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RADIOLOGIC PATHOLOGY > TRAUMA DISEASES > Flashcards

TRAUMA DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

In trauma cases, why might cystography be performed?

A

Visualize injury to the urinary bladder.

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2
Q

What percentage of patients with severe head injuries might also have a cervical spine fracture?

A

Up to 20%.

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3
Q

What type of fracture is commonly associated with wearing only a lap seatbelt?

A

Lumbar spine injuries.

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4
Q

What is a common finding in radiographs of patients with whiplash injuries?

A

Loss of the normal cervical lordosis.

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5
Q

What type of trauma causes compression fractures in the thoracic and lumbar spine?

A

Direct trauma or hyperextension–flexion injuries (whiplash injuries).

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6
Q

A fracture of the second cervical vertebra’s arch caused by acute hyperextension of the head.

A

Hangman’s fracture

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7
Q

What imaging method is preferred for visualizing the transverse longitudinal ligament in a Jefferson fracture?

A

MRI.

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8
Q

What is the primary cause of death in traumatic brain injuries?

A

Hematomas or swelling causing increased intracranial pressure.

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9
Q

What is the risk associated with an open skull fracture?

A

Development of meningitis or brain abscesses.

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10
Q

How can a cerebral cranial fracture be differentiated from vascular markings on a radiograph?

A

A fracture appears more translucent and linear, while vascular markings are more irregular.

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11
Q

What imaging sign is commonly associated with basilar skull fractures?

A

Air-fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus.

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12
Q

What is the mechanism behind traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

Acceleration and deceleration forces causing brain tissue damage.

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13
Q

What distinguishes a coup injury from a contrecoup injury in brain trauma?

A

A coup injury occurs at the point of impact,

a contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side.

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma?

A

A torn middle meningeal artery, often due to a skull fracture.

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15
Q

How is a subdural hematoma typically caused?

A

By tearing of subdural veins, usually following blunt trauma.

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16
Q

How does a subarachnoid hematoma differ from other types of brain hematomas?

A

It accumulates between the arachnoid layer and pia mater, often due to the tearing of small vessels.

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17
Q

An incomplete fracture where the bone bends and cracks without breaking completely, common in children.

A

“greenstick” fracture

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18
Q

What type of fracture occurs when the cortex bulges outward?

A

A buckle or torus fracture.

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19
Q

fracture of the distal inch of the radius with dorsal displacement of the fragment.

A

Colles fracture

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20
Q

A fracture of the fifth metacarpal from striking an object with a closed fist.

A

boxer’s fracture

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21
Q

What is a Bennett fracture?

A

A fracture dislocation at the base of the first carpometacarpal joint.

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22
Q

How does a Monteggia fracture occur?

A

Fracture of the proximal ulna with dislocation of the radial head.

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23
Q

What is a Pott fracture?

A

A fracture involving both malleoli with dislocation of the ankle joint.

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24
Q

How does a trimalleolar fracture differ from a bimalleolar fracture?

A

It involves the medial, lateral, and posterior malleoli.

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25
Q

What does the presence of a “fat pad sign” in the elbow indicate?

A

suggests an underlying fracture, often of the radial head.

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26
Q

What are common sites of stress fractures in athletes?

A

The tibia, fibula, and metatarsals.

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27
Q

A severe ankle sprain with a fracture of the proximal third of the fibula.

A

Maisonneuve fracture

28
Q

A burst fracture of the first cervical vertebra (atlas) caused by axial compression.

A

Jefferson fracture

29
Q

How does a hangman’s fracture affect the cervical spine?

A

It causes a fracture of the second cervical vertebra and anterior subluxation on the third vertebra.

30
Q

What is the most common wrist fracture?

A

Colles fracture.

31
Q

A fracture in which the bone separates into two fragments without additional bone splitting.

A

complete, noncomminuted fracture

32
Q

A rotary force that twists the bone apart, common in long bones causes what?

A

spiral fracture

33
Q

What is the most common site for a compression fracture in the spine

A

T11-T12 and T12-L1 vertebrae.

34
Q

What causes a butterfly fracture?

A

A comminuted fracture with wedge-shaped fragments splitting off from the main fragments.

35
Q

What is a “burst fracture” in the spine?

