The Cardiovascular System Flashcards
Atmospheric pressure keeps blood gasses __________
dissolved
Pressure on our body will help keep gasses like nitrogen safely dissolved in our blood stream.
Which type of homeostatic feedback mechanism is used to regulate body temperature, ensuring it remains around the desired level of 37°C (98.6°F)?
negative feedback
Where does water move in osmosis?
Water moves to a place of lower water concentration.
What part of the formed element portion of blood would be needed to stop bleeding?
Platelets; they stick to damaged blood vessel walls to help stop bleeding.
What portion of centrifuged blood makes up its smallest proportion, and what does it contain?
Buffy coat, white blood cells and platelets
This only makes up a small fraction of blood, much less than hemocrit and plasma.
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
A) Maintain homeostasis
B) Protect against microorganisms
C) Transport of gases
D) Stimulate cell metabolism
D) Stimulate cell metabolism
A 25-year old female has a routine blood panel, including hematocrit, performed for her annual physical. Her hematocrit returns with a value of 33%. Which of the following diagnoses might be appropriate for the patient?
A) The value is within the normal range
B) There is not enough information provided to make a determination
C) The patient may have anemia
D) The patient may have polycythemia
C) The patient may have anemia
When body temperatures drop, the blood vessels within the skin ________ to minimize heat loss.
constrict
Which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells?
hematopoietic
Which of the following occurs in the spongy bone of the epiphyses?
A) bone growth
B) bone remodeling
C) hematopoiesis
D) shock absorption
C) hematopoiesis
Of the following cell types, which has the potential to differentiate into the most varied types of cells?
A) Oligopotent
B) Pluripotent
C) Multipotent
B) Pluripotent
All the following are functions of the skeletal system EXCEPT:
A) Support
B) Communication
C) Blood cell production
D) Mineral and fat storage
B) Communication
The kidneys produce the hormone ________ to stimulate red blood cell production.
A) erythropoietin
B) cholecystokinin
C) leptin
A) erythropoietin
Granular leukocytes derive from what line of stem cells?
A) myeloid stem cells
B) lymphoid stem cells
C) megakaryoblast
D) monoblast
A) myeloid stem cells
Myeloid stem cells differentiate into myeloblasts, which give rise to the three granular leukocytes.
Interleukins are associated primarily with which of the following?
A) production of various lymphocytes
B) immune responses
C) inflammation
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
A laboratory is interested in creating a source of platelets that can be grown in culture at a hospital and be available for emergency supply of platelets. It has isolated a spontaneously immortal megakaryocyte, which it can then treat with a hematopoietic growth factor to commit that cell to become platelets. With which hematopoietic growth factor should the megakaryocyte be treated?
A) Interleukin
B) Thrombopoietin
C) Colony-stimulating factor
D) Erythropoietin (EPO)
B) Thrombopoietin
If hemopoiesis is primarily occurring in the pelvis and cranium, the person is likely in the ________ stage.
A) child
B) adult
C) prenatal
B) adult
Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is true?
A) It is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
B) It facilitates the proliferation and differentiation of the erythrocyte lineage.
C) It is a hemopoietic growth factor that prompts lymphoid stem cells to leave the bone marrow.
D) Both a and b are true.
B) It facilitates the proliferation and differentiation of the erythrocyte lineage.
Which of the following organelles produces large quantities of ATP when both glucose and oxygen are available to the cell?
A) mitochondria
B) peroxisomes
C) lysosomes
D) ER
A) mitochondria
Which of the following organelles synthesizes proteins that will either be embedded in the cell membrane or secreted from the cell?
A) Lysosomes
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus
C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Most cells within the body only contain one nucleus. Some exceptions to this rule are ________ cells which are multinucleate, and ________ cells which are anucleate.
A) Bone, sperm
B) Liver, white blood
C) Nerve, skin
D) Muscle, red blood
D) Muscle, red blood
Which statement about erythrocytes is true?
A) They carry only oxygen molecules.
B) They are called monoblasts before they mature.
C) They lack endoplasmic reticula and cannot synthesize proteins.
D) In transporting oxygen, they consume about 1% of the oxygen that they transport.
C) They lack endoplasmic reticula and cannot synthesize proteins.
Mature erythrocytes lack organelles, including the endoplasmic reticulum.
Which of the following statements about mature, circulating erythrocytes is true?
A) They have no nucleus.
B) They are packed with mitochondria.
