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Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

What is OMM?

A

Application of osteopathic philosophy, structural diagnosis, and use of OMT

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2
Q

What is OMT?

A

Theraputic application of manually guided forces by an osteopathic physician to improve physiologic function or support homeostasis

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3
Q

How do you name a SD?

A

By the direction in which the motion is freer (position at rest)

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4
Q

What are the three causes of SDs?

A

Macrotraumas
Microtraumas
Congenital

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5
Q

Do all SD need to be addressed?

A

No–if congenital especially

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6
Q

How many aspects of TART are needed to Dx a SD?

A

One

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7
Q

Sidebending is named for which side?

A

The side of concavity

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8
Q

What is the anatomic barrier?

A

Limit of passive ROM

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9
Q

What is the physiologic barrier?

A

Limit of active ROM

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10
Q

What are restrictive barriers?

A

The functional limit within anatomic ROM which abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic ROM

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11
Q

What is the elastic barrier?

A

Difference between anatomic and physiologic

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12
Q

What are the forces utilized in OMT?

A

Extrinsic
Intrinsic
Active
Passive

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13
Q

What is extrinsic forces?

A

treatment forces which are not supplied by pt

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14
Q

What are intrinsic forces?

A

Voluntary or involuntary forces from within the pt that assist in manipulation

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15
Q

What are passive forces utilized by OMM?

A

Pt refraining from voluntary muscle contraction

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16
Q

What is an active force in OMM?

A

One in which the pt voluntarily performs a Dr direction

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17
Q

What is direct motion in OMM?

A

Engagement of restrictive barrier toward or through barrier

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18
Q

What is indirect motion in OMM?

A

SD is moved away from the restrictive barrier

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19
Q

What is the goal of direct/indirect motion?

A

Increased ROM

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20
Q

What are the six factors that determine modalities of treatment?

A
  1. Size of pt
  2. Size of Dr
  3. Age of pt
  4. Health of pt
  5. acute vs chronic
  6. location of treatment
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21
Q

What are the four transition points in the body?

A
  1. Head/neck
  2. Neck/thorax
  3. Thorax/lumbar
  4. Lumbar/sacral
22
Q

Why are the four transition areas important?

A

Where most SDs occur

23
Q

What is HV/LA?

A

Direct engagement of an end point or barrier using a quick motion over a short distance

24
Q

Is HV/LA a direct or indirect technique? Passive or active? Intrinsic or extrinsic? Are results in tissue texture change fast or slow?

A

Passive
Direct
Extrinsic

Fast tissue texture change

25
Which OMM technique has the highest injury potential? What is this due to?
HV/LA due to muscle spasms
26
How often is HV/LA performed?
Once or twice a week
27
What produces the pop in joints?
Nitrogen gas release
28
How does the thrust used in HV/LA change the neural activity of muscles?
Alters the afferent output of mechanoreceptors, resulting in release of the muscle hypertonicity
29
What are the contraindications to HV/LA?
``` osteoporosis Bony metastases spondylolisthesis Osteomyelitis RA Fractures Down's Vertebral artery stenosis ```
30
Is muscle energy direct or indirect? Active or passive? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Direct Active Extrinsic and intrinsic
31
What type of muscle energy involves a chaning in tension of a muscle, without approximation of its origin and insertion?
Isometric
32
What type of muscle energy is an approximation of the muscle origin and insertion without chancing its tension?
Isotonic
33
Which type of muscle energy is a contraction of a muscle against resistance, while forcing the muscle to lengthen?
Isolytic
34
Which type of ME corrects SDs?
Isometric
35
Which type of ME is used to tone muscles, or strengthen a physiologic weak muscle?
Isotonic
36
Which type of ME is used to break up scar tissue, adhesions, or fibrous tissue
Isolytic
37
What are golgi tendon organs?
Organs present in the extrafusal muscle fibers, and measure tension in the muscle
38
What are gamma-motor neurons?
Neurons that regulate the gain of the stretch reflex (how fast it is moving) by adjusting the level of tension in the intrafusal muscle fibers of the muscle spindle
39
What is the principle behind ME?
reset the intrafusal and extrafusal muscle fibers during the post-contraction relaxation phase
40
What are the contraindications to ME?
low vitality Fractures Severe neuromuscular injuries Cannot follow directions Proper pt positioning cannot be achieved
41
Are soft tissue techniques direct or indirect? Passive or active? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Direct Passive Extrinsic and intrinsic
42
What are the contraindications to soft tissue techniques?
Cellulitis
43
Is strain/counterstrain a direct or indirect technique? Passive or active? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Indirect Passive Extrinsic and intrinsic
44
How does strain/counter strain relieve pain?
Reduces and arrests the continuing inappropriate proproceptor activity
45
Muscle spindles are very sensitive to changes in what dimension (length, width, height)?
Length
46
What are the contraindications to strain/counterstrain?
Position that cause dizziness or radicular pain Extreme forward bending of the thoracolumbar spine is osteoporotic pts
47
Are cranial techniques direct or indirect? Passive or active? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Direct and indirect Passive Extrinsic and intrinsic
48
What are the contraindications to cranial techniques?
Acute head trauma
49
Are myofascial release techniques direct or indirect? Passive or active? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Direct and indirect Passive Extrinsic and intrinsic
50
What are the contraindications to myofasical release?
Flare-up of symptoms with immunological disorders
51
Are springing techniques direct or indirect? Passive or active? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Direct Passive Extrinsic
52
Are articulatory techniques direct or indirect? Passive or active? Extrinsic or intrinsic?
Direct Passive Extrinsic

OMM (30 decks)

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