POLITY ONLYIAS - Sheet6 Flashcards
1,”In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1, 2 and 3; (b) 2, 3 and 4; (c) 1, 3 and 4; (d) 1, 2 and 4,2022
1,c,”The Government of India Act 1919, also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms came into force in 1921 with the sole purpose to ensure Indians of their representation in the Government. The Act divided the provincial subjects into two parts – transferred and reserved, this dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’. Options 1, 3 and 4 are ‘Reserved Subjects’: The reserved list includes subjects such as Law and Order, Finance, Land Revenue, Administration of Justice, Police, irrigation etc. and the subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats. All-important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive. Option 2 is ‘Transferred Subjects’: The transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council and it included subjects such as education, health, Local Self-Government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. Other Important Provisions of Government of India Act (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) Act, 1919: Relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. Introduced Bicameralism and Direct Elections in the country. It required 3 out of 6 members in the Viceroy’s Executive Council to be Indian. It extended the principle of communal representation among the Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. Establishment of a Public Service Commission. Separated the provincial budgets from the Central budget. NOTE: Earlier question came on ‘Dyarchy’ in 2017 and in every alternate year, in one way or another there is question on acts and policies of colonial times”
2,”The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:”,(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909; (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919; (c) Government of India Act, 1935; (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947,2012
2,c,”The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is given under 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The 7th Schedule divides the powers into 3 lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. This division of powers is based on the Government of India Act, 1935. It divided the powers between the Centre and provinces in terms of three lists – Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Other Important Features of Government of India Act, 1935: It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place, while adopting the dyarchy at the Centre. It introduced Bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. It further extended the principle of communal representation to the depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers). It also abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858.”
3,”In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?”,(a) The proportion of literates in the population; (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines; (c) The size of population in the working age group; (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society,2019
3,d,”Option (d) is correct: The term social capital was popularized by Robert Putnam. As per OECD, it can be defined as “networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups”. It consists of trust, mutual understanding, shared values and behavior that bind together the members of a community and make cooperative action possible. Such interaction enables people to build communities, to commit themselves to each other, and to knit the social fabric. Option (a) is incorrect: The proportion of literates in the population and the size of population in the working age group are the examples of human capital. Option (b) is incorrect: The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines is the example of physical capital.”
4,”One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is”,(a) the final goal of a stateless society; (b) class struggle; (c) abolition of private property; (d) economic determinism,2020
4,a,”The common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is the final goal of stateless and classless society. But means to achieve these final goals differ under Gandhism and Marxism. A stateless society refers to a society that lacks formal institutions of government. Additional Information: Karl Marx: State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining class dominance. Therefore, he strives for class struggle and revolution which will ultimately result in a stateless society. Mahatma Gandhi: According to Gandhiji, even minimal state will require to use force. This was against non-violence philosophy. Instead, Gandhiji was in favour of strengthening of local self-governments,”
5,”In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?”,(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy; (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism; (c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth; (d) An Agency for the implementation of public policy,2020
5,d,”Permanent Executive: Bureaucracy Bureaucracy is the executive arm of the government, where the elected government employs competent state officials to run after state matters. They are selected by the government through the merit-based process. The major objective of bureaucracy in India has not been Parliamentary democracy’s expansion but rather the implementation of the decisions taken by the executive. Parliamentary democracy results often in change at the helm of executive, the static and permanent bureaucracy provides continuity of policies and execution rather than political stability”
6,”Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State? (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government (b) A politically organised people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance (c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government (d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary”,(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government; (b) A politically organised people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance; (c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government; (d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary,2021
6,a,”The State refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people organized under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control. Thus, a community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.”
7,”Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?”,(a) A committed judiciary; (b) Centralization of powers; (c) Elected government; (d) Separation of powers,2021
7,d,”The doctrine of Separation of Powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs. This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy. In the Directive Principles of State Policy, Article 50 mentions separation of judiciary from the executive. Additional Information: Committed Judiciary: It means a judiciary committed to the policies of the government or ruling party; thus, it can’t protect the liberty of all people. Centralization of Power: Liberal-democratic theory assumes that decentralization promotes democratic participation, especially local self-government. Elected Government: Only having an elected government doesn’t safeguard liberty in liberal democracy. E.g., Pakistan.”
