capf polity - Sheet1

Question 1

201,”Which of the following statements about National Emergency is/are correct? 1. A Proclamation of Emergency may be made by the President only when the security of India or any part thereof is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. 2. The Government of India acquires power to give directions to a State on any matter. 3. The Proclamation of Emergency does not suspend the State legislature. 4. The Proclamation of Emergency can continue for a maximum period of six months at a time only if approved by resolutions of both the Houses of Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”A. 1 only”,”B. 1 and 2 only”,”C. 1, 2 and 3 only”,”D. 2, 3 and 4 only”

Question 2

202,”Which one of the following statements with regard to the impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India is not correct?”,”A. A motion addressed to the President, signed by at least 100 members of both the Houses of the Parliament is delivered to the Speaker.”,”B. The motion is investigated by a Committee of three (2 Judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished Jurist).”,”C. If the Committee finds the Judge guilty of misbehaviour or that he suffers from incapacity, the motion together with the report of the Committee is taken up for consideration in the House where the motion is pending.”,”D. The Judge will be removed after the President gives his order for removal”

Answer 2

202,A,”In the impeachment process of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India, a motion addressed to the President must be signed by at least 100 members of either House of Parliament and is delivered to the Speaker.”

Question 3

203,”The National Human Rights Commission was established under the statute of:”,”A. The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993”,”B. The Protection and Implementation of Human Rights Act, 1993”,”C. The Human Rights Act, 1993”,”D. The Human Rights Commission Act, 1993”

Answer 3

203,A,”The National Human Rights Commission was established under ‘The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.’”

Question 4

204,”The Judgment of the Supreme Court in Peoples’ Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India 2004 is related to which of the following?”,”A. Right to Shelter”,”B. Right against Custodial violence”,”C. Right to Information”,”D. Right to Speedy trial”

Answer 4

204,C,”The Judgment of the Supreme Court in Peoples’ Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India 2004 is related to the Right to Information.”

Question 5

205,”Which among the following statements regarding the powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is not correct?”,”A. It can issue writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, quo warranto, certiorari, and prohibition.”,”B. Writs can be issued to enforce any right conferred by Part-III and for any other purpose.”,”C. This power can derogate the power conferred on the Supreme Court under Article 32(2).”,”D. Writ can be issued to any authority under its jurisdiction.”

Answer 5

205,C,”Under Article 226, High Courts have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution and for any other purpose. However, this power does not derogate from the powers conferred upon the Supreme Court under Article 32. Both articles provide mechanisms to enforce fundamental rights, but one does not diminish the authority of the other.”

Question 6

206,”Which among the following is not correct?”,”A. Legislation on criminal law, barring exceptions, is a subject under the Concurrent List.”,”B. Bankruptcy and Insolvency are subjects under the Concurrent List.”,”C. Inter-State trade and commerce is a subject under the State List.”,”D. Banking is exclusively under the Union List.”

Answer 6

206,C,”Inter-State trade and commerce is a subject under the Union List, not the State List.”

Question 7

207,”Which of the following statements about the Right to Information Act, 2005 is/are correct? 1. There shall be not more than twelve (12) Information Commissioners. 2. The Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years. 3. The Chief Information Commissioner is eligible for reappointment. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”A. 1 only”,”B. 2 only”,”C. 1 and 2 only”,”D. 1, 2 and 3”

Answer 7

Central Information Commission
 Established: The Central Information Commission was established by the Central
Government in 2005, under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). It is not a
constitutional body.
o It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
o Since RTI is implicit in the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, it is an implied fundamental right.
 Members: The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more
than ten Information Commissioners.
 Appointment: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a
committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the
Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
 Tenure: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner shall hold
office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age
of 65 years, whichever is earlier

Question 8

208,”Who among the following was the first pro-tem Speaker to be unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?”,”A. Rabi Ray”,”B. Hiren Mukherjee”,”C. Somnath Chatterjee”,”D. P.A. Sangma”

Answer 8

208,C,”Somnath Chatterjee was the first pro-tem Speaker to be unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.”

Question 9

209,”Which among the following deals with Habeas Corpus?”,”A. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain and Ors. (1975)”,”B. Additional District Magistrate, Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla (1976)”,”C. Mrs. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)”,”D. Nandini Satpathy v. P.L. Dani (1978)”

Answer 9

209,B,”The case Additional District Magistrate, Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla (1976) deals with Habeas Corpus.”

