UBC RCE Compiled Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What is Non HDL comprised of? How is it calculated?

A

-The sum of chylomicron remnants, VLDL, LDL, Lp(a), LDL

-Calculated on a lipid panel by subtracting HDL from the total cholesterol

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2
Q

Who should be screened for lipid profile? (7)

A

Everyone over 40 years old

< 40 years old when:
-Clinical ASCVD
-Evidence of Hyperlipidemia (On physical exam)
-CV Risk Factors
-ED
-COPD
-Post menopausal women of women with history of hypertensive disease of pregnancy

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3
Q

Should screening lipids be fasting?

A

yes, unless G > 4.5 mmol/l

Friedewald: TC = TC - HDL - (TG x 0.45)

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4
Q

When does lipid screening need to be repeated based on FRS

A

Every 5 years if FRS < 5%, Annually if FRS > 5%

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5
Q

In IR patients, name reasons to start on statin therapy (11)

A

LDL > 3.5

APO B > 1.05

NON HDL > 4.3

> 50M/60W with one of the following: IFG, Low HDL, High waist circumference, HTN, Smoker

CAC > Non zero

CRP > 2

Lp(a) > 50 mg/dl

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6
Q

What is the most important health intervention for prevention of CVD?

A

Smoking cessation

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7
Q

What % of total saturated fats should be of total energy

A

< 9%

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8
Q

What is healthy body weight?

A

BMI 18.5-25

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9
Q

What target organ damage should prompt BP treatment in office (not hypertensive crisis)

A

-CAD (ASCVD, HF, LVH)

-CVD

-Hypertensive Retinopathy

-PAD

-CKD (eGR < 60 or Albuminuria)

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10
Q

Patients should have 2 or more of the following to screen for Renovascular Hypertension?

A
  • < 30 years or >55 years worsening or new onset HTN
  • Abdominal Bruit
  • Cr up by 30% or more with ACEi
  • Recurrent Pulmonary Edema with ACEi
  • Hypertension resistant to three drugs including a Diuretic

-Other ASCVD established

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11
Q

4 Imaging modalities to evaluate for RAS?

A

CTA

MRA

Doppler US

Captopril-enhanced radioisotope renal scane

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12
Q

When should FMD be screened for? 4 ways different than Renovascular

A

-Positive fmaily history of FMD

-FMD in another vascular territory

-Abdominal bruit without apparent atherosclerosis

-1.5 cm difference between kidney size

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13
Q

What test to do after FMD diagnosed?

A

-Cervicocephalic lesions and intracranial aneurysm

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14
Q

4 reasons to screen for Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Diuretic induced Hypo K < 3.0

Spontaneous K < 3.5

Incidental adrenal adenoma

Resistance with 3 or more drugs

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15
Q

Approach to diagnosing Hyperaldosteronism

A

-Plasma renin:aldo ratio

-Saline suppression (2L over 4h) -> positive if Aldo > 280 OR Captopril suppression test

-Adrenal imaging and Adrenal Vein sampling

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16
Q

WC targets for Men and Women?

A

Men < 102 cm

Women < 88 cm

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17
Q

Three agents to use for isolated systolic hypertension

A

-Thiazide

-ARB

-CCB

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18
Q

What is the criteria for Metabolic syndrome?

A

Three or more of the following:

-WC > 102 for men, > 88 for women
-BP > 130/85mmhg
-TG > 1.7 mmol/l
-HDL < 1 (men), < 1.3 (women)
-Glucose > 5.6

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19
Q

Which patients undergoing non cardiac surgery should you screen?

A
  • > 45 years
  • Known CVD
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20
Q

What is the RCRI components ? What does it predict?

A

Predicts 30 day MI, Cardiac arrest, Death following non cardiac surgery

-Cerebrovascular Disease
-Diabetes on Insulin
-CKD Cr > 177
-HF
-CAD
-High risk surgery (intraperitoneal, supra-inguinal vascular, intrathoracic)

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21
Q

Three criteria to proceed with NT BNP testing with Pre op testing? What is BNP cut off?

A

-Age > 65 years

-RCRI 1 or more

-Age 45-64 with CV condition (CAD, CVD, PAD, Severe PHTN, AS, HOCM, MS)

BNP < 92, NT BNP < 300

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22
Q

What effect does Exercise have on Lipid profile?

A

-Increase HDL, Decrease LDL, Decrease TG’s

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23
Q

What is resting membrane potential for myocyte membrance?

A

-70 to -90 mV

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24
Q

What is an example of early after depolarizations? delayed?