8,”What is the position of the Right to Property in India?”,(a) Legal right available to citizens only; (b) Legal right available to any person; (c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only; (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right,2021
8,b,”z Earlier, the Indian Constitution recognized the ‘Right to Property’ as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. Later, Right to Property as a fundamental right was abolished by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 and made it a legal right under Article 300-A. Article 300-A of the Constitutions states that “No person shall be deprived of his property save by Authority of Law”. Thus, Right to Property in India is a legal right available to any person.”
9,”If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?”,(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.; (b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.; (c) This would convert that area into the Union Territory.; (d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.,2022
9,a,”Fifth Schedule: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution. Governors can make regulations for peace & good government of Scheduled Areas after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC). Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes and regulate the business of moneylending in relation to the scheduled tribes. The provisions regarding the administration and control of Scheduled and Tribal Areas of any state except the four states are mentioned under this schedule: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram. NOTE: Earlier questions on ‘Fifth Schedule’ came in 2015 and 2019. Therefore, it is advisable to prepare the theme and sub-theme very holistically.”
10,”In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are, implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 3 only; (c) 2 and 3 only; (d) 1, 2 and 3,2013
10,a,”Parliamentary System entails the Executive responsible to the legislature for its policies and legislations. The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the States. The Parliamentary Government is also known as Cabinet Government/Responsible Government/Westminster Model. Some of its features are as follows: In the Parliamentary System of Government members of the Cabinet are members of the Parliament. (Statement 1 is correct). The ministers in the Parliament hold the office till they enjoy the confidence of the Parliament. (Statement 2 is correct) The Head of the state is President, and he/she does not head the cabinet, he is considered to be the nominal executive. (Statement 3 is incorrect)”
11,”Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?”,(a) Second Schedule; (b) Fifth Schedule; (c) Eighth Schedule; (d) Tenth Schedule,2014
11,d,”Tenth Schedule: It deals with the provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection. In 1985, the 52nd Amendment Act added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. On the basis of a petition by any other member of the House, it lays out the procedure by which a legislator may be removed from office on the grounds of defection by the Presiding officer of a legislature. The Chairman or Speaker of that House is tasked with making the final determination regarding disqualification due to defection. Both the Parliament and state legislatures are subject to the statute. The Presiding Officer’s decision is not subject to judicial review, according to the original law. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan judgement (1992), thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court. Judicial review is a basic feature of the constitution.”
12,”The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:”,(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes; (b) determine the boundaries between States; (c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats; (d) protect the interests of all the border States,2015
12,a,”The fifth and the sixth schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions related to the protection of the interests of the Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule: Deals with the provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram (AMTM). Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution. Sixth Schedule: It deals with the provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in 4 NE states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram (Not Manipur).”
13,”Right to vote and to be elected in India is a”,(a) Fundamental Right; (b) Natural Right; (c) Constitutional Right; (d) Legal Right,2017
13,c,”Constitutional Right: While framing the Indian Constitution the framers and makers of our Constitution took the decision to guarantee every adult Indian citizen to franchise their vote i.e., the Right to Vote. In India, the Right to Vote is provided both by the Indian Constitution and the Representation of People’s Act, 1951. Article 326: ensures that every individual above the age of 18 has the right to vote. Section 62 of the Representation of Peoples Act (RoPA), 1951: the right to vote will be available to every person on the electoral roll of that constituency. 61st Constitutional Amendment: lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.”
