Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Atom

A

Smallest stable unit of matter that has the characteristics of its specific element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the structure of an atom?

A

A nucleus (Protons and neutrons) in the middle and electrons orbitals (electrons orbiting around it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Protons have a ____ charge

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neutrons have ____ charge

A

No
(They are neutral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Electrons have a _____ charge

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If the orbital is closer to the nucleus, it is a ____ level orbital

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If the orbital is farther to the nucleus, it is a ____ level orbital

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a valence electron

A

Electron found in the outer most orbital used for making different types of bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most elements want ____ electrons in their valence shell because this makes them the ____

A

8
Most stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s another way to say non-neutral atom? (Not same number of electrons and protons)

A

Ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a cation?

A

An ion with a positive charge because there are more protons than electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an anion

A

An ion with a negative charge because there are more electrons than protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the main elements of life

A

Carbon, Hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is fixed from the atmosphere by plants during photosynthesis?

A

Inorganic carbon

This process is essential for the conversion of carbon dioxide into organic compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the main source of biomass in ecosystems?

A

Carbohydrates

Carbohydrates are synthesized during photosynthesis and serve as a fundamental energy source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the biomolecules that organisms utilize carbon to produce.

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
  • Nucleic acids
  • Lipids

These biomolecules are crucial for cellular structure and function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to carbon when organisms die?

A

Decomposers recycle the carbon back into the environment

This recycling process is vital for maintaining ecosystem balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: Organisms in carbon-depleted areas can survive.

A

False

They cannot make the necessary biological molecules without sufficient carbon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fill in the blank: Inorganic carbon is incorporated into _______ during photosynthesis.

A

carbohydrates

This incorporation is a key step in the carbon cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What process is used by bacteria and other decomposers to fix inorganic nitrogen from the atmosphere?

A

Nitrogen fixation

This process involves converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can absorb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do plants utilize fixed nitrogen?

A

Plants absorb nitrogen to produce proteins and nucleic acids

Proteins and nucleic acids are essential for growth and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What role do decomposers play in the nitrogen cycle?

A

Decomposers recycle nitrogen back into the environment

This process is crucial for maintaining nitrogen availability in ecosystems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens to organisms in nitrogen-depleted areas?

A

They will die because they cannot make proteins or nucleic acids

Nitrogen is essential for these fundamental biological molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fill in the blank: Nitrogen is recycled into the environment by _______.

A

decomposers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False: All organisms can synthesize proteins and nucleic acids without nitrogen.

A

False

Nitrogen is a critical component of proteins and nucleic acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is phosphorus used to build?

A

Nucleic acids and certain types of lipids (phospholipids)

Phosphorus is essential for the structural integrity of nucleic acids and the formation of phospholipids, which are crucial for cell membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens to organisms in phosphorus depleted areas?

A

They will die because they cannot make nucleic acids or phospholipids

Nucleic acids are vital for genetic information, while phospholipids are major components of cell membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fill in the blank: Phosphorus is essential for the formation of _______.

A

Nucleic acids and phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Phosphorus is not necessary for cell membrane structure.

A

False

Phosphorus is a key component of phospholipids, which are essential for cell membrane structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is electronegativity?

A

Electronegativity is the measurement of how strongly atoms attract bonding electrons to themselves.

It quantifies the tendency of an atom to attract electrons in a chemical bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does electronegativity measure?

A

Electronegativity measures how much atoms will pull electrons toward themselves.

This is important in understanding bond characteristics and molecular polarity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What determines electronegativity?

A

Electronegativity is determined by how many electrons are in the valence shell.

Valence electrons play a crucial role in chemical bonding and reactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does the number of valence electrons affect electronegativity?

A

The closer to eight electrons an element has, the more electronegative it is.

This is based on the octet rule, which states that atoms are more stable with a full valence shell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List 3 electronegative elements you need to know in order of most to least electronegative

A

Fluorine (most electronegative element)
Oxygen
Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is electropositivity?

A

A measurement of the ability of elements to donate electrons and form positive ions
They usually have one or two electrons in their valence shells, and they are not very electronegative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define covalent bonding

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define ionic bonding

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are polar molecules?