A

-Early: QTC

-Late: Dig toxicity, Ischemia, CPVT, Outflow tract arrhythmias

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25
What Sinus node recovery time is abnormal?
CSNRT > 550msec
26
8 complications of Catheter ablation?
-Femoral vein/Artery hematoma or vascular injury -Retroperitoneal bleed -Pericardial tamponade -Distal embolization if using retrograde aortic approach -Damage to AV or coronary arteries -Damage to the conduction system causing heart block -Esophogeal atrial fistula -Atrial arrhythmias
27
What is definition of Inappropriate Sinus Tachycardia?
HR > 90 bpm on 24 hour holter, no secondary causes.
28
Two Class 1 indications for Sinus Node Disease?
1. Symptomatic sinus node dysfunction 2. Symptomatic sinus bradycardia as a consequence of guideline directed management for which no alternative treatment exists
29
4 Class 1 Indications for AV node disease?
-CHB/MOBTIZ II Regardless of symptoms -Neuromuscular disease associated with conduction disorders with CHB/2nd Degree/HV > OR 70 msec regardless of symptoms -AF and symptomatic bradycardia -Symptomatic AV block as a consequence of GDMT
30
Two indications for Pacing in conduction system disease with 1:1 AV conduction?
-Patients with syncope and bundle branch block who are found to have an HV interval > 70 msec -Alternating BBB
31
Two indications for Pacing in conduction system disease with 1:1 AV conduction?
-Patients with syncope and bundle branch block who are found to have an HV interval > 70 msec -Alternating BBB
32
Two contraindications to CSM?
-Carotid bruit -TIA/Stroke/MI within 3 months
33
4 Major high risk criteria for Syncope based on CCS 2011 guidelines?
-HF -Hypotension < 90mmhg -History of Cardiac disease -Abnormal ECG
34
What dose SF syncope score predict? and what are the components?
Predicts serious morbidity/mortality within 7 days of presentation -Shortness of breath -Hypotension -Abnormal ECG -Anemia Hct < 30% -CHF
35
What is prevalence of dual nodal physiology?
10%
36
What are two reasons that accessory pathways don't lead to pre-excitation pattern on surface ECG?
1) Can only conduct retrograde (Concealed) 2) Conduction down the pathway takes longer than conduction down the AV node
37
What are 7 risk factors that increase risk of SCD in WPW?
-Male -AP Refractory period < 240 msec -Shorted RR during < 250 msec -High adrenergic state -Multiple pathways -Septal location on AP -Ability to induce sustained AVRT, or AVRT precipitating pre-excited AF
38
What are three indications for ablation in Pre-excitation?
-Symptomatic patients with AVRT or Pre-excited AF -Asymptomatic patients with high risk pathway on EPS -Asymptomatic patients with a high risk job
39
What is the metabolism pathway for Rivaroxaban?
-CYP3A4 elimination
40
What is the metabolism pathway for Apixaban?
CYP3A4 elimination
41
What is unique about Edoxaban pharmacology compared to the other DOACSs?
It is a pro-drug
42
Name 7 CYP450 Inhibitors
CLAM JUICE give you AIDS and this will inhibit you CCB Lansoprazole Azoles Macrolides HIV Protease Inhibitors Grapefruit Juice
43
Name the CYP450 Inducers
RC induces PTSD Rifampin Carbamazepine Phenobarb Ticlodipine St. John Wart Dilantin
44
Three ways to reverse Warfarin?
-Octaplex (2, 7, 9, 10 + Protein C/S) -Vitamin K -FFP
45
What is Renal dosing for Rivaroxaban?
15mg if CrCl 15-50 (Although no RCT data for CrCL 15-30)
46
When to dose reduce Dabigatran? (3)
Age > 80 Age > 75 with bleeding RFs CrCl 30-50
47
What is renal dosing for Edoxaban?
-30mg daily if CrCl 30-50 or less than 60kg
48
What is the only DOAC that is a prodrug?c
Dabigatran
49
What DOAC can be dialyzed? Why?
-Dabigatran, because it is only 35% protein bound
50
What two DOACs are metabolized through CYP3A4 pathway?
Rivaroxaban Apixaban
51
What are the 3 reasons to DCCV prior to 3 weeks OAC?
Unstable < 12 hours with no recent stroke < 48h hours with CHADS < 2
52
What are the 7 components of the HAS BLED score?
Hypertension Abnormal LFTs/Renal Function Stroke history Bleeding history Labile INR Elderly > 65 years Drugs/ETOH history
53
What are two criteria needed as per CCS 2018 Afib update to consider an LAA occluder?
CHADS 2 or more, anti-thrombotic therapy is precluded
54
What is Procainamide dosing for AFib cardioversion? VT?
15-18 mg/kg over 60 minutes 10 mg/kg over 20 minutes
55
What is the success rate for Procainamide AF cardioversion?
50%
56
What is the most significant risk of giving Ibutilide for AF cardioversion?
TDP
57
What is the unique aspect of Vernakalant?
Atrial selective antiarrhythmic drug.
58
What is the most frequent that Afib episodes happen to consider a pill in pockey strategy?
monthly
59
What are 8 contraindications to pill in pocket strategy?
-LVEF < 50% -CAD -QRS > 120msec -PR > 200 -Pre excitation -Conduction system disease -Hypotension -Inability to comply
60
What is dose for Flecainide and Propafenone for PIP?