C) They survive for an average of 4 days.
D) All of the above are true.
A) They have no nucleus.
A molecule of hemoglobin ________.
A) is shaped like a biconcave disk packed almost entirely with iron
B) contains four glycoprotein units studded with oxygen
C) consists of four subunits, each with a globin protein bound to a heme group.
C) consists of four subunits, each with a globin protein bound to a heme group.
Although Hb does have quaternary structure, I think the wording of this may give the wrong impression
Which blood cell type is found in the greatest numbers in plasma?
Erythrocytes
Which of the following trace elements is not required by erythrocytes?
A) Manganese
B) Copper
C) Iron
D) Zinc
A) Manganese
Which of the following substances is least able to cross the blood-brain barrier?
A) water
B) sodium ions
C) glucose
D) white blood cells
D) white blood cells
Which stem cell type will be dedicated to giving rise to lymphocytes?
A) Lymphoid stem cell
B) Myeloid stem cell
C) Totipotent stem cell
D) Hemocytoblast
A) Lymphoid stem cell
Degranulation of mast cells is
A) exocytosis (secretion) of their previously synthesized chemicals like histamine.
B) their production of granules for inflammation.
C) complete cell lysis of the mast cells.
D) their movement into the area of the injury.
A) exocytosis (secretion) of their previously synthesized chemicals like histamine.
The mechanism by which leukocytes pass through the small capillaries is known as _____________.
A) active transport
B) diapedesis
C) hemostasis
D) positive chemotaxis
B) diapedesis
Diapedesis (or emigration) is the mechanism by which leukocytes pass through small capillaries.
What condition results from excessive proliferation of nonfunctional white blood cells?
leukocytosis
While this produces a high white blood cell count, the cells themselves are mostly nonfunctional
Which of the following describes a neutrophil?
A) abundant, agranular, especially effective against cancer cells
B) abundant, granular, especially effective against bacteria
C) rare, agranular, releases antimicrobial defensins
D) rare, granular, contains multiple granules packed with histamine
B) abundant, granular, especially effective against bacteria
A patient has been experiencing severe, persistent allergy symptoms that are reduced when she takes an antihistamine. Before the treatment, this patient was likely to have had an increase in chemical production by which leukocyte?
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) monocytes
D) natural killer cells
A) basophils
High counts of basophils are associated with allergies
The leukocytes that migrate to the tissue to become resident macrophages are the _______
monocytes
Which of the following is the epithelial tissue that lines the interior of blood vessels?
A) columnar
B) pseudostratified
C) simple squamous
D) transitional
C) simple squamous
What condition causes a stroke?
disruption of blood flow to the brain
Which of the formed elements arise from myeloid stem cells?
platelets
The blood vessels in your arm can vasoconstrict because they contain this type of muscle.
smooth muscle
Molly slices her thumb while chopping garlic for dinner. As platelets begin to form a plug, what will they release to maintain vasoconstriction?
Serotonin; along with prostaglandins, help to maintain vasoconstriction.
Thromboplastin and proconvertin are active at the side of a bleed. Which coagulation pathway is involved?
extrinsic
The extrinsic pathway is a faster and more direct response to traumatic injury.
The first step in hemostasis requires the activity of what cell type?
Smooth muscle cells
Tick anticoagulant peptide is a potent inhibitor of the activated form of factor X. As such, this is considered to be a(n):
Anticoagulant
The natural removal of a clot is called ________ and requires ________.
A) anticoagulation, antithrombin
B) fibrinolysis, plasmin
C) anticoagulation, plasmin
B) fibrinolysis, plasmin
The plasma protein that is produced by specialized leukocytes and contributes to immune functions is ________
Gamma globulin, also known as antibodies or immunoglobulin, participates in the immune system.
What type of cell breaks down old, worn-out erythrocytes?
Macrophages recycle the proteins and organelles in red blood cells.
Which plasma proteins is not produced by the liver?
immunoglobulin
Aging and damaged erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by ________.
macrophages
Cell clustering induced by antibody-antigen attachment is called______.
Agglutination is the process of antibodies attaching to non-self erythrocytes and creating clumps of erythrocytes.
Mr. Steinberg has type A+ blood. Therefore, he has what type of antigens in his blood?
A and Rh D antigens
Since he is type A, he must have the A antigens in his blood. The (+) indicates he also has the Rh D antigens.
Why are people with blood type AB considered “universal recipients”?