A

Molecules that occur when there is unequal sharing of electrons across a covalent bond.

Polar molecules have distinct positive and negative ends due to the difference in electronegativity between the atoms involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What causes the formation of polar molecules?

A

The bonding of a very electronegative element to a very small or very electropositive element.

This unequal sharing leads to partial charges within the molecule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Polar molecules have an overall ____ charge BUT have a ____ and a ____ charge on its poles

A

Neutral charge
Partial positive
partial negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Electro negative element will be partially ____ because it’s pulling _____ toward itself

A

Negative
Electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Electro positive element will be partially ____ because has ____ electron density near itself

A

Positive
Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are hydrogen bonds

A

Weak attraction between a hydrogen bonded to and oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine or another O N or F atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why do hydrogen bonds use only O N and F

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How atoms are bonded together determine their ____.

A

Shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The ___ ____ and ____ of a molecule determine its function

A

Structure, shape, chemical properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the law of conservation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does water help maintain homeostasis?

A

It allows for the transport of materials in different organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of molecule is water?

A

Water is a polar molecule

A polar molecule has a partial positive charge on one end and a partial negative charge on the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do the partial charges on the poles of water molecules do?

A

Attract to opposite charges on other molecules nearby

This interaction is crucial for various biological and chemical processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What allows water to hydrogen bond with other water, polar or charged molecules?

A

Water’s polarity

Hydrogen bonding is essential for many properties of water and biological interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some chemical properties of water due to its polarity?

A
  • Exhibit cohesion and adhesion
  • Have surface tension
  • Resist temperature changes
  • Act as an excellent solvent

These properties play a significant role in supporting life and influencing environmental processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define cohesion and adhesion

A

Co- when water molecules stick to each other
Ad- the tendency of water molecules to stick to materials other than water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What cause surface tension in water

A

The fact water is cohesive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does water exhibit because it is capable of both cohesion and adhesion

A

Capillary action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does surface tension work?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is capillary action

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are hydrogen bonds described as?

A

Individually weak but collectively strong

Hydrogen bonds play a crucial role in the properties of water and biological molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What characteristic of liquid water is attributed to hydrogen bonds?

A

Constantly breaking and reforming

This dynamic nature of hydrogen bonds contributes to the unique properties of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What takes a lot of energy to break in water?

A

All of the hydrogen bonds

Breaking all hydrogen bonds is necessary for water to transition from liquid to gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What phenomenon does the strong hydrogen bonding in water contribute to?

A

Resistance to temperature change

This property is essential for various ecological and physiological processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the term for water’s ability to resist temperature change?

A

High Specific Heat Capacity

This property allows water to stabilize temperatures in environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why is high specific heat capacity useful for living organisms?

A

It helps maintain a constant internal temperature for homeostasis

Homeostasis is critical for the survival of organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a solvent?

A

Substance that dissolves other chemicals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why is water considered an excellent solvent?

A

Because it is polar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does water do to ionic compounds like salt?

A

Pulls them apart into ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are ions referred to in the context of water?

A

Electrolytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Why are electrolytes required?

A

Required for life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What can water create around polar molecules that cannot ionize? Why can they do this?

A

A water shell.
Molecules that cannot ionize are held by covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Give an example of a polar molecule that cannot ionize.

A

Sugar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the role of sugar in biological processes?

A

Used for cellular respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the density relationship between solid water and liquid water?

A

Solid water is less dense than liquid water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens to hydrogen bonds as water freezes?

A

The hydrogen bonds become rigid and stop moving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What effect does freezing have on water molecules regarding its size?

A

Freezing pushes the water molecules around, expanding the liquid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fill in the blank: As water freezes, the hydrogen bonds become _______.

A

rigid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a biomolecule

A

Organic carbon based macromolecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True or false: all living organisms need biomolecules

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why are all life forms carbon based?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What’s a monomer, dimer, and polymer

A

Individual subunit (building block of a macromolecule)
Two monomers covalently bonded together
Many monomers covalently bonded together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is Catabolism, what type of reaction is it?

A

A type of metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is anabolism, what type of reaction is it?