Question 10

1,”The landmark case of D. C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar in the Supreme Court is related to which one of the following powers of the Governor?”,A: To repromulgate ordinances,B: To appoint a Chief Minister,C: To grant pardon, etc.,D: To revise the emoluments and allowances of the MLAs

Answer 10

1,A,”The landmark case of D. C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar in the Supreme Court is related to the power of the Governor to repromulgate ordinances.”

Question 11

2,”Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?”,A: Courts can interpret the Constitution and powers of different levels of the Government.,B: Sources of revenue for the Union Government and the State Governments are specified.,C: Powers of the Union and the States are specified in the Constitution.,D: Indian federalism is based on the principle of Separation of Powers.

Answer 11

2,D,”Political scientists have classified governments into UNITARY and FEDERAL on the basis of the nature of relations between the National Government & Regional Governments. A Unitary Government is one in which all the powers are vested in the national government and → o the regional governments, if at all exist, derive their authority from the national government. o Ex → Britain, France, Japan, China, Italy, Belgium, Norway, Sweden, Spain A Federal Government, on the other hand, is one in which powers are divided between the National Government and the Regional Governments by the Constitution itself and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently. o Ex. → US, Switzerland, Australia, Canada, Russia, Brazil, Argentina and so on have the federal model of government. The term „federation‟ is drived from a Latin word foedus which means „treaty‟ or „agreement‟. Thus, a federation is a new state (political system) which is formed through a treaty or an agreement between the various units. The units of a federation are known by various names like states (as in US) or cantons (as in Switzerland) or provinces (as in Canada) or republics (as in Russia). A federation can be formed in two ways, that is, by way of Integration or by way of Disintegration. o By way of Integration → a number of militarily weak or economically backward states (independent) come together to form a big and a strong union (US.) o By way of Disintegration → a big unitary state is converted into a federation by granting autonomy to the provinces to promote regional interest (Canada). The US is the first and the oldest federation in the world. o It was formed in 1787 following the American Revolution (1775-83). The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country. o The framers adopted the federal system due to two main reasons →  the large size of the country and  its socio-cultural diversity. o They realised that the federal system not only ensures the efficient governance of the country but also reconciles national unity with regional autonomy. HOWEVER, the term „federation‟ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a „Union of States‟. According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase „Union of States‟ has been preferred to ‗Federation of States‘ to indicate two things →  the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation; and  the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union because it is indestructible. The Indian federal system is based on the „Canadian model‟ and not on the ‗American model‘. [as Canadian model establishes a very strong centre] FEDERAL FEATURES OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION”

Question 12

3,”Which of the following is/are source/ sources of Law in India? 1. Constitution of India 2. Statutes 3. Customary Law 4. Case Law Select the correct answer using the code given below.”,A: 1 only,B: 1, 2 and 4 only,C: 2 and 3 only,D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 12

3,D,”Sources of Law in India include the Constitution of India, Statutes, Customary Law, and Case Law.”

Question 13

4,”Which among the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. To ensure inter-ministerial coordination 2. Management of major crisis situations in the country Select the correct answer using the code given below.”,A: 1 only,B: 2 only,C: Both 1 and 2,D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 13

4,C,”The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include ensuring inter-ministerial coordination and managing major crisis situations in the country.”

Question 14

5,”Which of the following statements about the Committee on Public Undertakings is/are correct? 1. There are more members from the Rajya Sabha than the Lok Sabha in the Committee. 2. The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.”,A: 1 only,B: 2 only,C: Both 1 and 2,D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 14

5,B,”The Committee on Public Undertakings has more members from the Lok Sabha than the Rajya Sabha, and its Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.”

Question 15

6,”Which one of the following statements is not correct?”,A: A censure motion can be moved against a single Minister of the Council of Ministers.,B: A motion of no-confidence cannot be moved against the Prime Minister alone.,C: A censure motion cannot be moved against the entire Council of Ministers.,D: A censure motion can be moved against a group of Ministers.

