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[MT 6315] Cytogenetics > Unit 3: Cell Cycle > Flashcards

Unit 3: Cell Cycle Flashcards

1
Q

Represents a self-regulated sequence of events that controls cell growth and cell division

A

Cell Cycle

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2
Q

What is the goal of cell cycle?

A

To produce two daughter cells, each containing chromosomes identical to those of the parental cell

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3
Q

This is the different steps and phases for cells to replicate.

A

Cell Cycle

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4
Q

What are the two principle phases of the cell cycle?

A

Interphase
Mitosis

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5
Q

This phase generally represents the continuous growth of the cell where the cell makes a copy of its DNA or DNA Replication.

A

Interphase

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6
Q

Cells spend most of their life in what phase?

A

Interphase

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7
Q

What are the three phases of Interphase?

A

G1
S
G2

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8
Q

The phase characterized by the partition of genome where cell separates its DNA into 2 sets and divides its cytoplasm forming 2 new cells.

A

M Phase (Mitosis)

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9
Q

The phase wherein cell divides into 2 new daughter cells.

A

Cell Division

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10
Q

What are the three cell types?

A

Labile Cells
Stable Cells
Permanent Cells

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11
Q

The cells that want to grow and divide in order for them to carry out their function.

A

Labile Cells

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12
Q

What phases in the interphase do labile cells go through?

A

G1, S, G2, M Phases

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13
Q

Give three examples of labile cells.

A
  1. Epithelium of Skin
  2. Lining of the Urinary Tract (Ureter, Bladder, Urethra)
  3. Lining of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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14
Q

These are the cells that want to stay at the G1 phase, but if there are conditions that stimulate them to proceed with the S Phase and G2, they will eventually grow and divide.

A

Stable Cells

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15
Q

Stable cells want to stay at what phase?

A

G1

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16
Q

What are two examples of stable cells?

A
  1. Liver Cells
  2. Renal Tubules (Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Distal Convoluted Tubule, Cells of Loop of Henle)
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17
Q

Permanent Cells are also known as…

A

Amitotic Cells

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18
Q

These are the type of cells that undergo a period of cell cycle and end there.

A

Permanent Cells

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19
Q

True or False: Permanent Cells die with us

A

True

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20
Q

These are the type of cells that don’t proceed to the cell cycle anymore once they reach maturity.

A

Permanent Cells

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21
Q

What are the three examples of permanent cells?

A
  1. Neurons
  2. Cardiac Muscle
  3. Skeletal Muscle Fibers
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22
Q

The checkpoints were proposed by who? (2)

A

Leland Hartwell
Ted Weinert

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23
Q

Internal quality control mechanisms represented by biochemical pathways that control transition between cell cycle stages

A

Checkpoints

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24
Q

These monitor and modulate the progression of cells in response to intracellular or environmental signals.

A

Checkpoints

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25
Q

The stage in the eukaryotic cell cycle at which the cell would examine the internal and external cues to decide whether or not to move forward.

A

Checkpoints

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26
Q

The checkpoints are activated by a ___________________ that recognize a cell anomaly or problems in the cell.

A

system of sensors

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27
Q

Defined as the failure to arrest the cell cycle before or at mitosis, resulting in aberrant chromosome segregation

A

Mitotic Catastrophe

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28
Q

Caused by malfunction of cell cycle checkpoints and may lead to cell death and tumor cell development

A

Mitotic Catastrophe

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29
Q

Malfunction of cell cycle checkpoints may lead to: (2)

A

Cell Death
Tumor Cell Development

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30
Q

Cell death occurs by the activation of _______________ cycle where there is irreparable damage observed.

A

Apoptotic Cycle

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31
Q

Cells that fail to execute the apoptotic cycle in response to either DNA or mitotic spindle damage are likely to divide asymmetrically or unevenly in the next round of cell division. This would lead to a generation of __________ cells or cells that contain abnormal number of chromosomes.

A

Aneuploid Cells

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32
Q

The mitotic catastrophe may be regarded as one of the mechanisms contributing to _______________________.

A

Oncogenesis or Tumor Development

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33
Q

Malignant cells lose their _____________, wherein cells would inhibit their division when in contact with other cells.

A

Contact Inhibition

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34
Q

Malfunction of the restriction checkpoint may be facilitated by the viral proteins of several cancer-causing viruses, such as the _____________.

