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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > The Digestive System 2 > Flashcards

The Digestive System 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many chambers are in the ruminant stomach?

A

4

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2
Q

the first 3 chambers in the ruminant stomach that are nonglandular

A

Forestomaches (Proventriculus)

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3
Q

List the 3 chambers within the proventriculus

A
  1. Reticulum
  2. Rumen
  3. Omasum
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4
Q

does not produce digestive enzymes

A

Nonglandular

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5
Q

the large expansible chamber of the ruminant stomach where fermentation occurs

A

Rumen

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6
Q

the 4th chamber in the ruminant stomach that is glandular

A

Abomasum

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7
Q

Give the 2 components of the reticulorumen

A
  1. Reticulum
  2. Rumen
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8
Q

the “true stomach”

A

Abomasum

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9
Q

the “book stomach”

A

Omasum

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10
Q

the “paunch”

A

Rumen

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11
Q

the “honeycomb”

A

Reticulum

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12
Q

muscular folds that divide the rumen into the dorsal sac, ventral sac, and two caudal sacs

A

Pillars

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13
Q

the link between the esophagus and the omasum that plays a critical role in young ruminants by preventing milk from spilling into the reticulorumen and fermenting

A

Esophageal (Reticular) Groove

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14
Q

List the 3 types of contractions in the reticulorumen

A
  1. Primary Contractions
  2. Rumination
  3. Eructation
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15
Q

the contractions of the reticulorumen that help ensure adequate movement of the contents back and forth between the reticulum and the rumen, serve to separate particles based on size, and provide the force necessary to move the liquid contents from the reticulorumen into the omasum

A

Primary Contractions

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16
Q

the contractions of the reticulorumen in which the ingesta moves up from the reticulorumen into the oral cavity where additional saliva and continued chewing help to break down the coarse plant materials further

A

Rumination

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17
Q

the contractions of the reticulorumen responsible for the release of gases such as carbon dioxide and methane produced during fermentation

A

Eructation

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18
Q

the condition in which carbon dioxide and methane accumulate without being released, the reticulorumen expands too much, and results in compressed thoracic and abdominal organs, compromised blood flow to abdominal organs, lung function interference, tissue hypoxia and even death if untreated

A

Bloat

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19
Q

What are the 4 phases of rumination in the ruminant stomach?

A
  1. Regurgitation
  2. Re-salivation
  3. Re-mastication
  4. Re-swallowing
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20
Q

the phase of rumination in which an antiperistaltic wave moves bolus into the oral cavity

A

Regurgitation

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21
Q

the phase of rumination in which a bolus has more saliva added to it in order to help break down the plant materials further

A

Re-Salivation

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22
Q

the phase of rumination in which a bolus is chewed again in order to help break down the plant materials further

A

Re-Mastication

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23
Q

the final phase of rumination

A

Re-Swallowing

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24
Q

bacteria in the reticulorumen that break down starch and soluble carbohydrates into volatile fatty acids (VFA)

A

Amylolytic Bacteria

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25
Q

bacteria in the reticulorumen that break down components of cell walls (cellulose, hemicelluloses, pectin) into volatile fatty acids (VFA)

A

Cellulolytic Bacteria

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26
Q

What is the main source of energy for ruminants?

A

Volatile fatty acids (VFAs)

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27
Q

enzymes released by rumen bacteria that break down proteins into smaller peptide chains that are then absorbed by the microbes, further hydrolyzed inside the cell, and culminate the production of amino acids

A

Peptidases

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28
Q

compounds that can be converted by microbes into ammonium which is then synthesized to make microbial amino acids

A

Non-Protein Nitrogen (NPN) Compounds

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29
Q

the production of glucose by the liver from noncarbohydrate sources

A

Gluconeogenesis

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30
Q

What process produces almost all glucose needed by ruminants?

A

Gluconeogenesis

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31
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the small intestine?

A
  1. Ileum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
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32
Q

the production of glucose by the liver from noncarbohydrate sources

A
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33
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the duodenum?

A
  1. Descending Duodenum
  2. Ascending Duodenum
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34
Q

the longest portion of the small intestine where the bulk of chemical digestion and absorption occurs and has great range of motion due to its long mesentery

A

Jejunum

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35
Q

the portion of the small intestine that empties into the large intestine at the cecum, colon, or both depending on the species and is where Peyer’s patches are most prominent

A

Ileum

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36
Q

the area where the small intestine empties into the large intestine in equines

A

Ileocecal Junction (Cecum)

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37
Q

the area where the small intestine empties into the large intestine in canines and felines

A

Ileocolic Junction (Colon)

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38
Q

the area where the small intestine empties into the large intestine in ruminants and pigs

A

Ileocecocolic Junction (cecum + colon)

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39
Q

aggregates of lymphoid tissue in the small intestine that help protect the animal from disease by controlling local populations of bacteria, functioning in antibody production, and aiding in filtration of fluids