14,”Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:”,(a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.; (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.; (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.; (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.,2017
14,c,”Parliamentary System: The Parliamentary System is also referred to as Cabinet Government. It establishes a system of collective responsibility between the executive and the legislative. Parliamentary system is part of the basic structure of the constitution. The characteristics of India’s parliamentary system are: Presence of nominal and real executives i.e., President and Prime minister respectively, Majority party rule, Collective responsibility (Swim or Sink together) of the executive to the legislature, Membership of the ministers in the legislature, Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or State Assembly). It is through these powers that the Parliament enforces the responsibility of the executive to itself and to the people in the ultimate analysis.”
15,”Which one of the following is not a feature to Indian federalism?”,(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.; (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.; (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.; (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.,2017
15,d,”Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct: The Indian Constitution adopts the federal system of Government, but with more tilt towards a unitary system of government. So, every state government does not have power of its own. Thus, it is considered as a quasi-federal system. The features of a federation are: Two Government, Division of powers, Written Constitution, Supremacy of Constitution, Rigidity of Constitution, Independent judiciary, Bicameralism. Option (d) is incorrect: The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: One, unlike the American Federation (“Indestructible union of indestructible states”), the Indian Federation (“Indestructible union of destructible states”) is not the outcome of an agreement among the states; and two, the states are not permitted to secede the federation. Due to its invincibility, the federation is a Union. The country is a union that cannot be broken, although states can be split up and reorganized by changing their borders. State names and borders may be changed by the central government without their consent. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described India as an “indestructible Union of destructible states” for this reason.”
16,”The main advantage of the parliamentary form of governments is that:”,(a) the executive and legislature work independently.; (b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.; (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.; (d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.,2017
16,c,”Parliamentary System: The Parliamentary system is also known as the Cabinet Government/Responsible government/Westminster model of government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. The features of parliamentary government in India are: Presence of nominal and real executives. Majority party rule, Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Membership of the ministers in the legislature, Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).”
17,”Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?”,(a) Third Schedule; (b) Fifth Schedule; (c) Ninth Schedule; (d) Twelfth Schedule,2019
17,b,”Fifth Schedule: Deals with the provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution. In the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgment the Supreme Court held that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule. Under the fifth Schedule, the Governors can make regulations for peace & good government of Scheduled Areas after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC). Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes and regulate the business of moneylending in relation to the scheduled tribes. Additional Information: Third Schedule: The third schedule of Indian Constitution is related with the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for - The Union and the State ministers, The candidates for election to the Parliament and State Legislature, Members of the Parliament and State Legislature, The judges of the SC and HC, CAG. Ninth Schedule: Provisions as to validation of certain Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. Twelfth Schedule: This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 and it specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.”
18,”The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:”,(a) Jawaharlal Nehru; (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri; (c) Indira Gandhi; (d) Morarji Desai,2019
18,a,”Ninth Schedule: The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. At this time, Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India. He remained in the office from the year 1947 to 1964. This schedule deals with the provisions as to validation of certain Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. Additional Information: Prime Ministership of the following leaders are as follows: Lal Bahadur Shastri: 1964 - 1966 Indira Gandhi: 1966 - 1971 and 1980 - 1984 Morarji Desai: 1977 - 1979 NOTE: Question on Ninth Schedule came in 2018.”
19,”Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2020
19,d,”Statement 1 is incorrect: Basic Structure encompasses basic and core values like federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy which forms bedrock of the Indian Constitution. Basic Structure cannot be amended by parliament under Art 368. Basic Structure Doctrine is a Judicially innovative doctrine, and it was neither defined under Constitution nor it was defined by the Supreme Court or any other court. Various judgments of the Supreme Court form the bedrock of Basic Structure Doctrine like: Kesavananda Bharati Case (24 April 1973) and IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 13 of the Indian Constitution though gives the power of judicial review but the word ‘judicial review‘ is nowhere mentioned. The Union or the States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.”
20,”Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?”,(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.; (b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.; (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.; (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.,2021
20,a,”The Indian Constitution adopts the federal system of Government, but with more tilt towards a unitary system of government. So, every state government does not have power of its own. Thus, it is considered as a quasi-federal system. The features of a federation are: Two Government, division of powers, Written Constitution, Supremacy of Constitution, Rigidity of Constitution, Independent Judiciary and Bicameralism.”