A

T-antigen of simian virus (SV40) that binds to pRb

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35
Q

This is a tumor suppressor and it suppresses the formation of tumor cells and it plays a role in the negative control of cell cycle.

A

pRb or Retinoblastoma Susceptibility Protein

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36
Q

How does the negative control in pRb work?

A

Blocks entry to S phase (to prevent replication of damaged DNA)

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37
Q

True or False: This binding alters the configuration of the pRb-T-antigen complex and renders the restriction checkpoint inoperable, thus facilitating the cell’s progression from the G1 to S phase of the cell cycle.

A

True

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38
Q

How many hours does it take for the G1 Phase to occur?

A

9 to 12 hours

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39
Q

How many hours does it take for the S Phase to occur?

A

7.5 to 10 hours

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40
Q

How many hours does it take for the G2 Phase to occur?

A

3.5 to 4.5 hours

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41
Q

True or False: No cell ever stays at the G1 Phase.

A

False

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42
Q

In this phase, the cell gathers nutrients and synthesizes RNA and proteins necessary for DNA synthesis and chromosome replication.

A

G1 Phase

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43
Q

What is the longest and most variable phase of Interphase?

A

G1

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44
Q

In this phase, the cell is doubling its molecular composition (the organelles it contains) such as organelles and biomolecules.

A

G1 Phase

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45
Q

In the G1 Phase, what molecular compositions are doubled?

A

Biomolecules
Organelles

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46
Q

This checkpoint monitors the integrity of the newly replicated DNA.

A

G1 DNA-Damage Checkpoint

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47
Q

True or False: If the checkpoint detects high levels of tumor suppressing protein (P53), the cell is still allowed to proceed to the next phase because the protein turns off the checkpoint operation.

A

False

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48
Q

The checkpoint that is sensitive to the size of the cell, the state of the cell’s physiologic processes, and its interactions with extracellular matrix.

A

Restriction Checkpoint

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49
Q

Restriction checkpoints are mediated by interactions between ______ and a family of _____, which are proteins that prevent cell division.

A

pRB; E2F

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50
Q

True or False: In normal cells, proper interaction between pRb and E2F turns off many genes and blocks cell-cycle progression.

A

True

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51
Q

Damage in the DNA is collectively termed as “__________________.”

A

Thymine Dimers

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52
Q

What may cause Thymine Dimers in the DNA?

A

UV Light

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53
Q

True or False: There is no DNA damage if there is an expression of proteins that functions as inhibitors of cell division.

A

False

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54
Q

In this stage of interphase, the DNA is replicated.

A

S Phase

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55
Q

In the S Phase, DNA is replicated from ____ chromosomes to ______ chromosomes.

A

46; 92

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56
Q

In this phase, the cell is allowed to synthesize a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus.

A

S Phase

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57
Q

In this phase, the DNA of the cell is doubled and new chromatids are formed that will become obvious at the prophase stage of the mitotic division.

A

S Phase

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58
Q

Humans are __________ organisms.

A

Diploid

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58
Q

When the chromosome condenses, newly formed DNA or chromosomes or new chromatids that appear or were constructed in the S phase, would be visible in the __________ stage.

A

Prophase Stage

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59
Q

Chromosome replication is initiated at many different sites along the chromosomal DNA

A

Replicon

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60
Q

DNA-damage checkpoint that detects mispairing

A

S Phase Checkpoint or S DNA-damage Checkpoint

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61
Q

Period of cell growth and reorganization of cytoplasmic organelles before entering the mitotic cycle

A

G2 Phase

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62
Q

The cell prepared for cell division and examines its replicated DNA in preparation for cell division

A

G2 Phase

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63
Q

In this phase, cell double checks for mispairing and duplicated chromosome for error making any needed repairs.

A

G2 Phase

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64
Q

What enzymes function in checking for mispairings and duplicated chromosomes for errors making any needed repairs?

A

DNA Polymerase I and III

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65
Q

True or False: G2 Phase can synthesize at rapid speeds.

A

True

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66
Q

What is the nature of the nuclear membrane?

A

Phospholipid Bilayer

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67
Q

This signals that the chromosomes are ready to be divided to form chromatin, making the division of the nucleus possible.

A

Proteolytic Cleavage

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68
Q

What are the three proteins found in the nucleus?