A

Peyer’s Patches

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40
Q

permanent structures in the small intestine formed by the folding of its mucosa lining

A

Plications

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41
Q

a structure on majority of the surface area of the small intestine formed from its microvilli that contain enzymes responsible for membranous digestion

A

Brush Border

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42
Q

fingerlike projections on the mucosa of the small intestine that move back and forth to help move liquid contents into close contact with the mucosa

A

Villi

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43
Q

lymphatic capillaries found in the villi of the small intestine that carry absorbed lipids and fat-soluble substances to the thoracic duct

A

Lacteals

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44
Q

a hormone secreted by the small intestine responsible for inhibiting gastric emptying, triggering gallbladder contraction, and the secretion stimulation for pancreatic digestive proenzymes, bicarbonate, and enteropeptidase

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

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45
Q

What 3 things stimulate cholecystokinin secretion?

A

Chyme entering the small intestine with a:
1. High amino acid concentration
2. High fatty acid concentration
3. Low pH

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46
Q

a hormone secreted by the small intestine that decreases HCl production in the stomach and increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretions

A

Secretin

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47
Q

What 2 things stimulate secretin secretion?

A

Chyme entering the small intestine with a:
1. High fatty acid concentration
2. Low pH

48
Q

a substance secreted by the pancreas and liver that helps neutralize the acids leaving the stomach to ensure the pancreatic digestive enzymes are most effective

A

Bicarbonate

49
Q

groups of cells containing several different cell types that each produce their own hormone and carry out the endocrine functions of the pancreas

A

Pancreatic Islets

50
Q

pancreatic cells that secrete insulin to lower blood glucose levels

A

Beta Cells

51
Q

pancreatic cells that secrete glucagon to raise blood glucose levels

A

Alpha Cells

52
Q

pancreatic cells that secrete somatostatin to inhibit gastric secretion and somatropin release

A

Delta Cells

53
Q

a cluster of epithelial cells that release their secretions into the lumen, merge with other lumina to form ducts that eventually converge into the pancreatic duct

A

Acini (sg Acinus)

54
Q

Where does the pancreatic duct empty into?

A

Duodenum

55
Q

pancreatic enzymes that break down nucleic acids into nucleotides

A

Nucleases

56
Q

List 4 functions of the liver

A
  1. Secretion of substances essential for nutrient digestion and absorption
  2. Synthesizing nutrients + regulating release into bloodstream
  3. Excreting toxic substances
  4. Producing most of the plasma proteins, cholesterol and many of the blood coagulation factors
57
Q

Give the 2 surfaces of the liver

A
  1. Diaphragmatic Surface
  2. Visceral Surface
58
Q

the convex surface of the liver

A

Diaphragmatic Surface

59
Q

the surface of the liver in contact with the right kidney, stomach, duodenum, colon, and jejunum

A

Visceral Surface

60
Q

the attachment between the liver and the diaphragm

A

Falciform Ligament

61
Q

microscopic divisions of the liver

A

Hepatic Lobules

62
Q

What 2 blood vessels does the liver receive blood from?

A
  1. Hepatic portal vein
  2. Hepatic artery
63
Q

the blood vessel that carries blood from the intestines to the liver

A

Hepatic Portal Vein

64
Q

the blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the liver and branches off the celiac artery

A

Hepatic Artery

65
Q

abnormalities of the portal vein in which the portal vein doesn’t deliver blood to the liver but instead caries blood from the intestines to the caudal vena cava

A

Portosystemic Shunts

66
Q

branches of the hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, and the bile duct bound into a portal tract that empties into the sinusoids of the liver

A

Hepatic Triads

67
Q

liver cells

A

Hepatocytes

68
Q

macrophages in the liver sinusoids that engulf foreign substances

A

Kupffer Cells

69
Q

bile ductules located between individual hepatocytes that travel in the opposite direction from the blood and empty into large bile ductules

A

Canaliculi

70
Q

Necessary for lipid digestion in the intestines

A

Bile

71
Q

structures through which bile exits the liver and empties into the common bile duct

A

Hepatic Ducts

72
Q

the structure that carries bile from the liver to the gallbladder or duodenum depending on the species

A

Common Bile Ducts

73
Q

a small structure that connects the gallbladder to the common bile duct and allows bile to enter and leave the gallbladder

A

Cystic Duct

74
Q

the structure that controls the entrance of the bile duct into the duodenum

A

Sphincter of Oddi

75
Q

Concentrates + stores bile until needed

A

Gallbladder

76
Q

the pathway for bile from the liver to the intestine to the hepatic portal vein and back to the liver

A

Enterohepatic Circulation

77
Q

a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is eliminated through bile

A

Bilirubin

78
Q

red pigment

A

Heme

79
Q

green pigment

A

Biliverdin

80
Q

yellow to orange pigment

A

Bilirubin

81
Q

yellow to orange pigment based on degree of oxidation

A

Urobilin

82
Q

brownish pigment

A

Stercobilin

83
Q

Where can disruptions in bilirubin excretion occur?