-Flecainide: 300mg -Propafenone: 600mg
61
4 reasons to present to ED when PIP tried?
-The AF episode didn't terminate within 6-8 hours -Felt unwell -More than one episode in a 24 hour period -The AF period was associated with severe symptoms at baseline
62
9 complications of Catheter ablation for Afib?
-Atrio-esophageal fistula -Perforation -Tamponade -Air embolism -Pulmonary Vein stenosis -Vascular injury -Arrhythmia -Phrenic nerve injury -Pericarditis
63
5 ways to reduce Atrial Fibrillation following Cardiac Surgery?
-Beta blockers -Amiodarone -Sotalol -Magnesium -Biatrial pacing
64
What is the HATCH Score? What does a score of 5 or more indicate?
Hypertension Age > 75 TIA/Stroke (2) COPD CHF (2) Predicts 10% or more risk of Afib after Aflutter ablation in next 12 months.
65
What are the two common morphologies for Fascicular VT?
-Left Posterior Fascicle VT: RBBB, Left Superior Axis -Left Anterior Fascicle VT: RBBB, Right Axis
66
What is Jervell/Lange Nielsen syndrome?
-Aggressive congenital LQT phenotype -Autosomal recessive -Congenital hearing loss -KCNQ1 mutation
67
What is Andersen syndrome?
-Long QT, Large U waves, Frequent PVCs, facial dysmorphic features.
68
What is Timothy syndrome?
-LQT syndrome with autism, developmental disorders, congenital heart defects -CACNA1c mutation (gain of function)
69
What Schwartz score needed to make diagnosis of LQT?
3.5 points or more
70
2 Indications for beta blocker in LQT syndrome?
-Symptomatic VT/VF -Asymptomatic with QTc > 470 msec
71
What are three predictors of BB failure in LQT syndrome?
- QTC > 500msec -VT before age 7 -LQT 2/3 Variants
72
What are two indications for Left Cardiac Sympathoectomy in patients with LQT?
-ICD indicated but refused -Failed BB treatment with ICD in place
73
What are 5 conditions with a SCN5a mutation?
-Brugada (Loss) -LQT3 (Gain) -Short QT (Loss) -Progressive cardiac conduction disease (Loss) -CPVT (Gain)
74
Two ways to diagnose Short QT?
< 330 msec < 360 msec: Pathogenic mutation, Family history of SQT, SCD < 40, VT/VF
75
What do you need for primary prevention ICD if NYHA 1
LVEF < 30%, Ischemic cardiomyopathy
76
What are 6 clinical characteristics for CRT non responders?
Ischemic Absence of true mechanical dyssynchrony despite wide QRS RBBB Higher EF Higher NYHA class Presence of AF or High PVC burden
77
What are 5 technical issues which may predict CRT non response?
-LV lead position -Pacing into scarred area -Lead migration -Pacing < 98.5% of time -Long programmed AV delay
78
What does the Atrial septum consist of?
The Atrial Septum consists of the thicker septum secundum and the thinner septum primum
79
Describe fetal circulation:
Placenta -> Umbilical Veins -> IVC using Ductus Venosus -> Foramen Ovale (IVC flow directed by Eustachian valve across FO) -> Ductus Arteriosus (PA -> Aorta) Umbilical arteries -> Iliac arteries -> Mother
80
How do pulmonary pressures change in the fetus as it is born? What does this due to the septum primum?
Antenatally, the lung is relatively increased resistance -> Postnatally the PVR decreases and this causes increased RV flow and increased LA pressure -> this causes the primum septum seal against the FO and the ductus arteriosus and venosus cosntrict and close
81
How to screen for Congenital heart disease?
Measurement of nuchal fold thickness on 12 weeks US to screen for chromosomal abnormalities and congenital heart disease (Se 85%, Sp 99%)
82
What should all Women with CHD be offered at 19-22 weeks? And what % of these studies will identify CHD?
Fetal Echo 45%
83
What % of infants have CHD?
1%
84
What is the most common form of isolated CHD?
VSD
85
What are the signs of DiGeorge Syndrome?
CATCH 22 Conotruncal Cardiac Defects (Interrupted aorta arch, truncus arteriosus, TOF) Abnormal facies Thymic aplasia Cleft Palate Hypoparathyroidism/Hypocalcemia Chromosome 22q11 microdeletion
86
What are 4 cardiac issues in Trisomy 21?
ASD ASVD TOF VSD
87
What is chromosomal abnormality in Klinefelter syndrome? What are three cardiac issues?
47XXY PDA, VSD, MVP
88
What is the inheritance of Noonan syndrome? What are 5 cardiac issues?
PS PA Stenosis Aortic Coarctation ASD HCM AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
89
What is Williiam syndrome? What is the characteristic Cardiac abnormality?
-7a11.23 deletion -Supravalvular AS AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
90
What is a secundum ASD?
True defect of the atrial septum involving the fossa ovalis
91
What is the sinus venosis ASD?
Defect at the Junction of the RA/SVC with almost always partial anomalous PV return
92
What is a sinus ASD?
Unroofed coronary sinus which is a defect between CS and LA allowing Left to Right shunting (associated with left sided SVC)
93
What Pregnancy WHO class is ASDs?
If repaired: Class 1 If unrepaired: Class 2
94
What are four risks in pregnancy with unrepaired ASD?