21,”‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitutional has been provided in:”,(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights; (b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy; (c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy; (d) None of the above,2013
21,b,”"”Economic Justice”” as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided both in the Preamble of the Constitution and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). This is evident as follows: Preamble: The ideal of ‘justice’ mentioned in the preamble embraces three distinct formssocial, economical and political, where economic justice denotes the nondiscrimination between people on the basis of economic factors. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): The Socialistic principles of DPSP reflect the ideology of socialism. It aims to provide social and economic justice and set the path towards a welfare state. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added the Article 38 in DPSP, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.”
22,”Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?”,(a) Liberty of thought; (b) Economic liberty; (c) Liberty of expression; (d) Liberty of belief,2017
22,b,”Liberty as mentioned in the Preamble: This ideal of ‘liberty’ in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the French revolution. It means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals and at the same time, it provides opportunities for the development of individuals. The preamble to the Indian Constitution assures to all citizens- liberty of thought, liberty of expression, liberty of belief, liberty of faith and worship Justice as mentioned in the Preamble: The ideal of justice in the Indian Constitution embraces three distinct forms- social, economical and political: Social Justice: the equal treatment of all citizens without any social discrimination. Economic Justice: It calls for the nondiscrimination between people on the basis of economic factors. Political justice: It calls for equal access to political office, equal political rights, and equal voice in the government for all citizens.”
23,”The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?”,(a) The Preamble; (b) The Fundamental Rights; (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy; (d) The Fundamental Duties,2017
23,a,”Option (a) is correct: The Preamble: Though India followed the practice of the American Constitution, the preamble to the Indian Constitution embodies the basic philosophy and the fundamental values on which our constitution is based. It is not only the outcome of the grand and noble vision of the Constituent Assembly, but also the reflection of the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers of the Constitution. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court opined that the Preamble is “a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.” Option (b) is incorrect: Fundamental Rights: The framers and makers of the Constitution derived inspiration of ‘fundamental rights’ from the Constitution of the USA (Bill of Rights) and also from the Motilal Nehru committee Report 1928. It was meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. Option (c) is incorrect: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): It resembles the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in GoI Act 1935. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. Option (d) is incorrect: Fundamental Duties: Inspired from the erstwhile USSR, the Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.”
24,”Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?”,(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.; (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.; (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.; (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.,2018
24,b,”Where there is no Law, there is no Freedom. For liberty is to be free from restraint and violence from others, which cannot be where there is no law. If there are no laws, there is no liberty. Liberty: Liberty can be seen from two perspectives – negative and positive. Negative liberty: It is concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, i.e. absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. Positive liberty: Recognizes that one can be free only in society and not outside it, therefore it is the possibility of acting or the fact of acting in such a way as to take control of one’s life and realise one’s fundamental purposes. Safeguards of Liberty: Declaration of rights of the individuals: It is an important safeguard of liberty. In this manner, the government can be prevented from interfering with citizens’ liberty. The independent and impartial judiciary is aptly referred to as the watchdog of liberty. Decentralisation of powers: History is witness to the fact that concentration of power has very often led to despotism. Separation of powers, i.e., the executive, the legislature and the judiciary being separate, is a great ally of liberty. Montesquieu said, “Power should be a check on power.” Rule of law or equality in the eyes of the law is also an important safeguard of liberty. This is the bulwark against discrimination based on caste, class, colour, creed, etc. Law: It works as the aggregate of legislation, judicial precedents, and accepted legal principles; the body of authoritative grounds of judicial and administrative action; esp., the body of rules, standards, and principles that the courts of a particular jurisdiction apply in deciding controversies brought before them. NOTE: John Locke in one of his treatises of civil government wrote- “Where there is no law, there is no freedom”.”