Answer 15

6,C,”A censure motion can be moved against a single Minister of the Council of Ministers or a group of Ministers, but not against the entire Council of Ministers. A Council of Ministers (COMs) is collectively responsible to the Loksabha / Legislative Assembly and it remains in office till it enjoys the confidence of majority. o Collective responsibility is based on the principle of the solidarity of the cabinet. It implies that a vote of confidence even against a single minister leads to the resignation of the entire council of Ministers. Therefore, a motion of no-confidence is moved to remove the council of ministers and to remove the government from the office. [not for individual ministers or private members] Constitutional provisions o Article 75 (3) & 164 (2) COMs shall be collectively responsible to the LS and Legislative Assembly. However There is no mention of “No-Confidence” motion in the Articles of Indian Constitution LS Rule 198 specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Procedure o Introduced only in the Lok Sabha & LA o There should be a minimum of 50 members to accept the motion. If not, then the motion fails. o The motion of no-confidence is read by the Speaker within the House and asks all those favouring the motion to rise. o If 50 MPS are there in favour then the Speaker could allot a date for discussing the motion. But this has to be done within 10 days. o Then, the motion is put to vote and can be conducted through Voice Vote, Division of Votes or other means. o If the government loses a confidence motion or if the no-confidence motion is accepted by the majority then the government has to resign. Indira Gandhi has faced the No Confidence Motion 15 times, which is the highest till date. Censure Motion No-Confidence Motion  It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.  It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.  Speaker decided whether the motion is in order or not.  It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers.  It can be moved against the entire council of ministers only.  It is moved for censuring the council actions.  It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the council of ministers.  If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office.  If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office.”

Question 16

7,”Which one of the following is correct in respect of the appointment of District Judges?”,A: They are appointed by the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.,B: They are appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.,C: They are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court of the concerned State.,D: They are appointed by the Supreme Court on the advice of the concerned High Court.

Answer 16

7,C,”District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court of the concerned State. Constitutional Provisions Appointment of District Judges  By Governor of the state in consultation with the high court.  Qualifications → o He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government. o He should have been an advocate or a pleader for 7 years. o He should be recommended by the high court for appointment. Appointment of other Judges  Other than district judges for Judicial Services  By the governor after consultation with the SPSC and the HC. Control over Subordinate Courts  By high court. [In all the matters]”

Question 17

8,”The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the insertion of which one of the following provisions into the Constitution of India?”,A: Doctrine of Pleasure,B: Fundamental Duties,C: Nomination of Anglo-Indian Members to the Lok Sabha,D: Impeachment of the President of India

Answer 17

8,B,”The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the insertion of Fundamental Duties into the Constitution of India. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE  FD were added on the bases of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee recommendations.  Added thru 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,1976.  This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.  This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which included Ten Fundamental Duties.”

Question 18

9,”What is the term of office of the Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission?”,A: 5 years or up to 70 years of age,B: 3 years or up to 70 years of age,C: 5 years or up to 65 years of age,D: 3 years or up to 65 years of age

Answer 18

9,B,”The term of office of the Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission is 3 years or up to 70 years of age, whichever is earlier. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION (NHRC)  It is a statutory body established on 12th October, 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993.  The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission as well.  Composition: o The chairperson is a retired CJI or a J. of the SC . o Out of Three members least 1 will be a woman. o Chairpersons of various commissions such as  The National Commission for Scheduled Castes & STs  The National Commission for Women  The National Commission for Backward Classes  The National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights  The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities. o appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of: [Same goes for members]  Prime Minister (head)  Speaker of the Lok Sabha  Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha  Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament  Union Home Minister.  Term and removal: o They hold office for a term of 3 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. o The President can remove them from the office under specific circumstances. Role and Function  It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.  It is empowered to utilise the services of any officer or investigation agency of the Central government or any state government for the purpose of investigating complaints of human rights violation.  It can look into a matter within one year of its occurrence.  The NHRC either suo moto or after receiving a petition may seek a report from the central government with regards to violations of Human Rights by the Armed Forces..  The government shall inform the commission of the action taken on the recommendations within the period of three months or such further time as the commission may allow.  It is not empowered to act when human rights violations through private parties take place.”