Because their blood contains no anti-A or anti-B antibodies.
Since they lack both A and B antibodies, they will not have an immune response to type AB, A, B, or O blood transfusions.
People with ABO blood type O ________
lack both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a risk during a subsequent pregnancy in which ________.
an Rh− mother is carrying a second Rh+ fetus
The heart is within the ________.
mediastinum
The heart is ________ to the lungs.
Medial
The ________ pericardium lines the walls of the thoracic cavity, while the ________ pericardium immediately covers the heart.
parietal, visceral
The fibers of this muscle have one to two nuclei. This type of muscle is
cardiac
What type of muscle is striated, contains sarcomere, and has many mitochondria and myoglobin?
cardiac
Which of the following lists the valves in the order through which the blood flows from the vena cava through the heart?
A) tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar
B) mitral, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar
C) aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar, tricuspid, bicuspid
D) bicuspid, aortic semilunar, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar
A) tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar
In which cavity(ies) is/are the heart located?
The thoracic, mediastinal, and pericaridal
The outermost layer of the pericardium is composed of dense regular connective tissue and is called the:
Fibrous pericardium
The anterior surface of the right atrium has ridges of tissue called:
Pectinate muscles
What stops venous flow into the right atrium?
Nothing; flow is nearly continuous
Which element is important in directly triggering contraction?
calcium (Ca++)
Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles in that they ________.
contain intercalated discs
Voltage-gated Na+ channels open upon reaching what state?
threshold
Depolarization of the cell occurs when the membrane potential:
Becomes more positive
The junction type that forms channels between adjacent cardiac muscle fibers that allow the depolarizing current produced by cations to flow from one cardiac muscle cell to the next is the
gap junction
A heart block describes an interruption in the normal conduction pathway that occurs in the heart. What occurs during a second degree AV block?
incomplete block—some impulses from the SA node reach the AV node and continue, while others do not.
What is the importance of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle?
They support the synchronized contraction of the heart muscle.
Intercalated discs allow for and support the synchronized contraction of the heart muscle.
Trace the path of an electrical impulse in the heart, starting with the clump of cells known as the pacemaker.
A) atrioventricular node - sinoatrial node - bundle of His - atrioventricular bundle branches - Purkinje fibers
B) sinoatrial node - atrioventricular bundle branches - bundle of His - atrioventricular node - Purkinje fibers
C) sinoatrial node - atrioventricular node - bundle of His - atrioventricular bundle branches - Purkinje fibers
D) sinoatrial node - atrioventricular node - Purkinje fibers - atrioventricular bundle branches - bundle of His
C) sinoatrial node - atrioventricular node - bundle of His - atrioventricular bundle branches - Purkinje fibers
This is the pathway utilized every time an electrical signal is generated by the sinoatrial node.
The heart is autorhythmic, meaning that it will beat even in the absense of input from the nervous system. How is rhythmic beating of the heart controlled?
The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. Myocardial conducting cells in the pacemaker slowly depolarize, initiating the contraction cycle.
Which portion of the ECG corresponds to repolarization of the atria?
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) None of the above
D) none of the above: atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarization
Which chamber of the heart pumps blood through the aorta to the rest of the body?
The left ventricle; it is in the lower part of the heart and pumps oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.
The chamber of the heart that directly receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the
Left atrium
The chamber with the thickest myocardium is the:
Left ventricle
What causes the aortic semilunar valves to open?
Increased blood pressure in the left ventricle
At what point during the cardiac cycle does the aortic semilunar valve open?
second phase of ventricular systole
The aortic semilunar valve and the pulmonary semilunar valve both open at the second phase of ventricular systole.
Which of the heart sounds is caused by the contraction of the atria?
S4
An S4 heart sound usually indicates an atrium or atria contracting hard to push blood through a stiff or hypertrophic ventricle.
Most blood enters the ventricle during ________
atrial diastole
At isovolumetric diastole, which of the following does NOT occur?
Both semilunar valves are open
On an EKG, which points on the graph represent ventricular systole?
RST
What is the signaling molecule used only in alpha or beta adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system?
epinephrine
Adrenergic receptors are G protein-coupled receptors and are targets of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Nicotine causes vascular tone to become more ________________ , causing a(n) _____________ in blood pressure.
sympathetic, increase
This is one of the biggest health-related side effects of smoking.