-TE events -Atrial arrhythmias -IUGR -Pre-eclampsia
95
What is size cut off that ASD cannot be percutaneously closed?
> 38mm
96
PVR/SVR > 2/3, when can you still close ASD?
If there is PA vasoreactivity when challenged with a pulmonary vasodilator
97
What is a Gerbode VSD?
Rare VSD communicating from LV to RA
98
What is a small (restrictive VSD) ?
Qp:Qs < 1.5:1
99
What is a moderately restrictive VSD?
-Qp:Qs > 1.5:1
100
What is a non restrictive VSD?
Qp:Qs > 2.1
101
How do you size VSDs relative to the aortic annulus?
Small: < 1/3 aortic annulus diameter Moderate: 1/3-2/3 aortic annulus diameter Large: >2/3 aortic annulus diameter
102
Any risks with Pregnancy and VSD?
No
103
What is characteristics of Shone's Syndrome?
Association of multiple levels of LV inflow and outflow obstruction -Supravalvular mitral membrane -Parachute mitral valve -Subvalvular and valvular aortic stenosis -Aortic coarctation
104
When to intervene for suprvalvular LVOT-O based on gradient?
MG > 40 mmhg and symptoms MG > 40mmhg no symptoms but high procedural success MG 20-40mmhg with symptoms or LV dysfunction
105
What is indication for subvalvular LVOT obstruction intervention (2) ?
-MG > 40mmhg and symptoms -MG > 40mmhg no symptoms but >moderate AR, LV dysfunction -MG 20-40mmhg with symptoms AND progressive AR
106
What are 7 associations with Aortic Coarctation?
-PDA -Aortopathy -BAV -Intracranial abnormalities in circle of willis -Congenital coronary anomalies -VSD -Turner's
107
what do you see on CXR in Aortic Coarct?
3 sign- indentation of aorta at site of coarctation with dilation before/after the site
108
What is surveillance post Coarct repair?
-Periodic MRI to look for aneurysm, re-coarct, collaterals
109
What is WHO class for pregnancy in patients with Coarct post repair?
WHO II
110
5 complications of Coarct repair?
Recoarct Pseudoaneurysm Aortic Rupture Stroke Femoral artery injury
111
What is Ebstein's Anomaly?
-Incomplete delamination of the septal and posterior leaflets of the TV with leaflets airsing from the ventricular wall below the AV junction (> 8mm)
112
What are 4 anomalies associated with Ebsteins?
-ASD -Accessory pathways -LV non compaction -MVP
113
What WHO class is Ebsteins in Pregnancy?
WHO Class II
114
What is risk of dissection in pregnancy with Marfans?
3%
115
What is the major determinant for dissection in Marfans?
Aortic Size
116
What is risk of Aortic dissection in Marfans preganncy is < 4.0 cm
1%
117
At what aortic size in Marfans is Pregnancy contraindicated?
> 4.5 cm (WHO Class IV)
118
Is Marfan Aorta is 4-4.5 what is WHO class?
Class III
119
What is initial screening strategy for Marfan's aorta and follow up?
-At baseline, and then 6 months. If stable than annually there after (Echo) q6months thereafter if the aorta is enlarged >4.5 cm
120
What is aorta screening in Marfan's after aorta surgery?
1 year, if stable, then in 2-3 years
121
What are the 4 Revised Ghent Criteria (2010) in absence of FHx?
1. Ao + EL 2. Ao + FBN1 3. Ao + SS 7 or more 4. EL + FBN1 Ao = Aortic Root Dilatation Z score greater than 2
122
Three ways to diagnose Marfans in patients with family history
EL SS equal greater than 7 Ao
123
Name 7 Skeletal abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome?
-Pectus Carinatum (sticks out) -Wrist and Thumb sign -Hind foot deformity (Pes planus) -Protusio Acetabuli -Scoliosis or Thoracolumbar Kyphosis -Reduced elbow flexion -Increase arm:height ratio
124
Name facial features in Marfan's syndrome? (4)
-Enophthalmos -Downsloping palpebral fissures -Malar hypoplasia -Retrognathia
125
What can happen to lungs in patient's with Marfans?
Spontaneous Pneumothorax
126
Describe the Thumb sign
When the entire distal phalanx of the adducted thumb extends beyond the ulnar border of palm
127
Describe the wrist sign
When the tip of the thumb covers entire fingernail of 5th digit when wrapped around the other wrist
128
What is dural ectasia?
Ballooning or widening of the dural sac
129
What is Protusio Acetabuli?
Intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum and femoral head
130
What is Myopia?
Near sightedness
131
Name 4 isolated shunts with Eisenmenger Physiology?
ASD VSD PDA Aortopulmonary Window
132
Name 7 complex lesions that can cause cyanotic CHD
TGA Truncus Arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot Univentricular heart Tricuspid Atresia Ebsteins with ASD Complete AV canal defect
133
Name 3 hematologic complications of Cyanotic CHD?
-Erythrocytosis -Iron Deficiency / Hyperviscoscity -Bleeding
134
Is home O2 recommended in Cyanotic CHD? Why?
No- Will not help in shunt physiology, can result in dry mucosa/epistaxis
135
Why is it important to replace iron in cyanotic CHD?
-Fe deficiency increases RBC mass and contributes to hyperviscosity
136
How to treat Hyperviscosity syndrome? What treatment is not effective