25,”In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?”,(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers; (b) Absence of restraint; (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes; (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully,2019
25,d,”"”Opportunity to develop oneself fully” covers liberty fully, therefore, one may surmise that the purpose of ensuring ‘liberty’ is that one has no obstacles or hindrances to realise one’s full potential. Additional Information: “Protection against the tyranny of political rulers” is a partial definition and has a connotation more towards fundamental rights rather than liberty. “Absence of restraint” only covers part of the definition of liberty. Liberty does not mean ‘licence’ to do whatever one likes; it is to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself”
26,”The Preamble to the Constitution of India, is:”,(a) part of the Constitution but has no legal effect; (b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either; (c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part; (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts,2020
26,d,”The question of whether the Preamble is a part of the Constitution has been addressed in three landmark Supreme Court judgments: In the Berubari Union Case (1960), the Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. However, in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) and the LIC of India Case (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution.”
27,”What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?”,(a) A democratic Republic; (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic; (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic; (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic,2021
27,b,”The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is a brief introductory statement reflecting the hopes and aspirations of the people. It is based on the ideals behind the ‘Objective Resolution’ drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947. The original Preamble declared India a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”, and later, it was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) to include three new words– “Socialist, Secular and Integrity”.”
28,”With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) 1 and 3; (d) 2 and 3,2021
28,a,”Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for single citizenship only, which is Indian citizenship. A citizen of India cannot simultaneously be a citizen of another country. Statement 2 is incorrect: Both citizens by birth and naturalized citizens are eligible for the office of President in India. Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian citizenship can be terminated by the Central government under specific conditions, such as obtaining citizenship through fraud, disloyalty to the Constitution, unlawful activities during wartime, imprisonment, or continuous residence outside India.”
29,”With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?”,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 2 and 3 only; (c) 1 and 3 only; (d) 1, 2 and 3,2022
29,d,”Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a writ that commands and directs public officials to perform their duties. It cannot be issued against private individuals. Statement 2 is correct: Mandamus cannot be issued against private individuals or companies unless they have a public duty to perform. It also cannot be issued against a legislature. Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is a writ issued to inquire into the legality of a person’s claim to a public office. It can be sought by any interested person.”
30,”In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 and 3 only; (c) 1 and 3 only; (d) 1, 2 and 3,2011
30,c,”Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 of the Constitution mandates that all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no provision for communal representation in the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme aims to enhance opportunities for education and ensure equitable share for minorities in economic activities and employment, including recruitment to government jobs in districts with substantial minority populations.”
31,”Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1, 2 and 4 only; (b) 2, 3 and 4 only; (c) 1 and 4 only; (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2017
31,c,”Statement 1 is correct: Article 23 of the Indian Constitution, under the Right Against Exploitation, includes provisions for prohibition of trafficking in human beings, which encompasses various forms of exploitation such as selling and buying of men, women, and children, immoral trafficking, devadasi system, and slavery. Statement 2 is incorrect: Abolition of Untouchability is covered under the Right to Equality, not Right Against Exploitation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Cultural and Educational Rights, which are covered under Articles 29 and 30, do not fall under the Right Against Exploitation. Statement 4 is correct: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children in factories, and the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, was enacted to establish commissions for the protection of child rights and provide speedy trials for offenses against children or violations of child rights.”
32,”In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?”,(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.; (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.; (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.; (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.,2017
32,a,”In a constitutional democracy like India, rights and duties have an organic relationship. Rights are correlative with duties, as the state provides rights and lays down duties for citizens to peacefully coexist. For example, one’s right to life implies that others should provide protection and security, and one cannot enjoy the right to a clean environment if others do not conserve it. Thus, there is an intrinsic relationship between rights and duties.”
33,”One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of:”,(a) Privileges; (b) Restraints; (c) Competition; (d) Ideology,2017
33,a,”Equality in society is maintained by ending formal systems of inequality and ensuring the absence of privileges. Equality Before Law ensures that all individuals are subject to the ordinary law of the land, administered by ordinary law courts, without any special privileges regardless of their status.”
