Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small ruminants > Miscellaneous / late additions > Flashcards

Miscellaneous / late additions Flashcards

1
Q

What class of toxin is contained in Meadow Saffron (crocus)? What clinical signs does it cause?

A

Alkaloid. Salivation, colic, diarrhoea, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What class of toxin is contained within Jimson weed? What clinical signs does it cause?

A

Alkaloid. Dry mouth, tremors, tachycardia, mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Groundsel (pictured) and ragwort contain which class of toxin?

A

pyrrolizidine alkaloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the signs of yew poisoning?

A

trembling, dyspnoea, ataxia, bradycardia and collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What class of toxin is contained in Oleander? What are the clinical signs?

A

Cardiac glycoside. (Plus GI toxins). Vomitting, colic, brady/tachy dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What class of toxin is contained in lily of the valley?

A

Cardiac glycoside (and GI irritants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What toxin class is contained in cherry laurel?

A

cyanogenic glycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What clinical signs are seen with rhododendron poisoning?

A

Abdominal pain, excessive salivation, green nasal discharge associated with vomiting attempts, tachycardia, tachypnoea, pyrexia and ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many consecutive years of vaccination at what coverage rate would be needed to eradicate bluetongue form an endemically infected area?

A

5 years at 95% coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long after the second dose of a bluetnogue vaccine is immunity generally established?

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For which BTV serotypes has transplacental transmission in sheep been shown?

A

8 & 2 (11 in cattle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For what length of journey is a certificate of vehicle approval and journey log required?

A

> 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For what journeys is a transporter authorisation not required?

A

Journeys <65km or those to visit a vet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What details are required to be recorded and carried with an animal transporter irrespective of the journey length

A

Animal origin and ownership
Place of departure
Date and time of departure
Intended destination
Expected duration of journey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For what long journeys can derogations removing the need for a journey log apply?

A

Journeys <12h within a single member state, where that member state has applied for the derogation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Up to what stage of gestation can pregnant females be transported?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How far can lambs under 1 week of age be transported?

A

Under 100km, provided their navel has healed. (Although dams cannot travel within 1 week of parturition.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lambs under what weight must be provided with absorbant bedding material during transport

A

20kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where loading of a transporter is anticapted to take more than 4 hours, what must be provided?

A

Lairage with feed and water that does not require the animals to be tied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How much feed and water must be carried for sheep on journeys greater than 24h?

A

2% of liveweight in fodder
1.8% of liveweight in concentrates
4l of water (or 10% of liveweight)
Plus 3 days supply or 25% as spares (whichever is greater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the maximum journey time for unweaned animals? After how long must they be given a break to receive milk? How long must that break be?

A

18 hours. Break after 9 hours. Break at least one hour long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum journey length weaned ruminants may be transported before they require a 24h rest? How must this journey be broken down?

A

Maximum journey of 28h. A break of at least 1 hour after 14 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During road transport, how much space must shorn sheep and lambs under 55kg be given?
The same space allowance applies to goats of what weight?

A

0.2-0.3 m2
Goats <35kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During road transport how much space must heavily pregnant ewes/goats >55kg be given?

A

> 0.5 m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the minimum length of chain required for tethered goats?

A

3m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If sheep are shorn during winter housing, how long must the fleece have grown back to before they can be turned out?

A

15-20mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How much space is recommended for a lowland ewe during pregnancy? How much less is need for a hill breed?

A

1.2-1.4 m2
Hill breeds 0.2 m2 less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much space is needed for a hill ewe with lambs at foot? How much extra space is needed for a lowland breed?

A

1.8-2.0 m2
Lowland breeds need 0.2 m2 more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hw much floorspace is needed for a housed lamb 3-12 months old?

A

0.75-0.9 m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What ear positions are associated with pain in sheep according to the sheep pain facial expression scale?

A

Tense, backwards or downwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What ocular change is associated with pain in sheep according to the SPFES?

A

Orbital tightening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What change in the cheeks is associated with pain?

A

flattening of the cheeks (reduced convexity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What change in the nose is associated with pain?

A

tightening of the nose giving a ‘V’ shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the EU legal limit for copper content in sheep feed?

A

15mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What iron concentration is recommended in ruminant feed? How do ruminants cope with excessive dietary iron

A

50mg/kg. Hepcidin mediated downregulation of intestinal absorption.

36
Q

Which plants can cause anaemia? (Three mechanisms)

A

Haemorrhage: Coumarin containing (e.g. sweet clover, woodruff, tonka) or Haemorrhage + bone marrow destruction: Ptaquilaside (bracken)
Haemolysis: Aliums, brassicas

37
Q

What does high milk urea suggest about a diet?

A

there is too much erdp relative to the energy content

38
Q

Polymorphisms in which gene are associated with less seasonal reproduction?

A

Melatonin receptor

39
Q

Which superfamily of genes affecting fecundity includes the Boroola, BMP and FecX genes?

A

Transforming Growth Factor B

40
Q

Which bacterial genus is most commonly siolated from both mandibular osteomyeltitis lesions and normal mouths in sheep?

A

Streptococcus

41
Q

Which agent causes Malignant Cattarhal Fever in cattle? Does it cause pathology in sheep?

A

Ovine Herpes Virus 2. Usuaully no, but can cause polyarteritis nodosa (systemic necrotising vasculitis)

42
Q

Production of which immune effector is assocaited with responses against Toxoplasma in vaccinated animals?

A

Nitrous Oxide

43
Q

What is the most common malignant neoplasia of goats?

A

Thymoma

44
Q

What effect does selenised yeast have on goat milk compared to inorgnaic selenium supplementation?

A

Higher fat, protein and selenium. Lower SCC.

45
Q

What effect does SRLV have on cheese yield from goat’s milk?

