer 357

A

(c) Fundamental Rights have been categorised into 6 groups: Right to Equality (14-18), Right to Freedom (19-22), Right against Exploitation (23 and 24), Right to Freedom of Religion (25 and 28), Cultural & Educational Rights (29 and 30), Right to Constitutional remedies (32).

Answer 358

A

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies under article 32 is a Fundamental Right. It was called the very soul of Indian constitution and very heart of it, by B.R. Ambedkar.

Answer 359

A

b Article 301 pertains to Freedom of Trade, Commerce and Intercourse. In the original constitution right to property was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1) (f). But 44th Amendment Act, 1978 omitted sub clause f, and inserted Article 300A to make right to property a legal right.

Answer 360

A

(d) The UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (adopted on Nov. 20, 1989) is the first legally binding international instrument to incorporate the full range of human rights i.e. civil, cultural, economic, political and social rights.

Answer 361

A

(b) According to Article 143 (Power of President to consult Supreme Court).

Answer 362

A

(c) Article : 30 of the constitution of India States that All minorities (whether religious or linguistic) shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article-331 provides for nomination of two anglo-Indians to the Lok-Sabha. But as if now their is no provision for the nomination of religious Minorities to the Lok-Sabha. However religious minorities can avail benefits from the prime minister’s 15-point programme.

Answer 363

A

(d) Disable students come under the Right to Education and RTE Act provides for free and compulsory education to ‘children’ between the ages six and 14 years, though under the Persons with Disability (PWD) Act, a child refers to a person up to the age of 18 years. So statement 1 is correct. Please note that Persons with Disability (PWD) Act provides for ramps in public building; adaptation of toilets for wheel chair users; Braille symbols and auditory signals in elevators or lifts; ramps in hospitals, primary health centres and other medical care and rehabilitation institutions. The same Act also states that appropriate Governments and local authorities shall by notification frame schemes in favour of persons with disabilities, for the preferential allotment of land at concessional rates.

Answer 364

A

(d) With reference to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights: Article 25 says everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control. Article 21(2) says– everyone has the right of equal access to public service in his country. Article 26(1) says–Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages.

Answer 365

A

(c) Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. In case of death of a consumer his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his /her behalf.

Answer 366

A

(c) The original jurisdiction of supreme court includes disputes between (i) The centre and one or more states; or (ii) The centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or (iii) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the supreme court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Meaning, no other count can decide such disputes.

Answer 367

A

(b) Each Gram Nyayalaya is a court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer is appointed by the state government in consultation with the High court. Gram Nyayalaya Act; 2008 came into force of Oct, 2, 2009. The objective of this Act is to Provide inexpensive justice to people in rural areas at their doorsteps. Gram Nyayalaya try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule of the Gram Nyayalaya Act the Act.The Gram Nyayalaya are supposed to try to settle the disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties and for this purpose, it can make use of the appointed conciliators. Reference- Page no. 601 of India year book 2016, under heading Judiciary it says- Panchayat Courts also function in some states under various names like Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat Adalat, Gram Kachehri, etc., to decide civil and criminal disputes of petty and local nature. That means first statement is wrong. Under this act, District court with consultation of DM, prepares panel of social workers to act as councilors. Hence 2nd statement is right. Ref: Original Act Page no 7; http://doj.gov.in

Answer 368

A

(a) New NCERT, Std. 11, Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter-6 Judiciary, Page 139 • Judicial review means the power of SC or HC to examine the constitutionality of any law. So, “A” is the most fitting option.

Answer 369

A

(d) Topic was in news during 2018-March: The World Justice Project released its Rule of Law Index 2017-18 report, which measures the extent to which 113 countries have adhered to the rule of law in that period (India’s rank was 62, better than China, Pakistan, Myanmar and Bangladesh; Denmark occupied the top spot. Ref: TheHindu

Answer 370

A

(b) • Under RTE Act section 23, National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) decides the minimum qualification. So, #1 is wrong. • After RTE it is mandatory that only those people may be appointed as teachers who are able to clear TET. So, #2 is right. Thus by elimination, we get the correct answer b: only 2.

Answer 371

A

(b) Indian Forest Act was amended to omit the word “bamboos” from the definition of tree, to exempt bamboos grown on non-forest area from the requirement of permit for felling or transit under the said Act, and would encourage bamboo plantation by farmers resulting in the enhancement of their income from agricultural fields. So, #1 is wrong. In both b and c, statement #3 is common, so we’ve to accept it as true without verifying. Forest rights Act: Section 2(i) Minor forest produce includes bamboo, brushwood, honey, wax etc. So, #2 is right. Thus answer is b.

Answer 372

A

(b) 2018-April: “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution”. SC Judgement on Hadiya Case. Then answer is “b”.