Which functional division of the nervous system would be responsible for the physiological changes seen during exercise (e.g., increased heart rate and sweating)?
autonomic
Which of the following responses would be typical after stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?
Increased heart rate
At the end of the QRS complex, the ventricles contain 130 ml of blood, a volume also known as ________.
preload
On a hot day, Alex is splitting logs deep in the woods behind his house. His hands are so sweaty that he loses his grip on the axe handle and the blade slices into his calf muscle. He bleeds profusely and quickly becomes dizzy. What action does his cardiovascular system take to compensate for his blood loss and to keep blood flowing to his brain?
Parasympathetic stimulation is suppressed.
Parasympathetic stimulation, a negative inotropic factor, would be suppressed to keep the heart rate elevated.
In a healthy young adult, what happens to cardiac output when heart rate increases above 160 bpm?
It decreases
A 30-year-old male is running a 5K race. Using the heart rate function of his watch, he finds his heart rate is 100. His watch also has an EKG function and will calculate his end diastolic and end systolic volumes. At this point he finds the EDV is 180 and ESV is 80. What is his cardiac output?
10,000 ml/min
Cardiac output is measured by stroke volume multiplied by heart rate. Stroke volume can be calculated by EDV - ESV
Almost in an accident, a student’s heart rate accelerates. From a cardiology standpoint, what has happened to their heart to increase heart rate?
The cardioaccelerator area of the brainstem has sent sympathetic signals to the ventricles.
As a student, I have got so much to do and not enough time in which to do it all. So I start my day with a strong cup of coffee with milk and two sugars and have the first of several cigarettes. So I have to ask, what am I doing to my heart?
Stimulating it with the nicotine and caffeine
Which of these is true regarding the mesoderm layer in an embryo?
The mesoderm gives rise to bone, cartilage, blood, blood vessels, and muscle
Each of these tissues arises from mesoderm.
Low-oxygen blood exits the heart via what major vessel?
pulmonary trunk
The pulmonary trunk splits into the right and left pulmonary arteries, which travel to the lungs.
Differentiated cells in a developing embryo derive from ________
ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
Which chamber initially receives blood from the systemic circuit?
right atrium
From which primary germ layer does the heart form?
Mesoderm gives rise to the heart
In fetal heart development, at what stage do strands of cardiogenic tissue develop a lumen?
endocardial tube
A lumen develops within the cardiogenic cords as they develop, and at that point they become endocardial tubes.
Which fetal structure eventually develops into the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk in the adult?
The truncus arteriosus gives rise to the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk in the adult.
The two tubes that eventually fuse to form the heart are referred to as the ________.
endocardial tubes
Which primitive area of the heart will give rise to the right ventricle?
Bulbus cordis
What major organ is not included in the systemic circuit?
The lungs; they are part of the pulmonary circuit.
Which type of tissue functions in holding other tissues together and providing structural support for the body?
connective tissue
The difference between the tunica intima and the tunica externa in an artery is that the tunica externa _____________.
contains vasa vasorum
The tunica externa contains vasa vasorum; the tunica interna does not.
The interconnecting network of capillaries that stem from an arteriole is called a(n)______
capillary bed
Nervi vasorum control ________
both vasoconstriction and vasodilation
Which of the following best describes veins?
thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, have valves
A healthy elastic artery ________
is compliant
What condition causes a stroke?
disruption of blood flow to the brain
Closer to the heart, arteries would be expected to have a higher percentage of ________.
elastic fibers
Redness during inflammation is due to
increased blood flow in the area increased blood flow in the area
In a blood pressure measurement of 110/70, the number 70 is the ________.
diastolic pressure
Which of the following statements is true?
As blood volume decreases, blood pressure and blood flow also decrease.
Jane volunteers at the local hospital after school and desperately wants to train to be a medical assistant after she graduates. One afternoon she convinces the nurse practitioner to let her take the next patient’s blood pressure and pulse. The patient agrees and as the nurse practitioner observes, Jane confidently begins to feel for the patient’s pulse and take her blood pressure. At what point would the nurse practitioner have to step in and correct Jane’s actions?
A) when Jane put the bell of the stethoscope on the patient’s inner elbow
B) when Jane used her right forefinger and middle finger to feel for the patient’s pulse
C) when Jane readjusted the cuff to make it tighter
D) when Jane released all the air from the cuff in one motion
D) when Jane released all the air from the cuff in one motion
Air must be released gradually in two stages, to hear both the systolic and diastolic sounds as blood flow returns to the arm.