A

A type of metabolism (ANBENDERDEHY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the relationship between exergonic and endergonic reactions called, and why are they called this?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is dehydration synthesis?

A

Process by which monomers are covalently bonded together into polymers

Dehydration synthesis is crucial for forming complex molecules from simpler ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Is dehydration synthesis an anabolic or catabolic process?

A

Anabolic
(ANBENDERDEHY)
## Footnote

Anabolic processes build larger molecules from smaller ones, utilizing energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the role of enzymes in dehydration synthesis?

A

Assistance in the process

Enzymes speed up the reactions involved in dehydration synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does dehydration refer to in dehydration synthesis?

A

Removal of water

This removal is essential for forming bonds between monomers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does synthesis mean in the context of dehydration synthesis?

A

To make (a bond)

Synthesis indicates the creation of new chemical bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is formed as a byproduct of dehydration synthesis?

A

Water

The creation of polymers involves the release of water molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Fill in the blank: Dehydration synthesis is the removal of water to make a bond between _______.

A

monomers

Monomers are the basic building blocks that combine to form polymers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is hydrolysis?

A

Process by which polymers are broken down into monomers

Hydrolysis is essential for the digestion of complex molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Is hydrolysis a catabolic or anabolic process?

A

Catabolic process
(EXERHYDROCAT)
## Footnote

Catabolic processes involve the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is required for hydrolysis to occur?

A

Assistance of enzymes and the breakdown of water

Enzymes facilitate the chemical reactions needed for hydrolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What do the terms ‘Hydro’ and ‘Lysis’ mean in hydrolysis?

A

‘Hydro’ means water and ‘Lysis’ means to break (a bond)

This reflects the mechanism of hydrolysis where water is used to break chemical bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How does hydrolysis utilize water?

A

Uses water to break the bond between monomers

This process is crucial for converting complex carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into their respective building blocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are carbohydrates commonly referred to as?

A

Sugars

Carbohydrates are a major class of biomolecules that include sugars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the monomers of carbohydrates called?

A

Monosaccharides

Simple sugars like glucose are examples of monosaccharides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the polymers of carbohydrates known as?

A

Polysaccharides

Complex carbohydrates include starches and cellulose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the structure of polysaccharides typically characterized by?

A

Hexamer Rings

This refers to the ring structure often found in polysaccharides like amylose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is one of the main functions of carbohydrates?

A

Short term energy source

Carbohydrates provide immediate energy for cellular processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Name a function of carbohydrates.

A

Energy storage

Carbohydrates serve as a reserve of energy in organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What structural role do carbohydrates play in plants?

A

Cellulose

Cellulose provides structural integrity to plant cell walls.

102
Q

What structural component do carbohydrates provide in insects and crabs?

A

Chitin

Chitin serves as a key structural element in the exoskeletons of these organisms.

103
Q

What is the elemental composition of carbohydrates and its ratio

A

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen at a ratio of 1C 2H 1O

104
Q

What is glucose?

A

A monosaccharide that is broken down during aerobic cellular respiration to help make ATP energy.

Glucose is a primary source of energy for cells.

105
Q

What role do carbohydrates play in cell membranes?

A

Help cell types recognize each other.

Carbohydrates on cell membranes can act as recognition sites for other cells.

106
Q

What is the chemical formula for a monosaccharide?

A

C_6 H_12 O_6

107
Q

How many saccharides are in oligosaccharides
What are 2 examples of oligosaccharides

A

3-10
Glycoproteins and glycolipids

108
Q

What’s a glycosidic bond

A

Bonds formed when two glucose modules undergo dehydration synthesis

109
Q

What is the structure of energy storing carbohydrates. Why are they like this?

A
110
Q

What is the structure of structural carbohydrates. Why are they like this?

A
111
Q

Why can’t humans digest cellulose?

A

It’s made of beta glucose molecules humans dint have the enzyme to digest the beta glucose glycosisdic bonds

112
Q

What is amylose and cellulose

A
113
Q

Lipids are commonly referred to as _______ or oils.

A

fats

Lipids include a variety of compounds that are hydrophobic.

114
Q

What are the monomers of lipids?