34,”Which one of the following statements is correct?”,(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.; (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.; (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.; (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.,2017
34,c,”Option (c) is correct: Rights are claimed by citizens against the state to prevent exploitation. They are inherent to citizens and are not privileges granted by the state. Option (a) is incorrect because rights are claimed against the state, not by the state against citizens. Option (b) is incorrect because rights are not privileges, they are fundamental entitlements. Option (d) is incorrect because rights are not privileges of a few citizens; they are equally available to all.”
35,”Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2018
35,a,”Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution, added by the 1st Amendment (1951), protect laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. Statement 2 is incorrect: While laws in the Ninth Schedule were initially protected from judicial review, the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) established that laws violating the basic structure of the Constitution are subject to judicial review. Additionally, the IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu case (2007) ruled that all laws, including those in the Ninth Schedule, are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.”
36,”Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? 1. Limitation of Powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1 and 3 only; (b) 2 and 4 only; (c) 1, 2 and 4 only; (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2018
36,c,”Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Rule of law, as enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, incorporates the principle of equality before law, which is derived from A.V. Dicey’s concept of Rule of Law. The three fundamental principles of the Rule of Law are the absence of arbitrary power, equality before the law, and the primacy of individual rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: In a democratic setup, the government is accountable to the people, not vice versa.”
37,”Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?”,(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution; (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV; (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III; (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution,2018
37,c,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to life and personal liberty. In the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that privacy is a natural right inherent in all individuals, and any restriction on this right must pass the tests of legislative mandate, legitimate state purpose, and proportionality. Additional Information is provided about Article 14 (Right to Equality) and Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability).”
38,”Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?”,(a) Article 19; (b) Article 21; (c) Article 25; (d) Article 29,2019
38,b,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution safeguards the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to marry the person of one’s choice. This was affirmed in the Hadiya Case (2017) by the Supreme Court. Additional information is provided about Article 19 (Right to Freedom) and Article 25 (Freedom of Religion).”
39,”Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?”,(a) Right against Exploitation; (b) Right to Freedom; (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies; (d) Right to Equality,2020
39,d,”Articles 14 to 18 deal with the Right to Equality, which includes protection against discrimination based on various grounds, equality of opportunity in public employment, abolition of untouchability, and abolition of titles. Additional information is provided about other fundamental rights related to Right to Freedom, Right Against Exploitation, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.”
40,”Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 2 only; (c) 1 and 3 only; (d) 1, 2 and 3,2020
40,d,”Statement 1 is correct: The objectives of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, such as justice, equality, and liberty, reflect the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). Statement 2 is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) aim to provide social and economic justice, similar to the principles outlined in UDHR Article 22 regarding social security. Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental duties (Article 51A) are civic and moral obligations of Indian citizens, which are aligned with the principles of human rights. Additional information about specific articles of the UDHR is provided.”
41,”‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?”,(a) Article 15; (b) Article 19; (c) Article 21; (d) Article 29,2021
41,c,”Article 21 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to life and personal liberty. In the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme Court affirmed that privacy is a natural right inherent in all individuals. However, this right may be restricted only by state action that passes three tests: having a legislative mandate, pursuing a legitimate state purpose, and being proportionate. It’s noted that questions related to the Right to Privacy are common in various examinations, so it’s advisable to study Fundamental Rights comprehensively.”
42,”A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?”,(a) Article 14; (b) Article 28; (c) Article 32; (d) Article 44,2021
42,a,”Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Any legislation that confers unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive or administrative authority violates Article 14. This principle is derived from the concept of Rule of Law, which is part of the basic structure of the constitution. Rule of Law entails the absence of arbitrary power, equality before the law, and the primacy of individual rights.”
43,”Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code. 2. Organizing village Panchayats. 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas. 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities. Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?”,(a) 1, 2 and 4 only; (b) 2 and 3 only; (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2012
43,b,”The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are inspired by various ideologies, including Gandhian principles. Article 40, which deals with organizing Village Panchayats, is based on Gandhian principles. Additionally, Article 43, which promotes cottage industries in rural areas, is also influenced by Gandhian principles. DPSPs are classified into categories like Socialist, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual principles based on their content.”