A

H3A
Lamine Protein
Nuclear Pore Protein

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69
Q

The checkpoints at this stage monitor the DNA quality that is produced in the S phase

A

G2 Phase Checkpoint

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70
Q

In this checkpoint, the unreplicated DNA checkpoint would prevent the replication of the cell into M phase before DNA synthesis is complete. It would not allow the cell to continue to M phase unless DNA synthesis is complete.

A

G2 Phase

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71
Q

True or Phase: M Phase lasts about 8 hours.

A

False

(1 hour)

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72
Q

Mitosis always include what processes? (2)

A

Karyokinesis
Cytokinesis

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73
Q

Division of Nucleus

A

Karyokinesis

74
Q

Division of Cytoplasm

A

Cytokinesis

75
Q

Karyokinesis is possible due to _______________________ in G2.

A

Proteolytic Cleavage

76
Q

The stage where formation of the sister chromatids, also called daughter chromosomes, occur.

A

Prophase

77
Q

Sister chromatids may also be called…

A

Daughter Chromosomes

78
Q

The phase where centromeres or centrioles are formed.

A

Prophase

79
Q

What are the structural proteins forming centrioles?

A

MTOC - Microtubule Organizing Centers

80
Q

What are the two fibers bound to the centrioles?

A

Polar Fibers
Astral Fibers

81
Q

What is the shorter fiber? (Polar Fibers
or Astral Fibers)

A

Astral

81
Q

What fiber has an affinity to the kinetochore (it has hooks that bind to the kinetochores and try to pull them in opposite directions)?

A

Polar Fibers

82
Q

What is the longer fiber? (Polar Fibers
or Astral Fibers)

A

Polar Fiber

83
Q

Polar fibers is a type of ___________ protein.

A

Structural

84
Q

Polar fibers are attached to the _______________.

A

centromere

85
Q

There are proteins in the centromere called __________________.

A

Kinetochores

86
Q

When the polar fibers are pulling sister chromatids in opposite directions, the ____________________ is created

A

metaphase plate

87
Q

In this phase, sister chromatids have already been separated.

A

Anaphase

88
Q

In pulling the sister chromatids apart, the centrioles are assisted by proteins called ________________.

A

Motor Proteins

89
Q

As the MTOCs are trying to pull the daughter chromosomes form teacher, there is a tension being created in the middle, hence forming the _________________________ seen in the telophase

A

cleavage furrow

90
Q

In this phase, cleavage furrow is formed

A

Telophase

91
Q

During the formation of cleavage furrow, why is the cell not ripping apart?

A

Contractile Proteins (Actin and Myosin)

92
Q

True or False: All cells undergo cell division.

A

False

93
Q

What are the two specific checkpoints of the M Phase?

A
  1. Spindle-assembly checkpoint
  2. Chromosome segregation checkpoint
94
Q

This is also known as the resting phase.

A

G0 Phase

95
Q

The reserve stem cell population belongs to what phase?

A

G0 Phase

96
Q

Activation of the reserve stem cell population may be induced by what events? (3)

A
  1. Normal Wound Healing
  2. In repopulation of the seminiferous epithelium after intense acute exposure of the testis to X-irradiation
  3. During regeneration of an organ, such as the liver, after removal of a major portion.
97
Q

What are the three main checkpoints of the cell?

A
  1. Cell Growth Checkpoint
  2. DNA Synthesis Checkpoint
  3. Mitosis Checkpoint
98
Q

This checkpoint occurs toward the end of growth phase 1 (G1) and checks whether the cell is big enough and has made the proper proteins for the synthesis phase.

A

Cell Growth Checkpoint

99
Q

This checkpoint occurs during the synthesis phase (S) to check whether the DNA has been replicated correctly.

A

DNA Synthesis Checkpoint

100
Q

This checkpoint occurs during the Mitosis Phase (M) and checks whether the mitosis is complete.

A

Mitosis Checkpoint

101
Q

Identify the Mitotic Phase described:

Replicated chromosomes condense and become visible

A

Prophase

102
Q

Sister chromatids are held together by the ring of proteins called ____________ and the ______________.

A

Cohesins; Centromeres

103
Q

True or False: In the formation of sister chromatid, centromeres/centrioles/MTOC are already observed.

A

True

104
Q

In Prophase, what is the state of the nucleus?

A

Degraded

105
Q

In a chromosome, what is the old strand?