-Treat iron deficiency (decreased RBC size) Phlebotomy is not effective
137
Name 2 MSK abnormalities with Cyanotic CHD
Hypertrophic OA Gout
138
What can Headache be caused be in patients with Cyanotic CHD? (3)
-Hyperviscosity syndrome -TIA/Stroke -Abscess This is why air filters are important
139
What are three renal complications from Cyanotic CHD?
-Proteinuria -Stones (uric acid) -CKD
140
6 annual things to follow in cyanotic CHD?
CBC Ferritin Coagulation profile Renal function Uric acid Echocardiogram
141
In DTGA what is the aorta's position to the PA?
Anterior and Rightward relative to the PA (usually posterior and to the right)
142
What are infants with DTGA dependent on in first days of life?
PDA and PFO
143
What proportion of patients with DTGA have associated abnormalities?
1/3
144
What are associated anomalies seen in DTGA? (4)
-VSD -PS -PDA -Coarctation
145
What is the Lecompte maneuver?
The PA is translocated anterior to the Aorta
146
What special procedure can be done in DTGA if there is VSD present?
-Rastelli operation: Blood flow from the ventricular level (LV outflow tunnelled to the aorta) is redirected and a valved conduit from the RV to PA is created again. The LV supports the systemic circulation.
147
What are 6 complications following Atrial switch?
-Systemic AV regurgitation -Systemic RV failure -Atrial Arrhythmias -Ventricular arrhyhthmias -Baffle leak -Pulmnoary venous obstruction
148
What are 6 complications following an arterial switch?
-Significant PA stenosis -Coronary arterial obstruction -Severe neo-AV regurgitation or neo aortic root dilation -Systemic RV failure -Systemic AV regurgitation -Arrhythmias
149
Which of the two type of repair for DTGA are more well tolerated in Pregnancy?
-Arterial switch better tolerated (WHO II)
150
What WHO class is Atrial switch? When should pregnancy be counselled against
-WHO III -Arterial Switch and severe RV dysfunction or severe TR
151
What are 3 complications of LTGA?
-Systemic RV failure -Systemic AV regurgitation -CHB
152
What WHO class is LTGA? When should be counselled against?
-WHO Class III -NYHA III-IV, EF < 40%
153
Describe the classic Fontan procedure
RAA anastomosed to main PA
154
2 complications of classic fontan (why it is not routinely performed anymore)
RA enlargement leads to: -Arrhythmias -Thrombosis
155
Describe the modern 3 step procedure for single ventricle physiology
1) Systemic-PA shunt or banding: BT shunt between subclavian and PA 2) SVC to PA connection: Bidirectional Glenn Shunt 3) Total cavopulmonary connection: Modified fontan
156
Describe the effects of Pregnancy on Eisenmengers Physiology?
Systemic Vasodilation accentuates Right to left shunting which decreases pulmonary blood flow and causes more cyanosis and decreased CO
157
5 Lifestyle counselling for Eisenmengers?
-Avoid altitude with exercising -Avoid smoking -Avoid IVDU -Avoid dehydration (Hyperviscosity) -Excellent oral hygeine
158
What would hemoptysis in Eisenmengers most likely be due to?
-Pulmonary hemorrhage
159
Why can't you repair a shunt in Eisenmengers?
Usually there is advanced irreversible pulmonary vascular disease and there is no left to right shunt demonstrated
160
Name 10 supportive measures for Eisenmengers?
-Iron deficiency treatment -IV air filters -IE prophylaxis -Vaccinations -Phelbotomy to keep HCT < 0.65 only if iron already replaced -Platelet, FFP, Vitamin K, Cryo and DDAVP for bleeding -Restore sinus rhythm -ICD if syncope/VT -Pulmonary vasodilators may be helpful
161
What is the definition of Acute Limb Ischemia?
< 2 weeks of severe limb pain with: Pain Pallor Pulselessness Poikilothermia Paresthesias Paralysis
162
What is definition of critical limb ischemia?
-Chronic > 2 weeks ischemic rest pain with non healing wound or ulcer or gangrene in 1 or both legs due to objectively proven arterial occlusive disease
163
What are 4 predictors of progressive PAD?
DM Smoking ABI < 0.5 Ankle pressure < 70mmhg
164
Desbribe the Leriche-Fontaine Classification system?
1: Asymptomatic PAD 2: Intermittent Claudication 2a: Pain walking > 200m 2b: Pain walking < 200m 3. Rest pain or nocturnal pain 4. Arterial ulcer necrosis or gangrene
165
What are 6 causes of Pseudoclaudication?
-Degenerative disc disease -Diabetic neuropathy -Deconditioning -Muscular strain -Baker's cyst -Hip/Foot/Ankle arthritis
166
What population should be screened for PAD?
> 50 years with RF (Smoking, DM) as per 2022 CCS guidelines
167
How to measure ABI?
Measure systolic BP in bilateral brachial arteries, dorsalis pedis and posterior tibialis Choose the right highest ankle pressure and highest arm pressure same with left
168
What to do if ABI > 1.4
Use toe brachial index < 0.6 is abnormal and diagnostic of PAD
169
What ABI is cut off for PAD?
< 0.9
170
What is utility of an exercise ABI?
-USeful to distinguish true claudication from pseudoclaudication and it is useful to evaluate borderline/equivocal resting ABI results
