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Intro Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four principles of osteopathic medicine?

A
  1. The person is a unit of body, mind, and spirit
  2. The body is capable of self-regulation, self healing, and health maintenance
  3. Structure and function reciprocally related
  4. Rational treatment is based on the basic principles of body unity, self-regulation, and S&F
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2
Q

What are the four major areas that AT still practiced in?

A

Manipulation
Surgery
Midwifery
pt edu

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3
Q

What does an abnormal anatomic state in the body bring about?

A

Physiologic breakdown, leading to decreased host adaptability leading to disease

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4
Q

According to AT still, symptoms are the result of what?

A

Manifestation of an artery not feeding an area, leading to decreased function

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5
Q

According to AT still, disease is brought about by what?

A

Accumulation of fluids by veins and lymph

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6
Q

What is the guide for DO philosophy?

A

Logical reasoning, not experimental design

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7
Q

Why are DO philosophies not principles?

A

Based on logic, not experiment

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8
Q

Does the Dr cure?

A

No, facilitates body healing

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9
Q

SDs can lead to dysfunction in what other two areas?

A

In another somatic region

In a visceral region

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10
Q

T5-T9 on the left affect what organ?

A

Stomach

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11
Q

C5 innervates what upper back muscles?

A

Rhomboids

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12
Q

How does OMM work?

A

Restores function by manually treating abnormal structure

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13
Q

What is a SD?

A

An impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system

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14
Q

What do SDs affect?

A

Skeleton
Arthrodial
Myofasical stuctures
Related vascular/lymph/neurons

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15
Q

What are the two components of illness?

A

Host’s response to disease + disease

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16
Q

What are the four main functions of the spine?

A
  1. support for ligaments, muscles, etc
  2. Protection for spinal cord
  3. Weight bearing
  4. Cushioning effect
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17
Q

What are the four basic motions of the spine?

A

Flexion
Extension
Side bending
Rotation

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18
Q

What is the pars interarticulatris?

A

Point of junction between laminae of the vertebral segments

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19
Q

What are the two components of IV discs?

A

Annulous fibrosus

Nucleus pulposus

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20
Q

How is the nucleus pulposus supplied with blood?

A

Imbibition

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21
Q

What is significant about T11 and T12?

A

Act more like lumbar vertebrae because they are not attached to the sternum. Thus treated as such in OMM

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22
Q

Scoliosis is named for which side (the convex or the concave)?

A

Convex side

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23
Q

What is scheurermann’s disease?

A

When vertebra grow unevenly

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24
Q

What are the two common ways to develop SDs of the spine?

A

trauma, degeneration

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25
Does flexion load the anterior posterior part of the vetebrae? Stretch?
anterior loading | Posterior stretching
26
Sidebending loads what part of the vertebrae? What does it open? What does it stretch?
Loads the facets on one side Opens facet on opp side Stretches ligaments and muscles opp side
27
What is a vertebral unit?
Two adjacent vertebrae with their associated IV discs
28
How is the motion of a vertebra described?
In relation to the vertebra below it
29
What are the typical cervical vertebrae?
C3-C6
30
Which spinal vetebrae have saddle shape, small bodies, bifid spinous processes, and transverse foramen?
Cervical
31
Is the spinous process of C7 bifid?
No
32
Which cervical vertebra has the longest spinous process?
C7
33
Which spinous process is also known as the vertebra priminens?
C7
34
C1 allows for what type of motion?
Flexion and extension
35
C2 allows for what type of motion?
rotation
36
Which vertebra have a heary shaped body, with long, slender spinous processes?
Thoracic
37
The articulation of the throacic spine are in which plane?
Coronal
38
Which vertebral bodies are large and kidney shaped, and have articulations in the sagittal plane?
Lumbar
39
How many foramina does the sacrum have?
4
40
What is the main function of the ALL?
Prevents hyperextension of the spine
41
The PLL runs from where to where?
C2 to sacrum
42
What is the main function of the PLL?
Prevents hyperflexion
43
What is the definition of palpation?
the application of variable manual pressure at the surface of the body, for the purpose of determining the shape, size, consistency, position, and inherent motility of the structural condition of the tissues beneath
44
The highest form of palpatory skill is attained by first having what?
Clear anatomical picture
45
What are the three things you should do when palpating?
Avoid confusing situations Maintain pt's safety Maintain Dr's safety
46
What are the three types of movment?
Active Passive Inherent
47
True or false: OMM can be performed properly without practiced palpation
False
48
What is the osteopathic structural exam?
PE of a pt with emphasis on the neuromusculoskeletal system including palpatory diagnosis for SDs within the context of total patient care
49
When is an osteopathic structural exam performed?
After history and red flags
50
What are the three skills utilized in the osteopathic structural exam?
Observation Palpation Asking pt about pain
51
What are the four things assessed for in a static evaluation?
1. abnormal position 2. bony or soft tissue abnormalities 3. TTP 4. Temp
52
What are the four things the dr is looking for in a dynamic evaluation?
1. Restricted ROM 2. Pain 3. Crepitus 4. Joint popping or clicking
53
What are the two forms of a dynamic evaluation?
Active ROM | Passive ROM
54
What is a positional diagnosis?
The position that the pt likes to be in
55
Proper osteopathic structural exam and manual medicine treatment are dependent on what 6 factors?
1. Palpation 2. Visual inspection 3. Communication with pt 4. Knowledge of nl structure 5. Knowledge of abnormal structure 6. Knowledge of disease
56
What are the three cardinal steps in evevry proper Dx and Tx with OMM?
1. Diagnose 2. Treat 3. Recheck
57
What are the two methods of palpation?
1. By layers | 2. Whole hand
58
The finer tips are best for assessing what?
Touch
59
The back or dorsum of the hand is best for assessing what?
Temp
60
The palm of the hand is best for assessing what?
Vibrations
61
What does TART stand for?
1. TTP 2. Asymmetry 3. Restricted ROM 4. Tissue texture changes
62
What spinal level are the iliac crests at?
L4
63
What inferior angle of the scapula points to what?
8th rib, at T7

OMM (30 decks)

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