Question 19

10,”Which one of the following powers of the Supreme Court is also conferred on a High Court?”,A: Advisory power,B: Power of doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before the court,C: Power of court of record,D: Power to allow/refuse Special Leave Petitions

Answer 19

10,C,”A High Court, like the Supreme Court, is a court of record, meaning it has the power of being a legal precedent and has the power to punish for contempt of court. A COURT OF RECORD  The judgements, proceedings and acts of the high courts are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any subordinate court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal references.  It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment or with fine or with both o The expression ‗contempt of court‘ has not been defined by the Constitution. However, the expression has been defined by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971. HOWEVER in Art, 19 it is a reasonable restriction of on Speech & Expression. o Under this, contempt of court may be civil or criminal.  Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.  Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which  scandalises or lowers the authority of a court; or  prejudices or interferes with the due course of a judicial proceeding; or  interferes or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.  However, innocent publication and distribution of some matter, fair and accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair and reasonable criticism of judicial acts and comment on the administrative side of the judiciary do not amount to contempt of court.  As a court of record, a high court also has the power to review and correct its own judgement or order or decision, even though no specific power of review is conferred on it by the Constitution. o The Supreme Court, on the other hand, has been specifically conferred with the power of review by the constitution.”

Question 20

11,”The Constitution of India does not guarantee which one of the following as a fundamental right?”,A: Right to equality,B: Right against exploitation,C: Right to property,D: Right to carry on trade and business

Answer 20

11,C,”The Constitution of India does not guarantee the Right to Property as a fundamental right anymore. Originally, the Constitution provided for 7 Fundamental Rights (FRs). However, the Right to Property was deleted from the list of FRs by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.”

Question 21

12,”Who among the following fixes the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?”,A: The President of India,B: The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs,C: The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha,D: The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer 21

12,A,”The date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is fixed by the President of India. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members as soon as may be, after its first sitting. The Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha unless removed under specific circumstances outlined in Article 94 of the Constitution.”

Question 22

13,”Which one of the following statements with regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?”,A: They are not enforceable in a court of law.,B: They can override all the fundamental rights.,C: They can be related to social and economic justice.,D: They can be related to giving free legal aid

Answer 22

13,B,”Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable in a court of law. They provide guidelines for the state while formulating policies and enacting laws. DPSPs cannot override fundamental rights (FRs). They aim at establishing economic, social, and political democracy in the country. They are non-justiciable in nature but can be used as aids for interpreting the Constitution.”

Question 23

14,”Which one of the following statements about the Supreme Court is not correct?”,A: Under Article 129 and Article 144 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for contempt of court.,B: The Supreme Court has been vested with advisory jurisdiction.,C: The Supreme Court may refuse to provide opinion to the President, if so asked, in certain circumstances.,D: Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Answer 23

14,A,”Under Article 129 and Article 144 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for contempt of court. This statement is incorrect. The power to punish for contempt of court is vested with the High Courts under Article 215 and with the Supreme Court under Article 129 of the Constitution.”
SUPREME COURT
 The Constitution of India provides for a Unified Judiciary. Unlike the American
Federation, the Indian Constitution provides for a single judiciary common to the union
and the States. The Supreme Court remains at the apex of the judicial hierarchy in India.
 This single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935, enforces
both Central laws as well as the state laws.
 SC was inaugurated on January 28, 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India,
established under the Government of India Act of 1935
 Articles 124 to 147 in Part V → deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction,
powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court. The Parliament is also authorised to
regulate them.
 Article 129 → Supreme Court to be a court of record and The Supreme Court shall be a
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court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to
punish for contempt of itself.
 Article 144 of the Indian Constitution → advises civil and judicial authorities to act in aid
of the Supreme Court.
 The Supreme Court is not bound to give its opinion. Rather, the Supreme Court may
decline to give its opinion under Article 143 in cases it does not consider proper or not
amenable to such exercise. (Statement 3 is correct)
 The law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of
India. Article 141: It stated that the Supreme Court’s decisions were binding on all courts in
India. (Statement 4 is correct)

Question 24

15,”Which one of the following statements about Public Accounts Committee is correct?”,A: The Committee consists of not more than 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.,B: The Finance Minister is an ex officio member of the Committee.,C: A member of the Committee is given a term for one year.,D: The term of the office of the members of the Committee from the Rajya Sabha is extended even when they retire from the Rajya Sabha.

Answer 24

15,C,”A member of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is given a term for one year. The PAC consists of 22 members, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The members are elected by the Parliament every year, and the term of office of the members is one year. The Chairman of the PAC is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.”

Question 25

16,”Who can be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court?”,A: An advocate who has practised for at least ten years in any court,B: A Judge of a High Court for at least three years,C: A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India,D: A person who has held a judicial office for at least fifteen years

Answer 25

16,C,”A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India can be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. According to the qualifications of judges, a person can be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court if they are a citizen of India and have been a Judge of a High Court for at least five years, or an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years, or a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.”