A

A compression fracture where the vertebra shatters under axial force, often involving the lumbar spine.

36
Q

What type of injury is most commonly associated with falling on an outstretched hand?

A

Colles fracture of the distal radius.

37
Q

What type of brain injury results from rapid acceleration and deceleration of the head?

A

Traumatic brain injury (TBI).

38
Q

How does a coup-contrecoup brain injury occur?

A

The brain is injured at the site of impact (coup) and the opposite side of the skull (contrecoup).

39
Q

What is the significance of a radiolucent line in a bone?

A

It indicates a possible fracture.

40
Q

What type of fracture typically results from a blow to the skull with a high-velocity object?

A

Depressed skull fracture.

41
Q

What is the first imaging step in suspected cervical spine trauma?

A

Lateral cervical spine radiography or CT.

42
Q

How are fractures classified as stable or unstable?

A

A fracture is stable if only one column (anterior or posterior) is involved; it is unstable if both are involved.

43
Q

What is the primary cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in younger individuals?

A

Motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) and sports-related injuries.

44
Q

What is a closed head injury?

A

A brain injury caused by forces of compression, acceleration, and deceleration without an open wound.

45
Q

What are the most commonly affected areas of the brain in traumatic brain injury?

A

frontal, temporal, and occipital regions.

46
Q

difference between an open and closed fracture

A

An open (compound) fracture involves the bone breaking through the skin, while a closed fracture does not.

47
Q

What causes a “dinner fork” deformity in a Colles fracture?

A

dorsal displacement of the distal radius fragment.

48
Q

What is a complete, noncomminuted fracture?

A

A fracture where the bone breaks into two fragments without splintering.

49
Q

What is the common result of blunt abdominal trauma?

A

Injuries to the urinary system, particularly the kidneys and bladder.

50
Q

What is a Salter-Harris fracture?

A

A fracture involving the growth plate in children, classified into five types.

51
Q

What is the most common imaging method used to assess suspected fractures in trauma patients?

A

Plain radiography (X-ray).

52
Q

What type of fracture is common in elderly patients with osteoporosis?

A

Compression fractures of the vertebral column.

53
Q

What type of fracture is associated with high-velocity trauma and results in multiple fragments?

A

Comminuted fracture.

54
Q

How is a blowout fracture of the orbit typically caused?

A

By blunt trauma to the eye, causing the orbital floor to fracture.

55
Q

A fracture classification involving the maxilla, often from facial trauma. It can be Type I, II, or III depending on the extent of the fracture.

A

Le Fort fracture

56
Q

How is a Le Fort Type II fracture characterized?

A

involves a pyramidal fracture of the maxilla, with extension through the nasal bridge, maxilla, and orbital floor.

57
Q

What type of trauma usually causes a tripod fracture of the zygomatic bone?

A

A direct blow to the cheek, causing fractures at three sutures: zygomatic-frontal, zygomatic-maxillary, and zygomatic-temporal.

58
Q

Why are mandibular fractures often bilateral?

A

Because the force transmitted through the mandible can cause fractures at two points, usually the angle and condyle.

59
Q

What type of injury is associated with a Smith fracture?

A

A fracture of the distal radius with volar (palmar) displacement, usually caused by a fall onto a flexed wrist.

60
Q

How does a Le Fort Type III fracture differ from Type I and II?

A

Le Fort Type III involves a complete craniofacial separation, with fractures extending through the orbits and zygomatic arches.

61
Q

How is a stress fracture different from other fractures?

A

It is caused by repetitive stress on a bone, rather than a single traumatic event.

62
Q

Where are stress fractures most commonly seen?

A

weight-bearing bones like the tibia, fibula, and metatarsals

63
Q

type of stress fracture that occurs when muscles become fatigued and cannot absorb shock, transferring the stress to the bone.

A

fatigue fracture

64
Q

A fracture where a fragment of bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament.

A

avulsion fracture

65
Q

What imaging sign is indicative of an orbital blowout fracture?

A

A “teardrop” sign, where soft tissue from the orbit herniates into the maxillary sinus.

66
Q

What is the most common site of fracture in the mandible?

A

angle of the mandible

RADIOLOGIC PATHOLOGY (13 decks)

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