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Small ruminants > Transboundary > Flashcards

Transboundary Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the categories of disease notification at an EU level

A

Cat A: Immediate removal (normally not present)
Cat B: Compulsory eradication
Cat C: optional eradication
Cat D: measures to prevent spread between member states
Cat E: surveillance only

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2
Q

What EU disease level is anthrax?

A

Category D

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3
Q

What signs are seen in anthrax in ruminants?

A

Fever, tremors, dyspnoea, sudden death. Bleeding from orifices.

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4
Q

Aujeszky’s disease (SuHV-1) can occasionally infect small ruminants. What signs are seen?

A

Pseudorabies - trembling, ataxia, opisthotonus, seizure

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5
Q

What EU category is BTV?

A

Cat C - optional eradication

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6
Q

How many BTV serotypes are there, how do thy vary? Is there any relationship with pathogenicity?

A

27, varying in VP7 structural protein. Lower serotypes seem to be more pathogenic.

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7
Q

How long is required for within midge replication of BTV?

A

6-8 days (after which the midge is infected for life) however, infectious immediately.

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8
Q

For how long are BTV hosts infected?

A

<60 days

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9
Q

List the clinical signs of BTV

A

Pyrexia
salivation
depression
dyspnoea
nasal discharge
hyperaemia of muzzle, lips, eyelids, ears
Ulceration and necrosis of oral mucosa
Broncholublar pneumonia
Hyperaemia of coronary band (plus groin, axilla, perinuem) -> lameness

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10
Q

How long is the incubation period for BTV in the host?

A

4-8 days

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11
Q

What signs are seen on PME of BTV cases?

A

Congestion, haemorrhage, ulceration & oedema of mucosae, broncholobular pneumonia, pleural & pericardial fluid, haemorrhage at base of pulmonary artery, LN hypertrophy, congestion of laminae

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12
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for BTV?

A

Realtime PCR. ELISA used for monitoring/pre-movement.

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13
Q

List three bunyaviruses that present principally with abortion and foetal malformations.

A

Schmellenberg, Akabane, Cache Vally

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14
Q

What signs are seen in bunyaviral foetal malformations? During which stage of gestatin do they occur

A

Arthrogryposis, hydrencephaly. 25-50days (possibly slightly later for Akabane)

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15
Q

Described the cytological appearance of Brucella mellitnesis

A

Gram negative coccobacillus

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16
Q

Through what routes are humans infected with B mellitensis?

A

Ingestion, inhalation, conjunctival

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17
Q

What stage of gestation does abortion occur with Brucella mellitensis? What is the pathology?

A

final 2 months. Cotyledon necrosis

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18
Q

In which fluids is B. mellitensis shed?

A

Milk, Vaginal/uterine, semen

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19
Q

How is B. mellitnesis abortion diagnosed.

A

PCR of aborted material. Positive serology strongly supportive.

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20
Q

How have Greece tried to control B. mellitensis? How should it be administered and why?

A

Vaccination with Rev-1. COnjunctivally - reduces cross-reactivity on serology.

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21
Q

What are the main signs of Brucella ovis infection?

A

Testicular swelling, reduced male fertility.

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22
Q

How can B. ovis be diagnosed?

A

Serum ELISA - although CFT test used for international trade as more standardised.

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23
Q

Which agent causes contagious caprine pleuropneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae

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24
Q

What are the signs of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia?
What is seen on PME?

A

Anorexia, fever, dyspnoea, nasal discharge.
Unilateral sero-fibrinous pleuropneumonia with severe pleural effusion

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25
Q

How is caontgaious caprine pleuropneumonia diagnosed? How can serological cross-reaction be overcome?

A

PCR. latex agglutination cELISA

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26
Q

List the 7 serotypes of FMD. Is there cross-protection between them?

A

A, O, C, SAT-1, SAT-2, SAT-3, Asia-1
No cross protection

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27
Q

What are the signs of FMD?

A

Vesicles and bullae of the feet, mouth and mammary glands, progressing to ulcers.

28
Q

How is FMD diagnosed?

A

Vesicle contents (aspirated or collected by probang) transported in cold glycerol for virus isolation.
Antibodies to structural proteins identify serotype. Antibodies to non-structural proteins can differerntiate vaccinated animals.

29
Q

What proportion of FMD-infected small ruminants are asymptomatic?

A

27%

30
Q

Desribed the 5 steps of the EU-FMD pathway

A

0 - Identify risks and control options
1 - Impact reduced in targetted sectors/areas
2 - Impement control strategy
3 - Maintain zero circulation and prevent incursions
4 - Withdraw vaccination

31
Q

Which ticks transmit Nairobi Sheep Disease?

A

Rhipecephalus, Ambylomma

32
Q

What is the mortality ratae for Nairobi Sheep Disease?