Question 26

17,”Which one of the following statements about ‘personal liberty’ is not correct?”,A: State does not have the authority to deprive any person within the territory of India of his/her personal liberty without any rational basis.,B: Basis of depriving a person of his/her personal liberty must be in accordance with procedures established by law.,C: Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeas Corpus.,D: The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented ‘due process of law’.

Answer 26

17,D,”The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case did not invent ‘due process of law’. Due process of law is a concept borrowed from the American Constitution, which ensures fair treatment and protection of individual rights. In the Indian context, due process of law is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, but the concept is embedded in the principles of natural justice.”

Question 27

18,”Which one of the following statements with regard to the Preamble to the Constitution of India is not correct?”,A: The term ‘Secular Democratic Republic’ was not there in the Preamble originally.,B: The Preamble contains the basic structure of the Constitution of India.,C: By itself, the Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.,D: The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble cannot be considered as an aid to the legal interpretation of the Constitution, where the language is ambiguous.

Answer 27

c

Question 28

19,”Which one of the following fundamental rights has not been provided to a person?”,A: Protection against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once,B: To refuse to give his/her sample of handwriting as evidence to support a prosecution against him/her,C: To act as a witness against himself/herself,D: Right not to be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence

Answer 28

19,B,”To refuse to give his/her sample of handwriting as evidence to support a prosecution against him/her is not provided as a fundamental right. Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides protection against self-incrimination, double jeopardy, and retrospective laws. However, it does not explicitly mention the right to refuse to give handwriting samples.”

Question 29

20,”The Electoral College for electing the President of India does not include which of the following? 1. All elected members of the Rajya Sabha 2. All elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States 3. All members of the Legislative Councils of States Select the correct answer using the code given below.”,A: 1 and 2,B: 2 and 3,C: 3 only,D: 2 only

Answer 29

20,C,”The Electoral College for electing the President of India does not include all members of the Legislative Councils of States. The Electoral College consists of elected members of both Houses of Parliament, elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States, and elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. Members of the Legislative Councils of States are not included in the Electoral College for the President’s election.”

Question 30

21,”The Constitution of India contains no provision for the constitution of municipalities in every State for”,A: a Nagar Panchayat,B: a Municipal Council,C: a Municipal Corporation,D: an Urban Panchayat

Answer 30

21,D,”ARTICLE 243Q There shall be constituted in every State, a Nagar Panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area, that is to say, an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area; a Municipal Council for a smaller urban area; and a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area, in accordance with the provisions of this Part. This article doesn’t contain the provision for an Urban Panchayat.”

Question 31

22,”Which one of the following powers has not been conferred on the President of India?”,A: Appointment of Prime Minister,B: To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament,C: To grant pardon to a person who has been punished by a court- martial,D: To remove a Judge of the High Court

Answer 31

22,B,”ARTICLE 102 If any question arises as to whether a member of either House of Parliament has become subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in clause ( 1 ) of Article 102, the question shall be referred for the decision of the President and his decision shall be final. Before giving any decision on any such question, the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and shall act according to such opinion. Hence, this doesn’t come under the discretion of the President of India.”

Question 32

23,”Which one of the following statements with regard to Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India case, 1978 is not correct?”,A: It was held that Article 19 and Article 21 are not watertight compartments.,B: It was held that a law coming under Article 21 may not satisfy the requirements of Article 19.,C: A fair trial eliminates the biases against the accused in the trial.,D: The right to life under Article 21 does not include the right to die.

Answer 32

23,D,”MANEKA GANDHI VS. UNION OF INDIA CASE, 1978 The court ruled that Articles 19 and 21 are not watertight compartments and they are to read together. The court ruled that the state may deprive a person of his personal liberty if there is a valid law, the law has established a procedure, and the procedure must be a reasonable procedure. Thus, the court ruled that there must not only be ‘a procedure established by law’, but the procedure must be a ‘due process’. That is, the procedure must withstand the test of reasonableness. The court took the American view of interpreting the phrase ‘procedure established by law in Article 21’.”