A

fatty acids

Fatty acids are the building blocks of lipids.

115
Q

What are the polymers of lipids?

A

lipids

Lipids are formed from the combination of fatty acids.

116
Q

List the main functions of lipids.

A
  • Long term energy storage
  • Insulation
  • Protection of organs

These functions are vital for maintaining bodily health.

117
Q

What is the structure of lipids?

A

Long hydrocarbon chains

The structure contributes to the hydrophobic nature of lipids.

118
Q

What is the elemental composition of lipids?

A
  • Carbon
  • Hydrogen
  • Oxygen

The ratio is typically 1C: 2H: very little oxygen.

119
Q

What are phospholipids?

A
120
Q

True or false: lipids are hydrophilic

A

False they are hydrophobic (avoid water)

121
Q

What are triglycerides made up of?

A

A glycerol and 3 fatty acids

122
Q

What is a function of a triglycerides

A

Long term energy storage molecule

123
Q

What’s glycerol

A

3 carbon compound with 3 -OH groups attached at each carbon

124
Q

What are the structural properties of saturated fats

A
125
Q

What are the structural properties of unsaturated fats

A
126
Q

What is the structure of a phospholipid

A
127
Q

What’s a wax in relation to lipids

A
128
Q

Steroid is an example of of a ____

A

Lipid

129
Q

What does a steroid look like?

A

Four carbon rings bonded together Many monomers

130
Q

Vitamins are ____

A

Organic compounds essential for efficient, metabolic processes

131
Q

Nucleic acids are commonly referred to as _____

A

Genetic material

132
Q

The 3 parts of a Nucleotide are ____ and are linked by ___

A

Sugar, Phosphate, Nitrogenous base

Covalent bonds

133
Q

What are the polymers of nucleotides?

A

Nucleic acids

134
Q

What’s the elemental composition of a nucleotide

A

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Phosphorus

135
Q

What’s the main function nucleus acids

A

Storage of genetic material

136
Q

What are the two types of nucleic acids

A

DNA and RNA

137
Q

DNA and RNA have _____ with a ___ end and a ____ end

A

Directionality
5’
3’

138
Q

What are the similarities and difference between DNA and RNA

A
139
Q

If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence 5’ATTGCA3’ the other complementary strand of the sequence:

A

5’ TGCAAT 3’
ask someone but I think it’s right

140
Q

All biomolecules are broken down for energy except _____

A

Nucleic acids

141
Q
A
142
Q

What are the 4 levels of protein structure?

A

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary (not all proteins use this)

143
Q

Each level of the protein structure ______ on the others and is held together by _____ bonds and interactions formed between _______

A

Builds, different, amino acids

144
Q

Proteins are commonly found in _ and __

A

Meats, muscles

145
Q

The monomers of proteins are ___ and the polymers are ____

A

Amino acids, polypeptides

146
Q

The elemental structure of proteins is

A

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulfur

147
Q

The main functions of proteins are ___ ___ ___

A

Wound and tissue repair, catalyzing chemical reactions, cell signaling

148
Q

Enzymes are:

A

Specialized proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in cells to help maintain homeostasis

149
Q

What is the directionality of proteins?

A

Proteins have directionality with a distinct N terminus and C terminus

Directionality refers to the orientation of the polypeptide chain, which is crucial for protein function.

150
Q

Where is the N terminus located in a protein chain?

A

At the first amino acid in the chain

The N terminus has a free amine group.

151
Q

What group is free at the N terminus of a protein?

A

Amine group

This is the functional group that contributes to the basic properties of amino acids.

152
Q

Where is the C terminus located in a protein chain?

A

On the last amino acid in the chain

The C terminus has a free carboxyl group.

153
Q

What group is free at the C terminus of a protein?

A

Carboxyl group

This group is responsible for the acidic properties of amino acids.

