GI Flashcards

1
Q

What is a modality for a patient with significant nighttime GERD sxs?

A

H2 blocker at night, PPI during day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Common viral causes of esophagitis?

A

CMV, and HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Common causes of esophagitis with HIV patient?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
EBV
Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How to treat HSV esophagitis?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to treat CMV esophagitis?

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Key feature of Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

vomiting undigested food after several hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Classic finding on barium swallow in patient with Achalasia?

A

“Parrot beak”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Condition caused by thrombosis of portal vein which leads to esophageal varices?

A

Budd-Chiari Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What three diseases does H Pylori cause?

A

PUD
gastric adenocarcinoma
gastric lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The name of a syndrome which involves a gastrin-secreting tumor that causes hypergastrinemia?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How to diagnose Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

fasting gastrin level > 150 pg / mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is strongly associated with gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

H Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the supraclavicular lymphadenopathy of gastric adenocarcinoma called?

A

Virchow’s node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the umbilical nodule of gastric adenocarcinoma called?

A

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What organism causes the most rapid onset of diarrhea?

A

Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what denotes an inflammatory process in diarrhea?

A

stool WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when should a colonoscopy be ordered in patient with constipation?

A

patients > 50 years old with new onset constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes most small bowel obstructions?

A

adhesions and hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common cause of a large bowel obstruction?

A

tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What test distinguishes mal-digestion from mal-absorption?

A

D-xylose test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common genetic condition in the US?

A

Celiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the screening tests for celiac?

A

IgA anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the age of onset for Crohn’s disease?

A

Age 25, M = F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is possibly curative in Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Surgery

26
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic or recurrent abdominal pain in the US?

A

IBS

27
Q

What is the most common cause of intussusception in a child and adult?

A

Child: viral infections
Adult: neoplasm

28
Q

What is the presentation of intussusception?

A

colicky pain
currant jelly stool
sausage-like mass

29
Q

how do we both diagnose and treat intussusception in a child?

A

barium or air enema

30
Q

how do we diagnose intussusception in an adult?

A

CT

31
Q

What test do we avoid with diverticulitis?

A

Barium enema

32
Q

What is the risk of inheirited polyposis syndrome?

A

near 100% risk of cancer

33
Q

What lab test is used to monitor Colorectal cancer?

A

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

34
Q

what is the most common cause of appendicitis?

A

fecalith

35
Q

What is the most common emergency surgery?

A

appendicitis

36
Q

what is the initial symptom of appendicitis?

A

periumbilical or epigastric pain

37
Q

Most common causes of pancreatitis?

A

ETOH

cholelithiasis

38
Q

Classic pain pattern of pancreatitis?

A

epigastric pain radiating to back

39
Q

What is bleeding into the flanks called?

A

Grey Turner sign

40
Q

What is bleeding into the umbilical area called?

A

Cullen’s sign

41
Q

What is a palpable gallbladder and jaundice called?

A

Courvoisier sign

42
Q

What is the surgical resection of pancreatic cancer called?

A

Whipple procedure

43
Q

What are the complications of choledocholithiasis?

A

cholecystitis
pancreatitis
acute cholangitis

44
Q

What is Charcot’s Triad?

A

RUQ pain
jaundice
fever

45
Q

What is Charcot’s triad, with added hypotension and altered mental status?

A

Reynold’s Pentad

46
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

47
Q

What is the only known treatment for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Liver Transplant

48
Q

What represents ongoing Hepatitis B infection

A

Hep B Surface Antigen

49
Q

What represents immunity to Hepatitis B?

A

Anti-HBs - antibody to HepB Surface Antigen

50
Q

What med is used for acetaminophen toxicity?

A

acetylcysteine

51
Q

What is the general cause of a liver abscess?

A

Entamoeba Histolyica

52
Q

What is the liver a common recipient of metastases from?

A

Lung and Breast

53
Q

What diseases cause an elevation of alpha-fetoprotein

A

Hepatic Carcinoma
Hep C
Cirrhosis

54
Q

What is the location of an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Through internal inguinal ring

55
Q

Location of a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Through external ring at Hesselbach’s triangle

56
Q

What is the basic patient demographic for pyloric stenosis?

A

5 week old male

57
Q

What is the radiographic finding of pyloric stenosis?

A

String Sign

58
Q

What is the disease caused by Vitamin D deficiency?

A

Rickets

59
Q

What is the disease caused by Thiamine deficiency?

A

Beriberi

60
Q

What’s another name for Vitamin B6?

A

Pyridoxine

61
Q

What is the problem with pheynlketonuria?

A

inability to metabolize phenylalanine

62
Q

What is the treatment for phenylketonuria?

A

low phenylalanine diet and tyrosine supplementation.