Question 33

24,”In relation to the fundamental duties enshrined in the Constitution of India, which one of the following is NOT correct?”,A: The fundamental duties were not originally a part of the Constitution,B: To safeguard public property and abjure violence are fundamental duties,C: They are not enforceable through writs,D: They may not be used for determining constitutionality of laws

Answer 33

24,D,”FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES They are enforceable by law.”

Question 34

25,”The Governor of a state may exercise discretionary powers when 1. he or she is not convinced by the advice of the Council of Ministers 2. the Constitution requires him/her to act in his/her discretion in certain matters 3. he or she is appointed as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1, 2 and 3,B: 1 and 2 only,C: 2 and 3 only,D: 3 only

Answer 34

25,A,”THE GOVERNORS OF STATES CAN ACT AT THEIR CONSTITUTIONAL DISCRETION IN THE FOLLOWING INSTANCES: The Constitution requires him/her to act in his / her discretion in certain matters. When they have to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President of India, Governors can decide on their own without the advice of the Council of Ministers. When he has to recommend for the President’s rule in the state, he can act at his own discretion. When he is given an additional charge as the administrator of the Union Territory, he can take actions at his own discretion.”

Question 35

26,”Which one of the following is NOT true of socialism?”,A: Socialists analyse society in terms of income distribution,B: It emphasises the centrality of community,C: Socialists believe that class divisions in society are a fact and therefore irremediable,D: It believes that material benefits should be distributed on the basis of need

Answer 35

26,B,”Socialism does not emphasise on the centrality of community.”

Question 36

27,”Which one of the following statements with regard to Censure Motion is NOT correct?”,A: A leave of the House is required to move it,B: The Government is free to fix time and date for its discussion,C: It can also be moved against the entirety of the Council of Ministers,D: The Speaker decides whether the motion is in order

Answer 36

27,a,”Censure Motion can also be moved against the entirety of the Council of Ministers.”

Question 37

28,”Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-1 A. Pluralist democracy B. People’s democracy C. Developmental democracy D. Elitist democracy List-2 1. Power is always exercised by a privileged few 2. Highest and harmonious development of individual capacities 3. Social equality through common ownership of wealth 4. Capacity of groups to ensure governmental responsiveness Codes”,A: A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1,B: A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1,C: A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4,D: A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4

Answer 37

28,A,”List-1 List-2 Pluralist democracy: The capacity of groups to ensure governmental responsiveness. Pluralist democracy is a model of democracy in which no single group dominates politics and organized groups compete with each other to influence policy. They allow freedom of association. In Pluralist democracy, individuals work through groups formed around common causes.”

Question 38

29,”Which one of the following is NOT a correct feature of a Money Bill?”,A: It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha,B: A Deputy Speaker can also certify a Money Bill in case of office of Speaker falling vacant,C: A Speaker’s authority is final as to whether a bill is Money Bill or not,D: It can be referred to a joint committee of the two Houses

Answer 38

29,D,”MONEY BILLS [ARTICLE 110] If any question arises whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final.”

Question 39

30,”The idea of social justice requires that 1. equal treatment be supplemented with principle of proportionality 2. due and equal consideration is given to all individuals 3. equality of treatment be transcended to recognise special needs Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1, 2 and 3,B: 1 and 3 only,C: 2 only,D: 2 and 3 only

Answer 39

30,D,”SOCIAL JUSTICE The idea of social justice requires that equality of treatment be transcended to recognize special needs. While equal treatment is important, social justice also involves providing due consideration and resources to individuals based on their specific requirements, thus transcending mere equality to achieve fairness and justice in society.”

Question 40

31,”Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of India is NOT correct?”,A: The person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court,B: He/she enjoys right of audience only in the Supreme Court and High Courts in India,C: He/she holds office during the pleasure of the President,D: He/she receives remuneration as determined by the President

Answer 40

31,B,”ATTORNEY GENERAL (AG) FOR INDIA The Attorney General (AG) of India is appointed by the President on the advice of the government. The AG must be a person qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court. He holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives remuneration as determined by the President. The AG has various duties and functions, including providing legal advice to the Government of India, representing the Government in legal matters, and performing other legal duties assigned by the President.”

Question 41

32,”Which of the following is/are correct in relation to the Panchayats? 1. Only the Parliament may endow Panchayats with powers and authority 2. A state may devolve powers to Panchayats in preparation of plans for economic development and social justice 3. A state may devolve powers to Panchayats in implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1 only,B: 1 and 3,C: 2 and 3,D: 3 only

Answer 41

32,C,”PANCHAYATS According to Article 243G of the Constitution, the state may devolve powers to Panchayats in preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Additionally, the state may also devolve powers to Panchayats in the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice. Thus, both statements 2 and 3 are correct.”