154
Q

Image of amino acid structure with info

A
155
Q

Each amino acid had the same ___
The only difference between each amino acid is ___

A

“peptide backbone”
The structure and chemical properties of the R side Chain

156
Q

Hydrophobic R groups usually have

A

Long hydrocarbon chains and big hexamer

157
Q

Hydrophillic R groups usually have

A

Oxygen or nitrogen in the side chain with no charges

158
Q

Acidic Hydrophillic R groups usually have

A

Carboxyl groups and negative charges

159
Q

Basic Hydrophillic R groups usually have

A

Amine groups and positive charges

160
Q

What is the primary protein structure?

A

The sequence of amino acids formed via protein synthesis.

The primary structure is crucial for the protein’s function and stability.

161
Q

What determines how a protein folds at all levels?

A

The amino acid sequence.

Proper folding is essential for the protein’s functionality.

162
Q

What is the consequence of changing the amino acid sequence in a protein?

A

It usually causes the protein to misfold and stop working.

Misfolded proteins can lead to various diseases.

163
Q

True or False: Misfolded proteins can lead to disease or death.

A

True.

Protein misfolding is associated with many serious health conditions.

164
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

The primary structure is formed when two amino acids are covalently bonded together via dehydration synthesis.

This structure is the first level of protein organization.

165
Q

What type of bond is formed between two amino acids?

A

Peptide bond

A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between two amino acids.

166
Q

What process is involved in the formation of a peptide bond?

A

Dehydration synthesis

This process involves the removal of a water molecule.

167
Q

What role does enzymatic RNA play in the formation of the primary protein structure?

A

It helps in the formation of peptide bonds in ribosomes.

Enzymatic RNA, or ribozymes, catalyze the reaction.

168
Q

Where does the peptide bond form between amino acids?

A

Between the carboxyl group of the first amino acid and the amine group of the second.

This specific interaction is crucial for the structure of proteins.

169
Q

Image of formation of primary protein structure forming

A
170
Q

What is secondary structure in proteins?

A

Secondary structure occurs as the protein begins to fold

171
Q

Is the protein active during the secondary structure phase?

A

No, the protein is not active yet

172
Q

What are the two types of secondary structures in proteins?

A
  • Alpha helices
  • Beta pleated sheets
173
Q

What type of bonding holds secondary structures together?

A

Hydrogen bonding between the carboxyl and amine groups on the peptide backbone

174
Q

Do R groups play a role in the formation of secondary structures?

A

No, R groups are not involved

175
Q

What is tertiary structure in proteins?

A

Tertiary structure occurs as the protein finishes folding.

176
Q

When are proteins usually functional in terms of structure?

A

Proteins are usually functional at the tertiary structure.

177
Q

What controls the formation of tertiary structure in proteins?

A

Interactions between the R side chains on the amino acids.

178
Q

What is the major driving force behind the formation of tertiary structure?

A

Hydrophobic collapse.

179
Q

What is hydrophobic collapse

A
180
Q

What type of bond is formed between side chains with electronegative atoms?

A

Hydrogen bonds

Hydrogen bonds typically involve oxygen (O) and nitrogen (N) atoms.

181
Q

What type of charge attraction occurs between acidic and basic charges?

A

Charge attraction

Acidic charges are negatively charged (-) and basic charges are positively charged (+).

182
Q

What factors can break hydrogen bonds and charge attractions in proteins?

A

Changes in pH and temperature

These interactions are sensitive to environmental conditions.

183
Q

True or False: Hydrogen bonds and charge attractions in proteins remain intact outside the normal pH or temperature range.

A

False

These bonds will be broken if the protein is outside of the normal pH or temperature range.

184
Q

Fill in the blank: Hydrogen bonds and charge attractions are sensitive to changes in _______ and _______.

A

pH; temperature

These factors can significantly affect protein structure and function.

185
Q

What are disulfide bridges

A

Covalent bonds between the sulfur atoms present in the side chains of two cysteine amino acids. They are very strong and not sensitive to changes in pH or temperature

186
Q

What do more disulfide bridges indicate about a protein’s structure?

A

Stronger structure

Disulfide bridges contribute to the stability of protein structures.

187
Q

Which amino acid is primarily involved in the formation of disulfide bridges?

A

Cysteine

Cysteine contains a thiol group that can form disulfide bonds.

188
Q

Do cysteine amino acids need to be near each other in the sequence to form disulfide bonds?