44,”Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 3, 4 and 5 only; (c) 1, 2 and 5 only; (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5,2012
44,d,”Various provisions in the Constitution of India, such as Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Rural and Urban Local Bodies, and the Seventh Schedule, have implications for education. For example, Article 45 of the DPSP provides for early childhood care and education, and the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right. Rural and Urban Local Bodies also have responsibilities related to education, as specified in the respective schedules added by constitutional amendments.”
45,”According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?”,(a) Fundamental Rights; (b) Fundamental Duties; (c) Directive Principles of State Policy; (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties,2013
45,c,”Article 37 of the Indian Constitution states that while Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable by any court, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. DPSP constitutes a socio-economic and political program for a modern democratic State and embodies the concept of a welfare state. Fundamental Rights and Duties, on the other hand, are related to the role, responsibility, and rights of the people.”
46,In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the,(a) Preamble to the constitution; (b) Directive Principles of State Policy; (c) Fundamental Duties; (d) Ninth Schedule,2014
46,b,”Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to focus on maintaining just and honourable relations with other nations, fostering respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encouraging the settlement of international disputes by arbitration. This provision underscores India’s commitment to international peace and security.”
47,Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. The principles spell out of the socio-economic democracy in the country. 2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2015
47,c,”Both statements are correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) constitute a comprehensive economic, social, and political program for a modern democratic state, aiming to realize the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity outlined in the Preamble. While DPSPs are not enforceable by any court according to Article 37, they are fundamental in the governance of the country.”
48,The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its,(a) Preamble; (b) Directive Principles of State Policy; (c) Fundamental Rights; (d) Seventh Schedule,2015
48,b,”The explanation correctly identifies the features of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentioned in Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution. It emphasizes that DPSPs constitute a socio-economic and political program for a welfare state, differentiating it from a police state. Article 38(1) outlines the State’s duty to promote the welfare of the people by ensuring justice, social, economic, and political, in all institutions of national life.”
49,Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? ,(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women; (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries; (c) Right to work, education and public assistance; (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers,2017
49,b,”The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list in the Indian Constitution. These additions aimed at securing opportunities for the healthy development of children, promoting equal justice and providing free legal aid to the poor, securing the participation of workers in the management of industries, and protecting and improving the environment along with safeguarding forests and wildlife.”
50,Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct? ,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2017
50,d,”The explanation contrasts Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) with Fundamental Rights. DPSPs serve as instruments of instruction to the government to achieve certain ends, without imposing limitations on any organ of the State, while Fundamental Rights limit state action by imposing restrictions, whether legislative or executive.”
51,Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State? ,(a) Directive Principles of State Policy; (b) Fundamental Rights; (c) Preamble; (d) Seventh Schedule,2020
51,a,”The explanation accurately describes the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are enshrined in Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution and borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. DPSP constitutes a comprehensive program for a welfare state, focusing on socio-economic and political well-being. Article 38(1) emphasizes the State’s duty to promote welfare by ensuring justice in all aspects of national life.”
52,With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: ,(a) 1only; (b) 2 only; (c) 1 and 3 only; (d) 2 and 3 only,2020
52,d,”Statement 1 is incorrect because the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) were made non-justiciable based on the recommendations of the Tej Bahadur Committee Report, not because of any constitutional provision. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: DPSPs are non-justiciable and serve as constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive, and administrative matters.”
53,In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by [2020],(a) the Preamble of the Constitution; (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy; (c) the Seventh Schedule; (d) the conventional practice,2020
53,b,”The explanation correctly identifies Article 50 of the Indian Constitution as part of the Liberal-Intellectual Principles under DPSP. Article 50 emphasizes the separation of the judiciary from the executive, which is a fundamental principle of liberalism aimed at preventing the concentration of power and safeguarding individual liberties.”