A

Anywhere in the pathway
1. Prehepatic
2. Hepatic
3. Posthepatic

84
Q

What happens if bilirubin excretion is interrupted at any point?

A
  1. Blood bilirubin levels elevate
  2. Animal becomes icteric
  3. Develops bilirubinemia
85
Q

a condition characterized by an abnormal increase of bilirubin in the blood

A

Bilirubinemia

86
Q

the abnormal increase of bilirubin in the blood due to too many RBCs hemolyzed in circulation which causes the amount of bilirubin to overwhelm a normally functioning liver

A

Prehepatic Bilirubinemia

87
Q

the abnormal increase of bilirubin in the blood due to a malfunctioning liver with hepatocyte that have a reduced ability to conjugate bilirubin

A

Hepatic Bilirubinemia

88
Q

the abnormal increase of bilirubin in the blood due to obstruction of the bile duct or impairment of bile flow within the canaliculi

A

Posthepatic Bilirubinemia

89
Q

a condition that prevents or slows the flow of bile through the bile ducts which causes a buildup of substances that would normally be excreted through the bile

A

Cholestasis

90
Q

What are the 2 types of cholestasis?

A
  1. Extrahepatic Cholestasis
  2. Intrahepatic Cholestasis
91
Q

the obstruction of the common bile duct that prevents or slows the flow of bile through the duct which causes a buildup of substances that would normally be excreted through the bile

A

Extrahepatic Cholestasis

92
Q

the impairment of bile flow within the canaliculi which causes a buildup of substances that would normally be excreted through the bile

A

Intrahepatic Cholestasis

93
Q

the conversion of glucose into energy

A

Glycolysis

94
Q

the major storage form of glucose

A

Glycogen

95
Q

the process in which glycogen can be broken down to glucose monomers when the animal needs to use glucose as an energy source and can occur when the animal is in the postabsorptive state and glucose is no longer readily available

A

Glycogenolysis

96
Q

What 3 substances are used in gluconeogenesis?

A
  1. Pyruvate
  2. Lactate
  3. Glycerol
97
Q

a process of localized contractions of circular muscle in the small intestine used to mix chyme and increase its contact with mucosal enzymes and absorptive surfaces

A

Segmentation

98
Q

pancreatic enzymes that break proteins at internal points along the polypeptide chains which result in smaller peptide chains and do not release free amino acids

A

Endopeptidases

99
Q

pancreatic enzymes that break proteins at the ends of the polypeptide chains and release free amino acids

A

Exopeptidases

100
Q

List the 4 steps to digest and absorb lipids

A
  1. Emulsification
  2. Hydrolysis
  3. Micelle Formation
  4. Absorption
101
Q

The large intestine consists of what 4 things?

A
  1. Cecum
  2. Colon
  3. Rectum
  4. Anus
102
Q

a blind diverticulum at the beginning of the large intestine that varies in size based on species and diet

A

Cecum

103
Q

List the 3 divisions of the colon

A
  1. Ascending Colon
  2. Transverse Colon
  3. Descending Colon
104
Q

the terminal portion of the large intestine where stool is stored temporarily until defecation occurs

A

Rectum

105
Q

the opening of the gastrointestinal tract for the elimination of stool

A

Anus

106
Q

List the 4 motility patterns of the large intestine

A
  1. Segmentation
  2. Peristalsis
  3. Antiperistalsis
  4. Mass Movement
107
Q

the movement in the large intestine consisting of a period of intense propulsive activity, moving the contents of the large intestine toward the rectum

A

Mass Movement

108
Q

What are 2 important functions of the large intestine?

A
  1. Water absorption
  2. Ion absorption
109
Q

the reflex stimulated by rectum sensory receptors as feces are transported and causes the colon and rectum to contract while relaxing the inner anal sphincter muscle

A

Defecation Reflex

110
Q

a skeletal muscle capable of delaying defecation in some species

A

Outer Anal Sphincter

111
Q

a condition where teeth form erosions which are then covered with gingival tissue

A

Tooth Resorption

112
Q

gingival tissue

A

Calculus

113
Q

an autoimmune disease in which antibodies target the receptors for acetylcholine, preventing the transmission of nerve impulses to the skeletal muscles, thereby preventing contraction

A

Myasthenia gravis

114
Q

abnormal esophageal dilation that results in food improperly moving down the esophagus and frequent regurgitation of undigested food

A

Megaesophagus

115
Q

a protective mechanism that provides animals with the ability to remove harmful or toxic substances from the stomach or upper intestine

A

Emesis

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (12 decks)

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