A

No

Cysteine residues can be far apart in the primary structure and still form bonds.

189
Q

In what types of conditions are disulfide bridges usually found in proteins?

A

Harsh conditions such as
* High temperature
* Extreme pH

These conditions can challenge protein stability, making disulfide bridges important.

190
Q

What is quaternary structure?

A

Quaternary structure occurs when multiple proteins come together to form a protein complex.

191
Q

What level of folding do proteins in quaternary structure have?

A

These proteins are all folded at the tertiary level.

192
Q

Are all proteins involved in quaternary structures?

A

Not all proteins are involved in quaternary structures.

193
Q

What interactions hold quaternary structures together?

A

Held together by interactions between the variable side chains and hydrogen bonding between the peptide backbones of the different proteins.

194
Q

How do enzymes look in a written chemical reaction?

A
195
Q

Are Endergonic reactions spontaneous?
Energy is:
DeltaG is___ than zero

A

No
Absorbed
Greater

196
Q

Are exergonic reactions spontaneous?
Energy is:
DeltaG is___ than zero

A

Yes
Released
Less than

197
Q

DeltaG/ Free energy is;

A

Energy that is available to do work in a cell

198
Q

What is a substrate?

A

Reactant that is changed by the enzyme

199
Q

What is the active site of an enzyme?

A

Where the substrate binds. It matches the shape of the enzyme and has the correct chemical properties to bind together.

200
Q

What is the enzyme-substrate complex

A

When the enzyme and substrate are bound together

201
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in the body

202
Q

What is the role of enzymes in the body?

A

To speed up chemical reactions so they go fast enough to maintain homeostasis

203
Q

Are enzymes used up in chemical reactions?

A

No, they are reusable and not changed in the reaction

204
Q

What is the relationship between an enzyme’s active site and its substrate?

A

The shape and chemical properties of an enzyme active site are complementary to the shape of the substrate

205
Q

True or False: Enzymes are specific to their substrate.

A

True

206
Q

What are enzymes primarily made of?

A

Protein

207
Q

What is the induced fit model of enzyme binding?

A

When the substrate binds the enzyme undergoes a conformational change and surrounds the substrate to catalyze the chemical reaction

The enzyme returns to normal once the reaction is complete

208
Q

All chemical reactions require a certain amount of energy. What’s this energy called?

A

Activation energy

209
Q

Enzymes lower the ___ required for the reaction which makes the reaction go _____

A

Activation energy
Faster

210
Q

How do enzymes affect the energy of a reaction?

A

It doesn’t add or take away energy from the reaction

211
Q

Pepsin is a enzyme located in the ___ to break down ____ into monomers

A

Stomach
Proteins

212
Q

Amylase is a enzyme located in the ___ to break down ____into monomers

A

Mouth
Starches

213
Q

Enzymes in intestines use ____ to break food into nutrients

A

Hydrolysis

214
Q

What must enzymes be in to work at their most efficient?

A

Optimal conditions

Optimal conditions vary based on the specific enzyme and its environment.

215
Q

What happens to enzymes outside their optimal conditions?

A

They will be less efficient and have a lower reaction rate

Efficiency decreases as conditions deviate from the optimum.

216
Q

What occurs to enzymes in extreme conditions?

A

They will denature

Denaturation eliminates the enzyme’s ability to catalyze reactions.

217
Q

What do optimal conditions for enzymes depend on?

A

The living conditions of the organisms and where they are in the body

Different environments can lead to variations in optimal conditions for enzymes.

218
Q

What is the maximum rate at which enzymes can catalyze reactions?

A

Different for each Enzyme.

219
Q

What is enzyme efficiency a measure of?

A

How close to the maximum rate they are working.

220
Q

Name all factors that can affect enzyme rate and efficiency.

A
  • Optimal temperature and pH
  • Substrate Concentration
  • Enzyme Concentration
  • Product Concentration
  • Presence of inhibitors
221
Q

Fill in the blank: Enzyme efficiency is a measure of how close to the _______ they are working.

A

[maximum rate]

222
Q

True or False: Enzyme efficiency is the same for all enzymes.

A

False.

223
Q

What is one effect of optimal temperature on enzymes?

