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Small ruminants > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

In which breed of sheep is there an autosomally recessive congential holoprosencephaly? What does this look like?

A

Border Leicester. Cyclops

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2
Q

How does Veratrum californium exposure cause congenital orpharyngeal abnormalities?

A

Interferes with Sonic Hedgehog signalling

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3
Q

Which breed of sheep has an inherited porphyrinism? What oropharyngeal signs does this cause?

A

German Blackhead. Grey mucosae and discoloured teeth.

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4
Q

List risk factors for incisor loss (3).

A

Sandy soils. Acid soil. Oral dysbiosis.

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5
Q

In what age of sheep have odeontogenic cysts been reported?

A

2-4 years old.

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6
Q

What signs are seen on histopathology of wattle cysts. Are they clinically significant?

A

Staritified squanmous epithelium with mature hair follicles. Not significant.

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7
Q

Which bacteria is associated with necrotic stomatitis in lambs? Name a risk factor.

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum. Poor milk replacer/teat hygeine.

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8
Q

Which bacteria is associated with oral/facial abscesses. Name a risk factor.

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii. Thorny feed.

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9
Q

Which virus causes orf?

A

Parapox

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10
Q

How long do clinical orf lesions persist?

A

3-6 weeks

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11
Q

How does orf predispose to mastitis? How else does it suppress the host immune system?

A

Reduction in mammary lymphoid follice size. Produces viral-IL-10 and chemokine binding protein.

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12
Q

How soon to lambing can orf virus scarification be performed

A

> 7 weeks

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13
Q

Is orf virus host species specific?

A

No, but caprine and ovine strains exist (with reduced cross-immunity between them).

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14
Q

Which bacteria has been assocaited with high prevalence (c.30%) of osteomyelitis of the jaw in some flocks? Name a risk factor.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Harsh feed.

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15
Q

How can clover cause ptyalism? Name the toxin

A

Infection with Rhizoctonia leguminicola. Slaframine.

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16
Q

How can salivary mucocoeles be corrected? Why is the drainage location important?

A

Cannulation or marsupialisation. Bicarbonate lost if not draining into oropharynx.

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17
Q

How should the two layers of a rumenostomy be sutured?

A

Serosa to muscle, muscosa to skin.

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18
Q

Which protozoal parasite has been associated with megaoesophagus?

A

Sarcocystis

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19
Q

In which species have congenital oesophageal divericula been reported?

A

Goats

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20
Q

Name two forage plants associated with frothy bloat. Why are they risky? Why are trefoil and sainfoin less risky?

A

Alfalfa, clover. Rich in soluble proteins. Tannins reduce foam formation.

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21
Q

How soon after acute grain intake will signs of acidosis be seen?

A

12-36h

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22
Q

What rumen pH is acidotic?

A

<5.5

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23
Q

How long would methylene blue reduction tkae in a a case of rumenal acidosis?

A

> 9mins

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24
Q

Which gram stain group predominate in an acidotic rumen. How does this affect clincial signs?

A

Gram positive predominate. These produce less thiamine and more thiamiases. Death of gram negatives releses endotoxin.

25
Q

What is the maxmimum wieght of concetrate that should be fed to a small ruminant in a single feed?

A

500g

26
Q

What trough space do lowland ewes need for concentrate?

A

50cm/ewe

27
Q

What fibre to starch ratio is recommended in diary goats?

A

1.43:1

28
Q

What is the risk of feeding rumen buffers to small ruminants?

A

Counteract urinary acidiers

29
Q

Name four bacteria that can cause abomasitis.

A

Clostridium sordelli. C. ventriculi. C. septicum (braxy - older animals in winter). Sarcina spp.

30
Q

How do Sarcina spp. appear on cytology?

A

Gram positive cuboidal packets.

31
Q

What age of animals are affected by watery mouth?

A

<72h

32
Q

How much colostrum should neonates receive?

A

50ml/kg in first 4h, 200ml/kg in first 24h

33
Q

How does neontal physiology allow watery mouth? How do bacteria exploit it?

A

Pinocytosis for absorption of large molecules allows bacterial uptake. Aerobactin-mediated iron transport system expands this.

34
Q

Which group of rotavirus can cause neonatal diarrhoea? What age is it seen? How is it identified?

