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PANRE > Trauma / Surgery > Flashcards

Trauma / Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

When should preoperative creatinine levels be checked?

A

patients >40yrs old

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2
Q

Best determinant of bleeding tendencies during surgery?

A

coagulation response to minor trauma

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3
Q

In what patients are silent MIs seen more commonly?

A

Elderly and diabetics

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4
Q

When is a pregnancy test indicated for preoperative evaluation of a patient?

A

All women of childbearing age

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5
Q

What are classic factors associated with higher risk of DVT?

A

Virchow’s Triad:

  • stasis
  • intimal damage
  • hypercoagulability
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6
Q

What is the preferred DVT prophylaxis for trauma patients, or those with abdominal or pelvic cancer?

A

Lovenox (enoxaparin)

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7
Q

True / False: enoxaparin dose needs to be adjusted for renal impairment

A

True

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8
Q

What should always be ruled out with evaluation of diarrhea and enteral feedings?

A

C Diff

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9
Q

Leading cause of death between 1-44 years old?

A

unintentional and violence-related injuries

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10
Q

Leading cause of accidental death in the US?

A

motor vehicle accidents

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11
Q

Signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s Triad:

  • JVD
  • Hypotension
  • muffled heart sounds
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12
Q

How are most cases of penetrating chest trauma managed?

A

tube thoracotomy

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13
Q

Test of choice for detecting intra-abdominal injury?

A

FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma)

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14
Q

True / False: the presence of a pulse distal to site of vascular injury rules out significant vascular injury?

A

False

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15
Q

Evaluating a head trauma patient, you notice rhinorrhea, otorrhea, ecchymosis of lids (raccoon eyes) and ecchymosis behind ears (Battle’s sign) - what do you suspect?

A

basilar skull fracture

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16
Q

Injury to what artery is the usual cause of epidural hematomas?

A

middle meningeal artery

17
Q

What is common mental status presentation of a patient with epidural hematoma?

A

Brief period of unconsciousness, followed by a lucid interval

18
Q

Tried of signs indicative of brain herniation?

A

Coma
Fixed / dilated pupils
decerebrate posturing

19
Q

Most common type of burn?

A

scald burns

20
Q

How are first degree burns characterized?

A

erythema, tenderness and NO blisters

21
Q

A burn victim presents with thin-walled, fluid-filled blisters that are moist, blanch with pressure and are painful - what do you suspect?

A

second degree burn

22
Q

Characteristic appearance of third degree burn?

A

dry, with white / leathery or charred appearance, withOUT sensation

23
Q

When estimating body surface percentage for burns, what percentage does the patient’s palm represent?

A

1%

24
Q

Most commonly used topical burn ointment?

A

sulfadiazine (silvadene)

25
Q

Most common complication associated with all burns?

A

infection

26
Q

Most likely cause of post-op fever, 24-48 hrs post-op?

A

Atelectasis (Wind)

27
Q

Most likely cause of post-op fever, 48-72 hrs post-op?

A

UTI (Water)

28
Q

Most likely cause of post-op fever, >72 hrs post-op? Which pathogen responsible?

A

Wounds, Staph Aureus

29
Q

Most common nosocomial acquired infection?

A

UTIs

30
Q

Most effective approach to preventing pressure ulcers?

A

Frequent position changes, removal of moisture

31
Q

What patients is necrotizing fasciitis more common?

A

DM
Alcoholics
IV drug abusers

32
Q

Most important complication of lap chole?

A

biliary injury

33
Q

Most common complication of surgically repairing an inguinal hernia?

A

recurrence of that hernia

34
Q

Most common complication of open appendectomy?

A

wound infection

35
Q

Most common complication of lap appendectomy?

A

intra-abdominal abscess

36
Q

Most important preop evaluation by a surgical team?

A

H&P

37
Q

Common post-op complication with unfractionated heparin?

A

hematoma

38
Q

Most common indication for intubation in a trauma patient (in context of primary survey)?

A

altered mental status

PANRE (18 decks)

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