A

Left

106
Q

In a chromosome, what is the new strand?

A

Right

107
Q

What is the chromosome composed of?

A

DNA
Chromatin

108
Q

Formation of centromeres or centrioles at the polar end occurs in what phase?

A

Prophase

109
Q

How many chromosomes are present in the Prophase stage?

A

92 chromosomes

110
Q

Identify the Mitotic Phase described:

The nuclear envelope begins to disintegrate into small transport vesicles and resembles the sER

A

Prometaphase

111
Q

This is also called late prophase.

A

Prometaphase

112
Q

Identify the Mitotic Phase described:

The nucleolus, which may still be present in some cells, also completely disappears

A

Prometaphase

113
Q

A highly specialized protein complex called a ____________________ appears on each chromatid opposite to the centromere.

A

kinetochore

114
Q

This phase begins as the mitotic spindle, consisting of three types of microtubules, becomes organized around the microtubule-organizing centers (MTOCs) located at opposite poles of the cell.

A

Metaphase

115
Q

What are the three types of microtubules?

A

Polar Microtubules
Astral Microtubules
Kinetochore Microtubules

115
Q

What directs the movement of the chromosomes to a plane in the middle of the cell?

A

Kinetochore microtubules and their associated motor proteins

116
Q

The phenomenon wherein the chromosomes move to the plane in the middle of the cell.

A

Equatorial or Metaphase Plate

117
Q

When the polar fibers are pulling them in opposite directions, what is created?

A

Metaphase Plate

118
Q

This phase begins at the initial separation of sister chromatids.

A

Anaphase

119
Q

The centrioles are assisted by proteins called __________________ when pulling the sister chromatids apart.

A

motor proteins

120
Q

This phase is marked by the reconstitution of a nuclear envelope around the chromosomes at each pole.

A

Telophase

121
Q

What phase is described below:

Chromosomes uncoil and become indistinct except at regions that will remain condensed in the interphase nucleus

A

Telophase

122
Q

What phase is described below:

Nucleoli reappear, and the cytoplasm divides to form two daughter cells.

A

Telophase

123
Q

True or False: Mitosis forms two identical cells.

A

True

124
Q

Formation of cleavage furrow occurs in what phase?

A

Telophase

125
Q

This is a process in which gametes or sex cells are produced either egg or sperm cell. This process involves two sequential nuclear divisions. This is followed by cell division producing gametes containing half the number of chromosomes and half the DNA content found in somatic cells.

A

Meiosis

126
Q

True or False: The cytoplasmic events of meiosis in males and females are the same.

A

False

127
Q

True or False: The nuclear events of meiosis in males and females are the same.

A

True

127
Q

This pertains to the chromosome number being reduced from diploid to haploid and the amount of DNA being reduced from 4D to 2D.

A

Reductional Division

128
Q

Reductional Division occurs in what phase of meiosis?

A

Meiosis I

129
Q

Equatorial Division occurs in what phase of meiosis?

A

Equatorial Division occurs in what phase of meiosis?

129
Q

In this phenomenon, there is no DNA replication. The number of chromosomes remain at (1n), although the amount of DNA represented by the number of chromatids is reduced to (1d).

A

In this phenomenon, there is no DNA replication. The number of chromosomes remain at (1n), although the amount of DNA represented by the number of chromatids is reduced to (1d).

130
Q

What are the five stages under Prophase I?

A
  1. Leptotene
  2. Zygotene
  3. Pachytene
  4. Diplotene
  5. Diakinesis
131
Q

An extended phase in which pairing of homologous chromosomes, synapsis (close association of homologous chromosomes), and recombination of genetic material on homologous chromosomes is observed.

A

Prophase I

132
Q

What are the three primary processes occurring among the homologous chromosomes during Prophase I?

A
  1. Pairing of Homologous Chromosomes
  2. Synapsis
  3. Recombination of genetic material
133
Q

This refers to the close association of homologous chromosomes.

A

Synapsis

134
Q

This is characterized by the condensation of chromatin and by the appearance of chromosomes.

A

Leptotene

135
Q

Should a normal cell have 92 chromosomes?

A

no

136
Q

In the Leptotene stage, sister chromatids condense and become connected with each other by ______________.

A

meiosis-specific cohesion complexes

137
Q

In this stage of Prophase I, pairing of homologous chromosomes of maternal and paternal origin is initiated.