Question 42

33,”In relation to the powers of the Union Government of India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?”,A: The Government of India may undertake legislative functions of a territory outside of India by agreement with the Government of that territory,B: The Union Government may not entrust a State Government with functions over matters where executive power of the Union extends,C: The Union Government may direct States for construction and maintenance of means of communication of military importance,D: The Governor may, with consent of Government of India, entrust its officers with functions on matters which fall within the executive power of the State

Answer 42

33,B,”UNION GOVERNMENT POWERS The Union Government of India may entrust a State Government with functions over matters where the executive power of the Union extends. This is provided for in Article 258(1) of the Constitution. Therefore, statement B is not correct.”

Question 43

34,”As per provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?”,A: Only Parliament has the power to legislate over a subject under the Concurrent List,B: Both Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to legislate over a subject under the Concurrent List,C: A legislation made under the Concurrent List by Parliament should be ratified by half of the State Legislatures so as to become a law of the country,D: Only State Legislatures are empowered to make laws under Concurrent List

Answer 43

34,B,”CONCURRENT LIST Both the Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to legislate over subjects under the Concurrent List. The Concurrent List consists of subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate concurrently. Therefore, statement B is correct.”

Question 44

35,”Which of the following statements regarding passing a law under the State List is/are correct? 1. Even in the sphere (State List) exclusively reserved for the States, Parliament can legislate under certain circumstances 2. Parliament cannot legislate a subject under the State List under any circumstances 3. A resolution supported by two thirds of the members present and voting is required to be passed by Rajya Sabha to pass a law under the State List Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1, 2 and 3,B: 2 and 3 only,C: 1 and 3 only,D: 1 only

Answer 44

35,C,”PARLIAMENTARY LEGISLATION IN THE STATE FIELD Parliament can make laws on subjects under the State List under certain circumstances, including when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. Additionally, during a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.”

Question 45

36,”Which one of the following statements regarding Public Accounts Committee is correct?”,A: It consists of fifteen members from Lok Sabha and seven members from Rajya Sabha,B: It consists of twenty members from Lok Sabha and ten members from Rajya Sabha,C: The term of members of Public Accounts Committee is five years,D: Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee

Answer 45

36,A,”PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE The Public Accounts Committee consists of fifteen members from Lok Sabha and seven members from Rajya Sabha. It is one of the parliamentary committees responsible for examining the accounts and expenditures of the Government of India.”

Question 46

37,”Which of the following statements regarding promulgation of ordinance is/are correct? 1. President can promulgate ordinances which are of temporary duration 2. An ordinance promulgated by the President has to be ratified by Parliament within six weeks of its re-assembly Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1 only,B: 2 only,C: Both 1 and 2,D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 46

37,C,”ORDINANCE PROMULGATION The President can promulgate ordinances which are of temporary duration. Additionally, an ordinance promulgated by the President must be ratified by Parliament within six weeks of its re-assembly. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.”

Question 47

38,”Which of the following statements with regard to the Speaker, Lok Sabha is/are correct? 1. The election of the Speaker of Lok Sabha is conducted by the Election Commission of India 2. The Speaker on assuming his office is not required to make and subscribe oath or affirmation 3. The Speaker does not exercise a casting vote in case of equality of votes Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 2 only,B: 1 and 3,C: 1 only,D: 2 and 3

Answer 47

38,A,”SPEAKER, LOK SABHA The Speaker of Lok Sabha is not required to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation upon assuming office. Therefore, statement A is correct.”

Question 48

39,”Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Speaker/Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha? 1. On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker cease to be members of the House. 2. Both Speaker and Deputy Speaker vacate their office on dissolution of the Lok Sabha 3. Only Deputy Speaker vacates his office and Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after dissolution Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1 only,B: 1, 2 and 3,C: 2 and 3 only,D: 1 and 3 only

Answer 48

39,D,”SPEAKER/DEPUTY SPEAKER, LOK SABHA On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker cease to be members of the House. However, only the Deputy Speaker vacates his office, while the Speaker remains in office until immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after dissolution. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.”