A

40-90%

33
Q

What is the incubation period of Nairobi Sheep Disease?

A

2-5 days

34
Q

List the signs of Nairobi Sheep DIsease

and the PME findings

A

Fever, hyperventilatio, anorexia, conjunctivitis, depression, nasal discharge, foetid diarrhoea, abortion.

Lymphadenitis, petechiae, striping of colon and gall bladder

35
Q

How is Nairobi Sheep DIsease identified?

A

Immunoflouoresent antibodies

36
Q

What family is the Peste des Petits Ruminants virus in?

A

Morbillivirus

37
Q

How many PPR lineages are there and where are they found?

A

1&2 - West Africa
3 - East Africa and Middle East
4 - Middle East and Asia (although encroaching into East Africa)

38
Q

List the signs of PPR infection

A

Pyrexia,
ocular and nasal discharge
diarrhoea
pneumonia
Mucosal erosions
Abortion

39
Q

How is PPR detected?

A

EILSA or PCR (or virsu isolation during clinical phase)

40
Q

How is PPR transmitted?

A

Aerosols and fomites for up to 72h

41
Q

What is in the incubation period for PPR?

A

4-6 days

42
Q

Can vaccines be used in control of PPR?

A

Live-attenuated vaccines provide good protection but as not DIVA cannot use outsied endemic areas (recognised free countries bordering endemic countries)

43
Q

What are the three pillars of the PPR 2030 elimination campaign?

A

Strengthening surveillance,
vaccination,
awareness-raising & knowledge exchange

44
Q

What is the mortality rate of Rift Valley Fever

A

Up to 100% in young animals
(Also potentially fatal in humans)

45
Q

What are the clinical signs of Rift Valley Fever

A

High fever (-> abortion)
LIstlessness
Enlarged LNs
colic
Foul bloody diarrhoea
Mucopurulent nasal discharge

46
Q

In which stagae of gestation are abortions with Salmonella abortusovis seen?

A

last trimester

47
Q

What proportion of a Salmonella abortusovis infected flock will abort?

A

30-50% in naive flocks. 10% in endemic flocks

48
Q

Why is serology less useful in S. abortusovis cases?

A

Titres are very short lived

49
Q

List the signs of sheep and goat pox

and PME findings

A

Fever, nodules/papules (rarely vesicles) mostly in groin and axilla, mucosal inflammation followed by necrosis. Lung lesions. Sometimes abortion. Sudden death in suscpetible breeds.

Papules of gut, kidneys and liver. Hard focal lesions in lungs

50
Q

Are vaccines against sheep and goat pox available?

A

Killed vaccines are ineffective, but live vaccines provide protection across sheep and goat pox (and lumpy skin disease) but cannot be used in free areas.

51
Q

What is the incubation period for sheep and goat pox

A

8-13 days

52
Q

What is the vector for Trypanasomiasis?

A

Tsetse fly (but other biting insects can transmit outside of tsetse range)

53
Q

List the signs of Trypanasomiasis

A

Anaemia, anorexia, atony, lymphadenopathy, immunosuppression, sometimes neurological signs

54
Q

How is trypanasomiasis treated?

A

Diminazene

55
Q

List the three Theileria species thta affect small ruminants

A

T. lestoquardi
T. luwenshui
T. uilenbergi

56
Q

Which ticks act as vectors for theileriosis?

A

Rhipicephalus, Haemaphysalis, Hyalomma

57
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of Theileria lestoquardi infection.

A

Transforms MHCII positive cells (B cells and monocytes) leading to a cytokine cascade with NK and complement activation.

58
Q

List the signs of T. lestoquardi infection

A

Fever, lymphadenopathy, Cardiovascular problems, diarrhoea, haemorrhage and jaundice

59
Q

What is the mortality rate for T. lestoquardi?

A

46-100%

60
Q

What signs do T. luwenshuni and uilenbergi cause?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

61
Q

How can Theileriois be treated/controlled?

A

Buparvaquone treatment. Some attenuated vaccines produced.

62
Q

Which form of Tularaemia has been associated with outbreaks in sheep? How is it transmitted?

A

Francisella tularensis Type A. Transmitted by arthropods or contact with North American lagomorph carcases.

63
Q

Which agglutination test can be used for Brucella? What i its downside?

A

Rose Bengal. It lacks specificity therefore confirmatory testing required

64
Q

Which staining technique is sued to identify Brucella on vaginal smears?

A

STAMP

65
Q

What culture medium is recommended for Brucella (all spp)?

A

CITA

66
Q

With which pathogens can Brucella serology cross-react? How can this be overcome?

A

C. pseudotuberculosis, Y. enterocolitica, D. nodosus
Use Brucellin (Cytosolic-periplasmic proteins) instead of membrane LPS

Small ruminants (13 decks)

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