54,In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens? 1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000. 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000. 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000. 4. All Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given below: ,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 3 and 4 only; (c) 2 and 3 only; (d) 1 and 4 only,2020
54,a,”All statements are correct: Statement 1 provides a list of groups eligible for free legal services under the Legal Services Authorities Act. Statement 2 correctly mentions the income limit for transgender individuals to qualify for free legal aid. Statement 3 highlights that Other Backward Classes (OBC) are not explicitly mentioned for free legal services. Statement 4 clarifies that the provision of free legal services to senior citizens depends on income limits set by state governments.”
55,Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates ,(a) the Right to Equality ; (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy ; (c) the Right to Freedom ; (d) the Concept of Welfare,2021
55,b,”Option (b) is correct: Article 39 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) emphasizes that the economic system should not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. This reflects the socialist principles enshrined in DPSP, aiming to promote economic equality and prevent the concentration of wealth.”
56,Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? ,(a) To vote in public elections; (b) To develop the scientific temper; (c) To safeguard public property; (d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals,2011
56,a,”Option (a) is correct: Article 51A of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. These duties, added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, include various moral and civic obligations for citizens. However, voting in public elections is not listed as a fundamental duty. The Fundamental Duties were introduced to the Constitution later than the Fundamental Rights.”
57,Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice. 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: ,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 2 only; (c) 1, 3 and 4 only; (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4,2012
57,c,”The explanation correctly identifies Article 51A of the Indian Constitution as dealing with Fundamental Duties. It outlines the history of the incorporation of Fundamental Duties and provides a list of the duties, emphasizing that protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is more relevant to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) than Fundamental Duties.”
58,”To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the: ,(a) Preamble of the Constitution; (b) Directive Principles of State Policy; (c) Fundamental Rights; (d) Fundamental Duties,2015
58,d,”Option (d) is correct: Article 51A of the Indian Constitution lists the Fundamental Duties. Protecting the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India is one of the Fundamental Duties among the eleven listed in the Constitution. These duties were introduced through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.”
59,Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below: ,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2017
59,d,”Statement 1 is incorrect because Fundamental Duties are non-enforceable and non-justiciable, as they are not subject to any legislative process for enforcement. Statement 2 is incorrect because Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties, and Parliament does not provide legislation for penalties or punishments for their non-observance. Fundamental Duties are confined to Indian citizens only, not to foreigners.”
60,Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct? ,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 2 and 3 only; (c) 1 and 3 only; (d) 1, 2 and 3,2022
60,b,”Statement 1 is incorrect because prior permission of the President is not required to introduce a bill amending the Constitution in India. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill, and Article 368 requires a special majority for amending the Constitution.”
61,Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2013
61,d,”Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 falsely claims that only the Lok Sabha can initiate a bill to amend the Constitution, which is not true. Statement 2 incorrectly suggests that all Constitution Amendment Bills must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states, which is only required for bills amending federal provisions.”
62,Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2019
62,b,”Statement 1 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment did not propose placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review; it was actually the 39th Amendment that sought to shield the election of the Prime Minister and other high offices from judicial scrutiny. Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Amendment sought to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), but it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.”
63,With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ,(a) 1 only; (b) 2 only; (c) Both 1 and 2; (d) Neither 1 nor 2,2019
63,d,”Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 incorrectly suggests that the 42nd Amendment Act permanently curtailed the power of High Courts (HCs) in judicial review, but this was partially rectified by the 43rd Amendment Act. Statement 2 incorrectly implies that the Supreme Court does not have extensive jurisdiction and powers; however, the Supreme Court is indeed the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution, with broad powers, including the authority to strike down unconstitutional amendments.”
64,Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: ,(a) 1 and 2 only; (b) 1 and 3 only; (c) 2 and 3 only; (d) 1, 2 and 3,2017
64,b,”Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation of President’s Rule can indeed be termed a ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency.’ However, statement 2 is incorrect because the President’s Rule involves the dismissal of the state council of ministers, not the state legislative assembly. Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision for the dissolution of local bodies during the proclamation of President’s Rule.”
