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Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Usually a self-limited disease, how long is the duration of pharyngitis?

A

3-4 days

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2
Q

The rash of erysipelas is typically confined to what area of the body?

A

face

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3
Q

Thick, crusted, golden “honey” yellow lesions best describes what?

A

impetigo (streptococcus pyoderma)

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4
Q

Most common cause of cellulitis in the US?

A

Group A strep

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5
Q

True / False: when diagnosing acute rheumatic fever using Jones criteria, the presence of two major criteria or one major / two minor criteria plus evidence of recent beta-hemolytic streptococci (culture or ASO titer) makes the diagnosis?

A

True

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6
Q

When using Centor criteria, what is the percent chance a sore throat is caused by group A strep when 3/4 criteria are present?

A

40-60%

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7
Q

What should be avoided in infants due to increased risk of botulism?

A

honey

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8
Q

Sudden onset of severe, frequent, “rice water” diarrhea is suggestive of what?

A

Cholera

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9
Q

What is the incubation period of tetanus after a puncture wound?

A

5d - 15 weeks

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10
Q

In patient with tetanus, hyperreflexia and muscle spasms develop most commonly in what areas?

A

Jaw and face

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11
Q

What should be given as a part of treatment of tetanus?

A

IM tetanus immunoglobulin and PCN

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12
Q

Salmonella bacteremia is most commonly seen in what type of patients?

A

immunosuppressed

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13
Q

True / False: when considering shigellosis, individuals who are HLA-B27 positive may mount a reactive arthritis because of temporary disaccharidase deficiency.

A

True

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14
Q

Treatment of choice in shigellosis?

A

TMP-SMX

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15
Q

What two antibiotics are effective in treatment of diptheria?

A

PCN or erythromycin

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16
Q

Treatment of choice for pertussis?

A

erythromycin

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17
Q

Vaccine of choice for adults for pertussis prevention?

A

Tdap

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18
Q

Most characteristic disease with EBV as implicated cause?

A

mononucleosis (“the kissing disease”)

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19
Q

Splenomegaly is present in what percentage of cases of EBV infection?

A

50%

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20
Q

Administration of what antibiotic increases incidence of rash in patients with EBV infection?

A

amoxicillin

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21
Q

Patients with mononucleosis / associated splenomegaly should be counseled against what?

A

contact sports

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22
Q

How do you define Reyes Syndrome?

A

fatty liver with encephalopathy

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23
Q

What two medications are no longer recommended as single therapy agents in treatment of influenza A or varicella infection, and what age does this peak?

A

aspirin, age 5-14.

24
Q

What two meds are no longer recommended as single therapy agents in treatment of influenza, due to resistance?

A

amantadine

rimantadine

25
When is varicella-zoster the most contagious?
The day before the rash appears
26
What is the characteristic description of lesions seen in varicella-zoster?
Lesions begin as erythematous macules and papules, form superficial vesicles ("dewdrops on rose petal"), and then later crust over
27
Eruptions of zoster lesions on the tip of the nose (Hutchinson sign) indicates involvement of what cranial nerve, and risks corneal involvement?
CN V - Trigeminal
28
How is AIDS defined (by CDC)?
CD4 < 200
29
When examining eyes of immunocompromised patient, you notice neovascularization and proliferative lesions (commonly referred to as "pizza pie"), what do you suspect?
CMV retinitis
30
Most common form of pathogenic Candida?
Candida albicans
31
What is the name of a dimorphic fungus found in soil infested with bird or bat droppings?
Histoplasma capsulatum
32
What is the name of an encapsulated, budding yeast found in soil contaminated with dried pigeon dung?
Cryptococcus neoformans
33
What test is helpful in diagnosis of cryptococcal infection?
india ink stain
34
Treatment of choice for pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
TMP-SMX
35
What's an alternative treatment to TMP-SMX in treatment of pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Dapsone
36
What is the recommended treatment for hookworms?
mebendazole bid x 3d
37
What is the only host for enterobius vermicularis?
humans
38
What are the characteristic symptoms found in patients with pinworms?
``` perianal pruritus insomnia weight loss enuresis irritability ```
39
True / False: all members of a household of a patient with pinworms should be treated?
True
40
In the treatment of pinworms, a single dose of albendazole, mebendazole, or pyrantel is given and then repeated when?
2-4wks later
41
To diagnose malaria, blood films are stained with what?
Giemsa or Wright stain
42
What is drug of choice for both prophylaxis and treatment of malaria?
Chloroquine
43
Primary syphillis is characterized by what?
Chancre: painless ulcer with a clean base and firm, indurated margins
44
gummatous lesions involving skin, bones, viscera are seen in what stage of syphillis?
late (tertiary) syphillis
45
Hutchinson teeth are a common manifestation of infants with what untreated disease?
congenital syphillis
46
What diseases can give a false positive FTA-ABS test?
Lyme SLE Malaria Leprosy
47
Treatment of choice for syphillis?
Benzathine Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM x 1
48
In treatment of syphillis, what can occur when there is massive destruction of spirochetes?
Jarisch-Herxhemier reactions (fever, toxic state)
49
Without treatment, gonorrhea can progress to involve what structures in males?
prostate epididymis periurethral glands
50
Treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
IM ceftriaxone or po cefixime
51
Lymphogranuloma venerum starts with vesicular or ulcerative lesions which may spread to lymph nodes...causing what?
inguinal buboes
52
Drug of choice in treatment of chlamydia in pregnant women?
erythromycin
53
Trichomoniasis is what type of organism?
flagellated protozoan
54
Most common vector-borne disease in US?
Lyme disease
55
Drug of choice for patients with erythema migrans or suspicion of Lyme based on clinical findings and Hx of tick bite?
Doxycycline
56
What is transmitted by the wood tick?
Rickettsia
57
What meds have been shown to hasten recovery in patients with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)?
Doxycycline or Chloramphenicol

PANRE (18 decks)

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