Question 49

40,”Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?”,A: B. R. Ambedkar,B: Rajendra Prasad,C: Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar,D: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Answer 49

40,B,”PRESIDENT OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India. He was elected as the President after the temporary President, Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha.”

Question 50

41,”With regard to Panel of Chairperson, Lok Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Panel of Chairperson is drawn from the ruling party only 2. Panel of Chairperson is nominated by different political parties and appointed by Speaker, Lok Sabha 3. Panel of Chairperson consists of 10 members and one of them presides over the House when both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are not there Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1 and 3,B: 2 and 3,C: 3 only,D: 2 only

Answer 50

41,B,”The Panel of Chairpersons of Lok Sabha is nominated by the Speaker and consists of not more than ten members. Any of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker.”

Question 51

42,”A member giving notice of a resolution for removal of Speaker, Lok Sabha should be addressed to the”,A: Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha,B: Secretary General, Lok Sabha,C: Prime Minister,D: President

Answer 51

42,B,”A member wishing to give notice of a resolution for the removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker should address it to the Secretary-General of Lok Sabha.”

Question 52

43,”Which of the following are the essential requirements for a person to be appointed as a member of Finance Commission? 1. Supreme Court judge or one qualified to be appointed as such 2. A person having wide experience in financial matters and administration 3. A person having special knowledge of economics Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1, 2 and 3,B: 1 only,C: 2 and 3 only,D: 1 and 3 only

Answer 52

43,C,”To be appointed as a member of the Finance Commission, a person should have special knowledge of economics along with other qualifications.”

Question 53

44,”Consider the following statements relating to short notice questions asked in the Legislature: 1. These relate to matters of urgent public importance and can be asked for oral answer at a notice less than 10 days 2. Short notice questions can be admissible if the Minister concerned agrees to answer to it 3. Short notice questions are asked during question hour Which of the statements given above are correct?”,A: 1, 2 and 3,B: 1 and 2 only,C: 2 and 3 only,D: 1 and 3 only

Answer 53

44,B,”Short notice questions relate to matters of urgent public importance and can be asked for oral answer at a notice less than 10 days, provided the Minister concerned agrees to answer it.”

Question 54

45,”‘To cherish and follow the noble ideas which inspired our national struggle for freedom’ is a provision of which one of the following of the Constitution of India?”,A: Directive principles of the state policy,B: Fundamental duties,C: Fundamental rights,D: Preamble

Answer 54

45,B,”The provision “To cherish and follow the noble ideas which inspired our national struggle for freedom” is a part of the Fundamental Duties, not the Preamble.”

Question 55

46,Which one of the following is NOT true of the 10th schedule of the Constitution of India pertaining to disqualification of members of the Parliament and State legislatures?,A: The schedule lays down that elected members may be disqualified on the grounds of defection,B: Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in cases of merger with another political party,C: Cases of dispute are decided by the speaker or Chairman of the House concerned,D: The Supreme Court of India is the final arbiter in cases which remain unresolved

Answer 55

46,B,”Disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in cases of merger with another political party, which makes option B incorrect.”

Question 56

47,Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of India is NOT correct?,A: He shall have the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament,B: He shall have a right of audience in all courts in the territory of India in the performance of his official duties,C: He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a Judge of the Supreme Court,D: He is a whole-time counsel for the Government

Answer 56

47,D,”The Attorney-General of India is not a whole-time counsel for the Government.”

Question 57

48,Which one among the following is NOT the central feature of Polyarchy?,A: Government is in the hands of elected officials,B: Right to run for office is restricted,C: Practically all adults have the right to vote,D: There is free expression and a right to criticize and protest

Answer 57

48,B,”The right to run for office is not restricted in Polyarchy.”

Question 58

49,”Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched? 1. State list : Public health and sanitation 2. Union list : Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens 3. Concurrent list : Legal, medical and other professions Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,A: 1 only,B: 1, 2 and 3,C: 2 and 3 only,D: 3 only

Answer 58

49,B,”Public health and sanitation is a subject under the State List, not the Concurrent List.”

Question 59

50,Which one of the following authorities CANNOT organize ‘Lok Adalats’?,A: Panchayat Committees,B: Taluk Legal Services Committee,C: District Authority,D: High Court Legal Services Committee

Answer 59

50,A,”Panchayat Committees cannot organize Lok Adalats. Lok Adalats can be organized by various legal services committees and authorities.”