Answer 373

A

(d) Following fundamental rights are related to “Equality”: • Article 14 ® Equality before law • Article 15 ® Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth • Article 16 ® Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment • Article 17 ® Abolition of untouchability • Article 18 ® Abolition of titles

Answer 374

A

(a) AS per the official page of NALSA: senior citizens eligible depending on income. So, #4 “ALL senior citizens eligible” is wrong. b and d eliminated. As per the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 ® There is no provision of free legal aid for OBCs. (This eliminates the 3rd Statement) So, answer a: 1 and 2 only.

Answer 375

A

Question,Answer

Answer 376

A

1,(d) The highest percentage of population in India in 1991 is in the age group of 5-14 years.

Answer 377

A

2,(a) Euro issue includes issue of ADR (American Depositary Receipts) and GDR (Global Depositary Receipts). A scheme has been initiated during 1992 under which Indian companies are permitted to raise foreign currency resources through issue of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) and/or issue of ordinary equity shares through Global Depositary Receipts (GDRs)/American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) to foreign investors i.e. institutional investors or individuals (including NRIs) residing abroad.

Answer 378

A

3,(d) Though the people below the poverty line were the target group for employment, the preference was to be given to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and freed bonded labourers. Thirty percent of the employment opportunities were to be reserved for women in rural areas.

Answer 379

A

4,(b) Narasimham Committee for Financial Sector Reforms (1991) has suggested reduction in SLR, CRR and priority sector financing reducing it from 40% to 10%. Most of the suggestion of the committee were not implemented.

Answer 380

A

5,(d) Corporation tax is a direct tax levied, collected and appropriated by the Union or the central government. No part of this tax can be assigned to the states.

Answer 381

A

6,(a) Our economic planners are not emphasizing development of small scale industries in their plan strategies.

Answer 382

A

7,(d) Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. It explains the relationship between level of investment and the corresponding economic growth lower capital output ratio Shows productivity of capital and technological progress.

Answer 383

A

8,(a) New Economic Policy was adopted in 1991 based on Rao-Manmohan model. Stabilization component of any economy is essentially a short-term programme while the structural readjustment component is a long term process.

Answer 384

A

9,(b) The full convertibility of the Indian currency means that the rupee is freely exchangeable into other international currencies and vice versa. Also, this would mean that international investors can buy and sell Indian assets at will. After 1994, the rupee has been partially convertible which means that the currency is changed freely into foreign currency for business and trade expenses. But it cannot be converted freely for acquiring overseas assets. Experts feel full convertibility of rupee would facilitate growth and higher foreign investments.

Answer 385

A

10,(b) There is no relation between the proportion of population of India living below the poverty line and Increase in India’s national income.

Answer 386

A

11,(b) Progressive Tax is a process in which as the income of a person increases, rate of income tax on the income also goes up. Regressive Expenditure is a process in which government spending decreases with the increase in income of people and government tends to spend more on poor in comparison to rich people.

Answer 387

A

12,(b) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Gujarat, Kerala

Answer 388

A

13,(d) HDI or Human Development Index measures achievements in terms of life expectancy, literacy and adjusted real income (standard of living). First HDR calculations were made in 1990 by Mehboob-ul-Huq.

Answer 389

A

14,(b Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is an index used by the Reserve Bank of India till 2014 to measure inflation. WPI is the price of a representative basket of wholesale goods. It takes a basket of 697 items into account and shows the combined prices. The RBI, ex-governor Raghuram Rajan, Shifted to consumer Price Index (CPI) is because WPI neglects services and the bottlenecks between a wholesaler and a retailer. CPI, based on 260 commodities including certain services, measures the change in Prices at the retail level. The base year of CPI is 2012.

Answer 390

A

15,(a) Globalism is the policy of placing the interests of the world above those of individual nations. This also means that there would be free movement of goods and services across national boundaries. Socialism is an economic system based on state ownership of means of production including capital. Universalism means application of certain basic principles at universal level.

Answer 391

A

16,(b) National Income is the money value of all final goods and services produced in an economy during a financial year. At the level of an economy, value of final goods and services is equal to the total income of all factors of production viz labour, capital, land and entrepreneurship.

Answer 392

A

17,(d) MAT or Minimum Alternative Tax was introduced in the budget of 1996-97. Under MAT a company is required to pay a minimum tax of 7% of the book profit in case the tax on the total income computed under the normal provisions of law works out to less than this amount.

Answer 393

A

18,(b) Chelliah Committee on Tax Reforms – 1993; Omkar Goswami Committee on Industrial Sickness – 1994; Rangarajan Committee on Disinvestment of Shares in PSUs – April 1993; RN Malhotra Committee on Reforms in Insurance Sector – 1993.

Answer 394

A

19,(a) According to 2001 census the correct sequence in descending order of the states for female literacy rate is Kerala - 87.7%, Mizoram - 86.7%, Goa - 76.5%, Nagaland - 61.5%.

Answer 395

A

20,(c) Capital account convertibility means free conversion of cross-border capital flows. Any entity can convert domestic currency into hard currency at the prevailing market rate and take hard currency out of the country without the need of offering any explanation.

Answer 396

A

21,(a) A consumer is said to be in equilibrium when he feels that he “cannot change his condition either by earning more or by spending more or by changing the quantities of thing he buys”. A rational consumer will purchase a commodity up to the point where the price of the commodity is equal to the marginal utility obtained from the thing.

Answer 397

A

22,(a) Supply-side economics is a school of macroeconomics that argues that economic growth can be most effectively created by lowering barriers for people to produce (supply) goods and services as well as invest in capital. The investment and expansion of businesses will increase the demand for employees. Typical policy recommendations of supply side economists are lower marginal tax rates and less regulation.

Answer 398

A

23,(d) The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was an indication of the Standard of living in a country, developed by the United Nations (UN) to complement the Human Development Index (HDI) and was first reported as a part of the Human Development Report in 1997. In 2010, it was supplanted by the UN’s Multidimensional Poverty Index.

Answer 399

A

24,(c) A price index is a normalized average (typically a weighted average) of price relatives for a given class of goods or services in a given region, during a given interval of time. The current Price Index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that the price of the weighted mean of price of certain items has increased 3.3 times.

Answer 400

A

25,(a) Devaluation is a deliberate downward adjustment to the value of a country’s currency relative to another currency, group of currencies or standard. It is a monetary policy tool used by countries that have a fixed exchange rate or semi-fixed exchange rate. After devaluation of the currency, country’s goods become cheaper for foreigners and become more competitive in a global market. This leads to increase in exports.

Answer 401

A

26,(a) Budget deficit = Total Receipts – Total Expenditure. Fiscal deficit is the sum of Budget deficit plus Borrowings and other liabilities Hence, fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.

Answer 402

A

27,(a) Till 2011, India used to define the poverty line based on a method defined by a task force in 1979. It was based on expenditure for buying food worth 2,400 calories in rural areas, and 2,100 calories in Urban areas. In 2011, the Suresh Tendulkar Committee defined the poverty line on the basis of monthly spending on food, education, health, electricity and transport. However, this has also faced criticism. The NDA government has now constituted a 14-member task force under NITI Aayog’s vice-chairman Arvind Panagariya to come out with recommendations for a realistic poverty line.

Answer 403

A

28,(a) Income tax is levied and collected by Union government or the central government and distributed between itself and states.

Answer 404

A

29,(b) According to the recent data made available by Central Statistical Organisation, the incidence of poverty is highest in tribes of Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh.

Answer 405

A

30,(c) Madhya Pradesh was the first state to have calculated Human Development Report in 1995, under the guidance of Prof. Amartya Sen.

Answer 406

A

31,(c) Consumption (C), Investment (I), Government purchases (G), X stands for exports and M for imports. Y = C + I + G + X – M. This identity is called national income accounts identity for an open economy. Consumption refers to household expenditure on various goods and services. Goods are of three types: non-durables (such as food and cloth), durables (such as cars and refrigerators) and services (such as haircut, education and medical care).

Answer 407

A

32,(a) Boom is a period of time during which sales of a product or business activity increases very rapidly. In the stock market, booms are associated with bull markets, whereas busts are associated with bear markets. Recession is A significant decline in activity across the economy, lasting longer than a few months. It is visible in industrial production, employment, real income and wholesale-retail trade. Depression is a severe and prolonged downturn in economic activity. In economics, a depression is commonly defined as an extreme recession that lasts two or more years. Economic Recovery is a period of increasing business activity signaling the end of a recession. Much like a recession, an economic recovery is not always easy to recognize until at least several months after it has begun.

Answer 408

A

33,(d) The National Human Development Report 2001, is an attempt to map the state of human development in India. While considering the state of human development, and the related economic, educational and health attainments, the report analyses governance for human development. To facilitate monitoring, many process indicators have been created. The Human Development Index, Gender Disparity Index and Human Poverty Index have been calculated for India after modifying the UNDP methodology.

Answer 409

A

34,(d) Megacities of India have more than 5 million population. But not all the major megacities are located on the sea coast or are sea ports. Delhi, which is the national capital is not a sea port.

Answer 410

A

35,(b) Kandla Port handled the highest volume of traffic at (81.12 MT), followed by Paradip (74.40MT), JNPT (48.89 MT) Mumbai (47.53 MT) and Visakhapatnam (46.56 MT) during April to December 2017.

Answer 411

A

36,(d) According to the table given above, the life expectancy at birth in India is not the same as that of Indonesia. India = 62.4, Indonesia = 64.

Answer 412

A

37,(d) Per capita real income is nothing but NNP at factor cost. It means national income is the sum total of all factor incomes adjusted for the increase in prices.

Answer 413

A

38,(a) Revenue deficit = revenue receipts – Revenue expenditure; Budget deficit = Total receipts – Total expenditure; Fiscal deficit = Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts – Total expenditure (F.D. is government borrowings); Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments.

Answer 414

A

39,(b) Indirect taxes are the charges that are levied on goods and services. Some of the significant indirect taxes include Value Added Tax, Central Sales Tax, Central Excise Duty, Customs Duty, stamp duties and expenditure tax. Property tax, Corporation tax and Wealth tax are examples of direct taxes.

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