A

Group B. <2 weeks. Chromatographic lateral flow device or virus isolation.

35
Q

What age of lambs/kids suffer from ETEC diarrhoea? What antigens are used for identification? Name two other causative E coli.

A

<10 days (often <5d). Fimbrial antigens K99 and F41. STEC and EPEC.

36
Q

Describe the pathology seen in C. perfringens type A & C infection. What other syndrome can type A cause

A

Haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia with necrotic foci and ulceration. Yellow Lamb disease (haemolysis)

37
Q

What bacteria causes lamb dysentery? What toxins does it produce? Why is infection only seen in neonates?

A

C. perfringens type B. Produces αβε toxins - but mostly β which cuases the intestinal pthology. β-toxin is degraded by trypsin but this process is inhibited by presence of colostrum (to protect antibodies from digestion).

38
Q

Name 4 Saomonella enterica serovars associated with diarrhoea. What other clinical sign is often seen. What changes are seen in bloodwork?

A

Enterica, Arizonae, Dublin, Tymphimurium. Fever. Leukopaenia or leukocytosis.

39
Q

How long does it take Cryptospridium oocysts to become infectious after passing? Name three treatment options? Are they effective?

A

They are immediately infective (sporulate in gut). Halofuginone (reduce shedding and death rate). In-milk/feed deccoquinate or paramomycin (reduce shedding only).

40
Q

Name the two most pathogenic coccidia in sheep

A

Eimeria crandallis and Eimeria ovionoidalis.

41
Q

What pathology does Eimeria bakuensis cause?

A

Localised polyps.

42
Q

Name the five most pathogenic coccidia in goats

A

Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae, E. caprina, E. christenseni, E. hirci. E. arloingi

43
Q

What temperature limits can cocciian oocysts survive? What other two environmental variables affect survival?

A

-30C min 63C max. Strong sunlight and dessication kill.

44
Q

In coccidiosis how many rounds of schizogony occur before gametogenesis? How long after infection is peak excretion?

A

2 rounds. 2-4 weeks p.i. (often aged c.6 weeks)

45
Q

Which is more effective against clinical coccidiosis, Diclazuril or Toltrazuril? Is decoquinate feeding helpful?

A

Toltrazuril (greater efficacy and duration). Feeding to lambs can act as preventative but feeding to ewes has minimal impact on lamb infections.

46
Q

What age is campylobacter diarrhoea seen?

A

2 weeks +

47
Q

What age is intestinal giradiasis seen?

A

2-4 weeks

48
Q

The cause of terminal ileitis is not known, but name two pathogens it is associated with

A

Campylobacter, Border Disease Virus

49
Q

What modification must be made to culture media to grow S-type Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis

A

Removal of pyruvate

50
Q

Infeciton with C-type and S-type MAP are assocaited with which cytokines respectively?

A

IL-10 (C-type), TNFα (S-type)

51
Q

Where are the first granulomas seen after MAP infection? How is this related to age-related risk?

A

Peyer’s patches. Number decline with age, therefore less infection in older animals.

52
Q

Which cytokine and macrophage type are associated with MAP resilience?

A

IFNγ and type-1 macrophages

53
Q

List 4 immunological variations associated with MAP susceptibility

A

Deficient MHC-II expression, decreased NO synthesis, increased TGF-β, increased IL-10

54
Q

Which region of the gut provides most reliable johnes identification on histopathology?

A

ileo-caecal valve

55
Q

What is the sensitivity of pooled faecal culutre for MAP? (What is the downside?)

A

92%. Very slow

56
Q

Is MAP PCR more sensitive in faeces or milk? why?

A

Milk. Faecal PCR inhibitors.

57
Q

What technique provides greatest sensitivity for MAP identification?

A

qPCR

58
Q

What is the sensitivity of MAP ELISA in different clincial categories?

A

Clinical animals: 50-87%. Subclinical shedders: 24-64%. Non-shedders: 7-22%

59
Q

What is the sensitivity of the IFNy assay for Johne’s? Which clinical class is it useful for? Name a downside to the test.

A

51%. Better than ELISA for identifying sub-clinical animals. Less specific in young animals

Small ruminants (13 decks)

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