171
How to do exercise ABI?
Exercise for 5 minutes on treadmill at 2 mph, 12% grade Diagnostic if post exercise ankle pressure decrease by 30mmhg or ABI decrease by 20%
172
When should imaging be considered for diagnosis of PAD?
Only useful if revascularization considered, not for first line imaging
173
In addition to the usual therapy for CAD, what is unique to conservative therapy for PAD?
-Foot care
174
What are the benefits of Exercise program in patients with PAD?
-Improves exercise capacity by 180%, improves QoL and functional status -Structured program 40-45 mins, 3x/week
175
What unique pharmacotherapy is available for PAD? What is the mechanism?
Cilostazol: Reduces claudication symptoms PDE-3 inhibitor that promotes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation
176
When should Cilostazol be avoided?
CHF (Black box warning)
177
What is the indication for Revascularization in PAD?
-Ongoing symptoms limiting lifestyle despite maximum medical therapy
178
Does stenting in PAD result in less amputation?
No, decreases symptoms though
179
What % of all limb ischemia is upper extremity?
5%
180
What can the three etiologies of upper limb ischemia be grouped into?
Large Vessel disease: Vasculopathy, Vascular and neurovascular entrapment (Thoracis outlet syndrome), Embolic disease, Aneurysmal disease Small Vessel disease: Collagen vascular disease with associated vasculitis, Hematological disease with hypercoagulable states and blood dyscrasias, Buerger's disease, Embolic disease Vasospastic disease (Raynaud's Disease)
181
Where does the pathology occur in Subclavian Artery Stenosis?
Ostium or proximal third of the artery stenosis
182
What is the mechanism of subclavian steal syndrome?
-Retrograde flow from the posterior cerebral circulation via the vertebral artery
183
What is on exam for SC artery stenosis?
-SBP difference of 15mmhg or more between arms
184
What is indication for revascularization in Subclavian Artery Stenosis? Modality?
-Symptoms, asymtomatic if already going for CABG with LIMA -Endovascular therapy preferred
185
What is the class 1 indication for intervention for RAS?
Severe RAS and unexplained CHF/Flash pulmonary edema
186
What are two criteria for the definition of a True Aneurysm?
-Dilation of an artery > 50% with all three layers of the arterial wall present (intima, mieda, adventitia)
187
Name the anatomic cut offs for Aortic root, ascending Aorta, Aortic arch and descending aorta
Aortic root: Aortic valve cusps, sinuses of valsalva Ascending Aorta: Sino tubular junction to the brachiocephalic artery Aortic arch: Origin of the brachiocephalic artery to the origin of the left subclavian Descending Thoracic aorta: After ligamentum arteriosum/Left subclavian
188
What is the histopathology in marfan's aortic dilation?
Decrease elastin in the aortic media which leads to medial degeneration
189
5 cardiac manifestations of Marfan?
Aortic aneurysm PA dilatation MVP TVP MAC
190
What is the gene implicated in Type 4 Vascular ED? What does it code for?
-COL3A1 -Type 3 Collagen
191
What are the two Craniofacial abnormalities in LD syndrome?
-Hypertelorism (widely spaced out eyes) -Cleft palate
192
What are 3 extra cardiac/physical abnormalities in Turners?
-Webbed neck -Short stature -Low set ears
193
Name 6 inflammatory diseases for aortopathy?
-GCA -Takayasu -Behcets -Ank Spond -IBD -Reiter's syndrome
194
Name 2 infectious etiologies for Aortopathy?
-Syphilis -TB
195
Name 5 things that put at increased risk of Aortic dissection
Aortic size > 6cm Rapid growth > 0.5cm/yr Smoking Uncontrolled hypertension Family history CTD BAV
196
What should imaging screening schedule be for Marfan's?
Baseline -> 6 months to determine rate of progression If stable -> annual If significant change from baseline or diameter > 4.5 -> more frequent
197
What is imaging surveillance for non marfan genetic aortopathy?
-Complete aortic imaging at initial and 6 months, then annually
198
What is surveillance schedule for Turner's?
Complete assessment at baseline, annual imaging if abnormalities Otherwise complete aortic imaging every 5 years
199
What is the mechanism for ARBs stopping TAA growth?
Inhibits TGF-Beta signalling
200
What is TAA surgical cut off in degenerative TAA?
5.5 cm
201
What is TAA surgical cut off in Marfan Syndrome?
5 cm (4.1-5cm if woman considering surgery)
202
What is TAA surgical cut off in LDS and ED?
4-5cm
203
Undergoing Cardiac surgery?
> 4.5 cm
204
What should Post op surveillance be after aortic repair?
If no residual aortopathy, then image entire aorta every 3-5 years post repair MRI should be considered in patients < 50 years to reduce radiation
205
What is the pathology of Aortic Dissection?
-Tear in the intima that allows access of blood into the media under systolic pressure leading to separation of the inner and outer media and formation of a true and false lumen
206
What is the pathology of an intramural hematoma?
A collection of blood within the wall of the aorta without a discernable entry tear believed to be secondary to spontaneous bleeding from the damaged vasa vasorum
207
What % of IMH progresses to dissection?
10%
208
What are 4 mechanisms of AR in dissection?
-Aortic root dilatation -Prolapse of dissection flap into LVOT -Prolapse of AV leaflet -Pre-existing AI due to anerysm of BAV
209
Describe the DeBakey calssification system
Type 1: Originates in the ascending Aorta and extends beyond the brachiocephalic (Involves ascending and Descending) Type 2: Confined to the ascending aorta Type 3: Begins distal to the left subclavian
210
What are the indications for surgical intervention in chronic Type a Dissection (> 6 weeks)
Same as for TAA dilation
211
What are 4 indications for EVAR in type B dissection (Complicated dissection) ?
-Malperfusion -Rupture -Rapid expansion -Refractory pain
212
After conservative management for Type B dissection, what is imaging schedule in first year post discharge?
1, 3, 6, 12 months
213
What is cut off for AAA diagnosis?
3 cm
214
What is the most commonly effected segment for AAA?
Aorta between renal artery and inferior mesenteric artery
215
What is screening recommendations for AAA?
Men aged 65-80
216
What is surveillance for AAA if <4cm, if 4-5.4 cm?
US q2-3y US 6-12 months
217
When EVAR for AAA?
Symptoms >5.5 cm >1cm / year growth
218
What are the two types of endoleaks?
Type 1: Failure to adequately seal the proximal or distal end of the stent graft Type 2: Retrograde flow from small branch arteries back into the aneurysm sac
219
Does EVAR have lower early mortality than open repair in AAA?
Yes, but associated with higher risk of future aortic rupture and the need for more secondary procedures
220
What is a Bovine arch?
The Left carotid artery and Brachicephalic trunk share a common origin
221
Where does the Carotid artery stenosis more frequently develop?
At the bifurcation of the common carotid
222
What is characteristic of Radiation Induced Carotid Artery Disease?
-Often affect long arterial segments and atypical locations
223
Why is CEA relatively contraindicated in Radiation Induced Carotid Artery Disease?
Surgical treatment is complicated by Radiation effects on soft tissue and skin overlying Carotid Artery Stenting has the advantage of no cranial nerve injury and no wound complications
224
What should Carotid US be followed by if it is positive?
-CTA/MRA: Can define aortic arch and intracranial vessel anatomy
225
When is CEA indicated for CA stenosis?
-Symptomatic > 70-99% (Class 1), >50% (Class 2) within 14 days -Asymptomatic 70-99% (Class 2)
226
What is the only antiplatelet agent that is OK for breast feeding?
Aspirin
227
When is the fetus most susceptible to radiation?
-1st trimester (organogenesis)
228
What should fetal radiation be kept to ideally?
Keep lower than 50 mGy
229
When to try and delay radiation exposure until?
12 weeks (organogenesis is complete)
230
Give some examples of WHO 1 Class (No increased maternal risk)
Uncomplicated repaired ASD, VSD, PACs, PVCs, Small PDA, Mild MVP or PS
231
Give some examples of WHO Class 2?
Unrepaired ASD, VSD, Repaired ToF, Most arrhythmia, Turners with no Aortic dilation
232
What should follow up be for WHO2 classification?
Once per trimester
233
What are examples of WHO IV (40-100% maternal CV event rate)? (11)
-PAH / Eisenmengers -Systemic Ventricular Function < 30% or NYHA III-IV -PPCM with residual impairment (LVEF < 55%) -Severe MS or Severe Symptomatic AS -Fontan with any complication (Otherwise III) -Severe Coarctation or Recoarctation -Vascular Ehler's Danlos or LDS (Regardless of Aortic size) -Aortopathies: MFS > 4.5cm, BAV > 5cm, Turner ASI > 25mm/m2 -Coronary Dissection (CCS Pregancy)
234
What should follow up for WHO IV be?
Monthly minimum
235
Name the CARPREG II risk factors? (12)
-Previous cardiac events or arrhythmias -Baseline NYHA III-IV -Mechanical Valve -LVEF < 55% -AVA < 1.5 -MVA < 2 -LVOT Obstruction -PH > 49mmhg -High Risk Aortopathy -CAD -No prior cardiac intervention -Late pregnancy assessment
236
Why is early epidural anesthesia recommended in obstetric cardiology?
Prevents peaks in BP
237
When should Warfarin be held as Labor approaches?
1 week prior to planned delivery, change to LMWH or UFH (AHA 2020 VHD) Switch from LMWH to UFH 36h prior to Labor, Stop UFH 6h prior to Labor
238
When should Anticoagulation be held prior to Labor?
6 hours Switch from LMWH -> UFH 36 hours prior to planned delivery -> Stop 6h prior to Planned Labor
239
When can UFH be continued after Vaginal delivery? C Section?
-6 hours -12 hours
240
Is Warfarin safe in breast feeding?
Yes
241
Do you need IE prophylaxis with C section?
No
242
What are some contraindications to Vaginal Delivery?
None
243