A

Leptotene

138
Q

In this stage of Prophase I, synapsis begins and continues throughout Pachytene.

A

Zygotene

138
Q

What complex is formed in the Zygotene stage?

A

Synaptenomal Complex

139
Q

Synapsis is completed in this stage.

A

Pachytene

140
Q

Crossing over occurs early in this stage and involves the transposition of DNA strands between two different chromosomes.

A

Pachytene

141
Q

Early in this stage, the synaptonemal complex dissolves, and the chromosomes condense further.

A

Diplotene

142
Q

In this stage, the homologous chromosomes begin to separate from each other and appear to be connected by newly formed junctions.

A

Diplotene

143
Q

In the Diplotene stage, homologous chromosomes begin to separate from each other and appear to be connected by newly formed junctions between chromosomes called…

A

Chiasmata

143
Q

True or False: In the Diplotene stage, sister chromatids are separated from each other.

A

False

144
Q

In this stage, the homologous chromosomes condense and shorten to reach their maximum thickness. The nucleolus also disappears while the nuclear envelope disintegrates.

A

Diakinesis

145
Q

In this phase, paired chromosomes are aligned at the equatorial plate with one member on either side.

A

Metaphase I

146
Q

True or False: In Metaphase I, homologous chromosomes are still held together by chiasmata.

A

True

147
Q

True or False: Once the nuclear envelope has broken down, the spindle microtubules begin to interact with the chromosomes through the multilayered protein structure which is usually positioned near the centromere.

A

True

148
Q

True or False: In Anaphase I and Telophase I, the centromeres split.

A

False

149
Q

In this phase, a maternal or paternal member of each homologous pair, now containing exchanged segments, moves to each pole.

A

Anaphase & Telophase I

150
Q

True or False: Meiosis forms genetic diversity.

A

True

151
Q

Inactivated X chromosomes seen in female somatic cells present adjacent to the nuclear membrane.

A

Barr Body

152
Q

Small, well-defined body which stains intensely with nuclear dyes.

A

Barr Body

153
Q

Present in a large proportion of nuclei of female origin and absent in male nuclei.

A

Barr Body

154
Q

What is the average size of the Barr Body estimated in nuclei of buccal mucosa and in sections of several human tissues?

A

0.7 × 1.2 μ

155
Q

Major phases of Cell Cycle

A
156
Q

Three major phenomena that occurs in the interphase

A
157
Q

Name one important phenomenon that occurs in the G.

A
158
Q

What is doubled in the cell during G1?

A
159
Q

In the S phase, what is the most important part of the central dogma that occurs?

A
160
Q

In the S phase, there is a certain type of DNA damage that is corrected, what is that damage?

A
161
Q

Give an example of a situation where formation of thymine dimers is induced.

A
162
Q

What’s the most important step that occurs in the G checkpoint?
Finding mispairs, proteolytic cleavage

A

Finding mispairs, proteolytic cleavage

163
Q

Why is there a need for proteolytic cleavage?

A

To make cellular division possible

164
Q

Karyokinesis

A

Nuclear

165
Q

What do you call the step of nuclear division?

A

Karyokinesis

165
Q

Give an example of nuclear membrane proteins that are cleaved in G2.

A

H3A
Lamin
Nuclear Pore

166
Q

Another term for centrioles.

A

Microtubule Organizing Center

167
Q

Who assists the polar fibers to move into opposite directions of the cell?

A

Motor Proteins

168
Q

In what part of the chromosome is the kinetochore attached?

A

Centromere

169
Q

Between the astral fibers and the polar fibers, which one attached to the kinetochore?

A

Polar

169
Q

Astral fibers and polar fibers are structural proteins, TRUE or FALSE?

A

True

170
Q

Two fibers attached to centrioles

A

Polar, Astral

171
Q

Generally, once the cells are pulled apart we move from prophase to?

A

Metaphase

171
Q

In what phase does the lining of chromosomes in the centromere occur?

A

Metaphase

172
Q

Once the cells are pulled apart, they should be ripped apart. Why does that not happen?

A

Cleavage furrow with actin and myosin

172
Q

T or F. All cells undergo cell cycle even after maturation.

A

False

173
Q

Two biological composition of chromatin

A

DNA and histone proteins

[MT 6315] Cytogenetics (16 decks)

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