A

It can affect enzyme rate and efficiency.

224
Q

What effect does temperature have on enzymes?

A

Temperature affects the reaction rate of enzymes, with optimal temperatures increasing activity.

225
Q

What happens to enzymes at suboptimal temperatures?

A

Lack of energy decreases the amount of collisions between the enzyme and substrate, slowing or stopping the reaction rate.

226
Q

What occurs when an enzyme is heated back up to optimal temperature?

A

The reaction rate increases up to the optimal rate.

227
Q

Fill in the blank: Lack of energy decreases the amount of _______ between the enzyme and substrate.

A

collisions

228
Q

True or False: Heating an enzyme beyond optimal temperature will continue to increase the reaction rate.

A

False

229
Q

How does increasing temperature affect enzyme-substrate collisions?

A

It increases the speed of enzyme-substrate collisions, thus increasing the reaction rate.

230
Q

What happens to enzyme reaction rates at temperatures above optimal levels?

A

Reaction rate falls to zero

This occurs because denatured enzymes cannot interact with substrates due to improper active site shape.

231
Q

What causes denaturation of enzymes at high temperatures?

A

Extra energy causes amino acid side chains to move faster, disrupting weak interactions

This disruption affects the secondary and tertiary structure of the enzyme.

232
Q

What is the result of denaturation on enzyme structure?

A

Disruption of secondary and tertiary structure

Denaturation leads to loss of proper active site shape.

233
Q

How does denaturation affect the active site of an enzyme?

A

Denatured enzymes do not have proper active site shape

This prevents interaction with substrates.

234
Q

Fill in the blank: Too much energy available at high temperatures causes _______ of enzymes.

A

[denaturation]

235
Q

What happens when the pH is raised?

A

It becomes more basic, leading to a high concentration of OH- ions

OH- ions break hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions, causing denaturation of the enzyme.

236
Q

What effect do OH- ions have on enzymes?

A

They break hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions, disrupting secondary and tertiary structure and causing denaturation

Denaturation results in loss of enzyme functionality.

237
Q

What is the result of lowering the pH?

A

It becomes more acidic, leading to a high concentration of H+ ions

H+ ions also break hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions, causing denaturation of the enzyme.

238
Q

What do H+ ions do to enzymes?

A

They break hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions, disrupting secondary and tertiary structure and causing denaturation

This denaturation affects the enzyme’s functionality.

239
Q

Fill in the blank: Substances with basic pH’s have a high concentration of _______ ions.

A

OH-

240
Q

Fill in the blank: Substances with acidic pH’s have a high concentration of _______ ions.

A

H+

241
Q

Denatured enzymes do not have the______. This prevents the ____ from binding and ___ or ___ the reaction rate

A

correct active site shape
Substrate
Lowers
stops

242
Q

How does changing substrate concentration affect enzyme rate?

A

It alters the likelihood and speed of enzyme-substrate collisions.

This relationship is crucial for understanding enzyme kinetics.

243
Q

What happens to the reaction rate when substrate concentration decreases?

A

The reaction rate slows down.

This occurs because fewer substrate molecules are available for the enzyme to bind.

244
Q

What is the effect of increasing substrate concentration on reaction rate?

A

The reaction rate increases.

This increase continues until the maximum rate is reached.

245
Q

What is the maximum rate for an enzyme?

A

It is the point at which 100% of the enzyme is occupied by substrate.

Beyond this point, adding more substrate does not increase the reaction rate.

246
Q

What are cofactors?

A

Non-protein small inorganic compounds & ions bound within enzyme molecule

Cofactors are essential for the activity of many enzymes.

247
Q

What are coenzymes?

A

Non-protein organic molecules that bind near the active site and assist reactions

Coenzymes often act as carriers for chemical groups or electrons during enzymatic reactions.

248
Q

What is competitive inhibition, what’s its effect on enzyme-substrate complex?

A
249
Q

What is non-competitive inhibition, what’s its effect on enzyme-substrate complex?

A
250
Q

Inhibitors can bind ___ or ____. ___ inhibitors permanently deactivate an enzyme

A

Reversibly
Irreversibly
Irreversible