A

Reduces yield by approx 5g per litre

46
Q

Name a cause of abscessation of superficial lymph nodes other than CLA

A

Morel’s disease. S. aureus anaerobius

47
Q

List the 4 EMA antibiotic classifications

A

A - Avoid - Do not use
B - Restrict - Only if C&S shows no other option
C - Caution - Only if there’s no cat D
D - Prudence - First line treatment but only if necessary

48
Q

List antibiotic classes in Cat A

A

Carbapenams, Streptogrammins, Ketolides, Rifamycins

49
Q

List antibiotic classes in Cat B

A

3rd & 4th cephalosporins
Quinolones
Polymixins

50
Q

List antibiotic classes in Cat C

A

Aminoglycosides (excpet spectino-)
Amino penicillins/clavulanate
Amphenicols
Lincosamides
Pleuromutilins
Macrolides

51
Q

List antibiotics in cat D (8)

A

Penicillins
Tetracyclines
Spectinomycin
Sulphonamides
Polypeptides (none)
Steroid (fusidic)
Nitroimidazole
Nitrofuran

52
Q

List the five freedoms

A

Pain, injury, disease
Discomfort
Hunger and Thirst
Fear and Distress
To express normal behaviour

53
Q

List the nine components of the assurewel welfare assessment for sheep

A

Individual lameness
Flock lameness
BCS
Dirtiness
Fleece loss
Sheep in need of further care
Short docked tails
Castration/tails records
Mortality records

54
Q

List four indicators for feed and water access in hosued goats

A

BCS
Hair condition score
Queueing to feed
Queueing to drink

55
Q

List 3 welfare indicators for assessing housing of housed goats

A

Bedding
Thermal stress
Kneeling at feedrack

56
Q

List 10 welfare indicators for good health in housed goats

A

Lameness
BCS
Faecal soiling
coat condition
Nasal discharge
Oblivion
Ocular discharge
Overgrown claws
Udder assymetry
Improper disbudding

57
Q

List 4 welfare indicators for behaviour in housed goats

A

Queueing
Oblivion
Latency to first contact
Qualiative behavioural assessment

58
Q

What control measures could be applied in a Rift Valley Fever outbreak>

A

HUman inactivated vaccine (at risk populations first).
Livestock vaccines: attenuated in highest risk areas, inactivated around that.
Ban on slaughter and butchering
Vector risk management

59
Q

How long does each stage of L. sericata life cycle take?

A

Eggs: 12-24h
Larvae 1-3: 3-8 days depending on temperature
Pupae: 1-2 weeks
Adult emergence to sexual maturity: 1-2 weeks

60
Q

List 4 pillars of flystrike prevention

A

Prevenative treatment
Minimise fleece attractiveness
Treat lame sheep promptly
Reduce fly population

61
Q

In which tissue/fluid can FMD virus be detected first (before clinical signs)

A

Milk

62
Q

What is the licensed dose rate for triclabendazole in sheep?

A

10mg/kg

63
Q

What are the licensed dose rates for albendazole in sheep?

A

5mg/kg worms, 7.5mg/kg fluke

64
Q

What is the licensed dose rate for ivermectin in sheep?

A

0.2mg/kg oral or injectable

65
Q

What is the licensed dose rate for levamisole in sheep?

A

7.5mg/kg

66
Q

What is the licensed dose rate for topical eprinomectin in sheep and goats? And injectable?

A

1mg/kg
0.2mg/kg

67
Q

What is the licensed dose rate for oxyclozanaide in sheep?

A

15mg/kg

68
Q

What is the licensedose rate for closantel in sheep?

A

10mg/kg

69
Q

What volume of 25% solution of magnesium sulphate is licensed for sheep?

A

Up to 75ml

70
Q

What is the licensed dose rate of tulathromycin in sheep?

A

2.5mg/kg

71
Q

What is the licensed dose rate of monepantel in sheep?

A

2.5mg/kg

72
Q

List the four most important tick species in Europe

A

Ixodes ricinus
Dermacentor marginatus
Rhipicephalus bursa
Haemaphyalis punctata

73
Q

What causes the increased joint size in SRLV arthritis

A

Chronic proliferative arthritis with hypoertrophy and hypoerplasia of synoviocytes leading to increased fluid prodution in addition to inflammation.

74
Q

List the means of transmission for sheep/goat pox

A

Direct contact (1-2 months)
Aerosols
Fomites (6 months)
Insect bites

75
Q

What volume of lidocaine should be injected for lumbosacral epidurals?

A

1ml per 10kg

76
Q

What is the recommended dose for xylazine?

A

0.05-0.1mg/kg

77
Q

What is the recommended dose of ketamine?

A

5-10mg/kg

78
Q

What is the dose range for detomidine?

A

5-30ug/kg

79
Q

What doses are used for a ketamine triple stun sedation?

A

0.025-0.05mg/kg xylazine
0.05-1mg.kg butorphanol
0.3-0.5mg/kg ketamine

80
Q

On a dry matter basis, what is the protein and energy content of barley?

A

12%
18MJ

81
Q

On a dry matter basis, what is the protein and energy content of maize?

A

19MJ
9% protein

82
Q

On a dry matter basis, what is the protein and energy content of brewers grains?

A

26% protein
20 MJ

83
Q

On a dry matter basis, what is the protein and energy content of soybeans?

A

40%
23MJ

84
Q

On a dry matter basis, what is the energy content of average hay and silage as fed?

A

8MJ
10MJ

85
Q

List the stages of the fluke lifecycle

A

Egg
Miracidia
Sporocyst
Redia
Cercaria
Metacercaria
Juvenile
Adult

86
Q

How does tetanotoxin cause continued muscle contraction

A

Blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and glycine.

Small ruminants (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions