Trauma / Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

When should preoperative creatinine levels be checked?

A

patients >40yrs old

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2
Q

Best determinant of bleeding tendencies during surgery?

A

coagulation response to minor trauma

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3
Q

In what patients are silent MIs seen more commonly?

A

Elderly and diabetics

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4
Q

When is a pregnancy test indicated for preoperative evaluation of a patient?

A

All women of childbearing age

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5
Q

What are classic factors associated with higher risk of DVT?

A

Virchow’s Triad:

  • stasis
  • intimal damage
  • hypercoagulability
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6
Q

What is the preferred DVT prophylaxis for trauma patients, or those with abdominal or pelvic cancer?

A

Lovenox (enoxaparin)

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7
Q

True / False: enoxaparin dose needs to be adjusted for renal impairment

A

True

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8
Q

What should always be ruled out with evaluation of diarrhea and enteral feedings?

A

C Diff

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9
Q

Leading cause of death between 1-44 years old?

A

unintentional and violence-related injuries

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10
Q

Leading cause of accidental death in the US?

A

motor vehicle accidents

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11
Q

Signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s Triad:

  • JVD
  • Hypotension
  • muffled heart sounds
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12
Q

How are most cases of penetrating chest trauma managed?

A

tube thoracotomy

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13
Q

Test of choice for detecting intra-abdominal injury?

A

FAST exam (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma)

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14
Q

True / False: the presence of a pulse distal to site of vascular injury rules out significant vascular injury?

A

False

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15
Q

Evaluating a head trauma patient, you notice rhinorrhea, otorrhea, ecchymosis of lids (raccoon eyes) and ecchymosis behind ears (Battle’s sign) - what do you suspect?

A

basilar skull fracture

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16
Q

Injury to what artery is the usual cause of epidural hematomas?

A

middle meningeal artery

17
Q

What is common mental status presentation of a patient with epidural hematoma?

A

Brief period of unconsciousness, followed by a lucid interval

18
Q

Tried of signs indicative of brain herniation?

A

Coma
Fixed / dilated pupils
decerebrate posturing

19
Q

Most common type of burn?

A

scald burns

20
Q

How are first degree burns characterized?

A

erythema, tenderness and NO blisters

21
Q

A burn victim presents with thin-walled, fluid-filled blisters that are moist, blanch with pressure and are painful - what do you suspect?

A

second degree burn

22
Q

Characteristic appearance of third degree burn?

A

dry, with white / leathery or charred appearance, withOUT sensation

23
Q

When estimating body surface percentage for burns, what percentage does the patient’s palm represent?

24
Q

Most commonly used topical burn ointment?

A

sulfadiazine (silvadene)

25
Most common complication associated with all burns?
infection
26
Most likely cause of post-op fever, 24-48 hrs post-op?
Atelectasis (Wind)
27
Most likely cause of post-op fever, 48-72 hrs post-op?
UTI (Water)
28
Most likely cause of post-op fever, >72 hrs post-op? Which pathogen responsible?
Wounds, Staph Aureus
29
Most common nosocomial acquired infection?
UTIs
30
Most effective approach to preventing pressure ulcers?
Frequent position changes, removal of moisture
31
What patients is necrotizing fasciitis more common?
DM Alcoholics IV drug abusers
32
Most important complication of lap chole?
biliary injury
33
Most common complication of surgically repairing an inguinal hernia?
recurrence of that hernia
34
Most common complication of open appendectomy?
wound infection
35
Most common complication of lap appendectomy?
intra-abdominal abscess
36
Most important preop evaluation by a surgical team?
H&P
37
Common post-op complication with unfractionated heparin?
hematoma
38
Most common indication for intubation in a trauma patient (in context of primary survey)?
altered mental status