When should Induction be done by in all women with CV disease?
by 40 weeks
244
Name 6 conditions in which C Section can be considered? (Not an absolute CI to Vaginal delivery)
-On OACs with pre-term labor -High risk Aortopathy -Intractable HF -Severe PHtn
245
What are 5 adverse effects of Warfarin on the fetus?
-Warfarin Embryopathy -Developmental delay -Fetal loss -Short fingers -Nasal hypoplasia -Stippled Epiphyses
246
How frequently to monitor INR in pregnancy on Warfarin?
q2 weeks
247
Why is Vaginal delivery on VKA contraindicated?
Fetal ICH during Labor
248
Why is LMWH/UFH chosen around Labor compared to Warfarin?
LMWH/UFH do not cross the placenta
249
What needs to be done when using LMWH?
Factor Xa monitoring
250
How to manage high risk TE women on LMWH around labor?
Convert to UFH 36h prior, then stop UFH 6h prior to delivery
251
What is the issue with Digoxin in Pregnancy?
Serum levels are unreliable
252
What is timing cut off for pre-existing vs. Pregnancy induced hypertension?
20 weeks
253
What is BP target for DBP in pregnancy?
85mmhg
254
What are the three 1st line agents for HTN in pregnancy?
-Nifedipine -Labetalol -Methyldopa
255
What are three 2nd line agents for HTN management in pregnancy?
-Clonidine, Hydralazine, Thiazide diuretics
256
When is delivery recommended for gestational HTN or mild Pre-eclampsia?
37 weeks
257
Cut off to admit pregnant woman for severe HTN?
> 160/110 mmhg
258
What women should get ASA?
ASA for all women at moderate or high risk of Preeclampsia from 12 weeks GA to 36-37 weeks
259
Management of Pre-eclampsia?
Admit for Immediate delivery MgSO4 4gram IV Target BP < 160/110mmhg
260
Are ACE inhibitors safe in pregnancy? In breast feeding?
Not in pregnancy, yes with breast feeding
261
What are indications for valve intervention prior to pregnancy?
-Any severe symptomatic valvular disease or as per standard indications (Class 1) -Asymptomatic Severe MS -Asymptomatic Severe AS -Asymptomatic Severe MR with high chance of repair
262
What are three indications for valve intervention during pregnancy?
-NYHA III/IV Severe AS despite Medical therapy -NYHA III/IV Severe MS despite Medical therapy -NYHA IV Severe MR despite medical therapy
263
In Pregnant women on anticoagulation, how to manage ASA?
-Stop ASA during first trimester, resume afterwards
264
What is the best timing during pregnancy for OHS?
13-26 weeks
265
What should pregnant woman get prior to OHS?
Steroids
266
Beyond what week should a C section be performed prior to OHS?
26 weeks onwards
267
If pregnant woman is hypotensive/pre arrest, how to position?
Place in left lateral decubitus position to relieve aortocaval compression
268
What to do during arrest in pregnant woman in addition to standard measures?
Continuous manual left uterine displacement
269
When should Perimortem C-Section be considered?
If no ROSC at 4 minutes
270
What two time periods in Pregnancy do dissections occur?
Third trimester or early post partum
271
What is the EF criteria for PPCM?
LVEF < 45%
272
What are 5 risk factors for PPCM?
-Advanced Age -Black -Preeclampsia -Hypertension -Multiple gestations
273
What is Bromocriptine's role in PPCM?
May be considered to stop lactation and enhance LV recovery (Need prophylactic anticoagulation)
274
What % of patients have EF recovery > 50% post PPCM?
75%
275
What is recurrence risk for PPCM ?
25% risk if normal LVEF 50% recurrence if residual LV dysfunction
276
What are the three targeted pathways for Pulmonary hypertension?
-Endothelin -Nitric Oxide -Prostacyclines
277
What are 8 causes of PAH?
Idiopathic Heritable Drug/Toxin induced CHD CTD Portal HTN HIV Schistosomiasis
278
Name three medications that cause PHTn
Aminorex, Fenfluramine, Dexfluramine, Methamphetamines
279
What are three contraindications for RHC?
-Mechanical TV or PV -Right heart masses -Right sided IE
280
What is the criteria for a positive vasoreactivity response?
-decrease in mPAP > 10 to a value less than 40 with no decrease in Cardiac output
281
What are 3 ways to do Vasoreactivity testing?
NO Epoprostenol Adenosine
282
What does vasoreactivity predict?
Response to CCB with improved survival
283
How to measure PCWP?
Should be recorded as the mean of 3 measurements at end expiration
284
How to convert woods units to dynes?
WU x 80 = Dynes
285
What PH group has the worse prognosis?
Class III, rest are comparable
286
What are 5 classes of medical therapy for PH?
CCBs Prostanoids (Prostacyclin)- Selexipag Endothelin receptor antagonists- Bosentan PDE-5 inhibitors- Taladafil, Sildenafil Soluble guanylate cyclase stimulators
287
What are 9 determinants of >10% mortality in PAH?
-Clinical signs of right heart failure -Progression of symptoms -Repeated syncope -WHO class IV functional status -6MWD < 165m -CPX < 11 -NT Pro BNP > 300 -Pericardial effusion, RA > 26 (dilated) -Hemodynamics: RAP > 14, CI < 2, SVO2 < 60%