Which of these conditions would NOT influence resistance to blood flow?
A) oxygen saturation 89%
B) body temperature 102°F
C) arteriosclerosis
D) polycythemia
A) oxygen saturation 89%
The oxygen saturation of the blood, even if outside the range of normal, does not affect resistance to blood flow.
To counteract the effects of gravity, the body uses what to keep blood flowing in the venous system?
Valves, respiratory pump, and pressure gradients
Materials that do not need a channel or carrier in moving through the plasma membrane move through a process called_______
Simple diffusion; it does not need a carrier or channels to move materials through the membrane.
The diffusion of substances within a solution tends to move those substances ________ their ________ gradient.
down; concentration
An especially leaky type of capillary found in the liver and certain other tissues is called a _______
sinusoid capillary
Which type of molecule would be able to pass directly through the cell membrane without a problem?
Small, nonpolar
Net filtration pressure is the difference between blood colloidal osmotic pressure and ____________ hydrostatic pressure.
capillary
Which of the following statements is true?
A) In one day, more fluid exits the capillary through filtration than enters through reabsorption.
B) In one day, approximately 35 mm of blood are filtered and 7 mm are reabsorbed.
C) In one day, the capillaries of the lymphatic system absorb about 20.4 liters of fluid.
D) None of the above are true.
A) In one day, more fluid exits the capillary through filtration than enters through reabsorption.
The movement of fluid into and out of the capillary beds requires a transport mechanism called ________
bulk flow
Measuring the capillary hydrostatic pressure and blood colloidal osmotic pressure, you find that the difference is -8 mm Hg. You have determined that you are most likely measuring where?
Near the venous end of a capillary bed
What effect do lymphatic capillaries have on net filtration and reabsorption of fluid?
Lymphatic capillaries will reabsorb fluid from the tissue
The _______________ contains nuclei that together comprise the cardiovascular center, which controls the muscles of the cardiovascular system
medulla
Nuclei in the medulla comprise the cardiovascular center.
What stimulus causes the release of ANP, and from what organ?
the heart, in response to increased blood pressure
The atrial chambers of the heart release ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) in response to increased blood pressure.
To maintain homeostasis, the internal conditions of the body must revolve around a certain ________ within a normal range
set point
Which of the following arteries would be the most likely location for the pressure sensors (baroreceptors) in order to regulate blood supply to the entire brain?
Common carotid
What happens after hypothalamic cells release vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in response to decreased blood volume?
The kidneys reabsorb more water.
Vasopressin, or antidiuretic hormone, stimulates its target cells in the kidney to reabsorb more water.
How exactly does regular exercise reduce blood cholesterol levels?
Regular exercise removes low-density lipoproteins (LDL) from the bloodstream which lowers cholesterol levels.
Which of the following homeostatic mechanisms has NO effect on blood flow, blood pressure, and perfusion?
Autocrine mechanisms
With an increase in blood pressure, baroreceptors have all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) Decreasing the activity of cardiac accelerator centers
B) Decreasing the activity of the vasomotor center
C) Increasing the activity of cardiac inhibitor centers
D) Decreasing the activity of cardiac inhibitor centers
D) Decreasing the activity of cardiac inhibitor centers
In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism, ________
aldosterone prompts the kidneys to reabsorb sodium
Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium?
The left pulmonary vein; it is one of several pulmonary veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
Which of these blood vessels enters the cranium to supply the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood?
internal carotid artery
Exchange of gases and nutrients occurs in:
Capillaries
Which of the following arteries is part of the circle of Willis?
Posterior cerebral
On a whiteboard, you are tracing the flow of blood traveling through the major arteries. You start with the aorta as it arises from the heart and continues inferiorly. You label the arteries coming off the aorta left and right as it descends, then at last you split your aorta into two lines that run inferiorly toward the left and right legs. What labels do you give those two lines?
common iliac arteries
The aorta splits into the two common iliac arteries at the level of the 4th lumbar vertebra.
The right and left brachiocephalic veins ________
Drain blood from the right and left internal jugular veins, drain blood from the right and left subclavian veins, and drain into the superior vena cava
The hepatic portal system delivers blood from the digestive organs to the ________
liver
Which of the following is NOT an artery of the thoracic region?
A) Celiac a.
B) Mediastinal a.
C) Bronchial a.
D) Pericardial a.
A) Celiac a.
The endothelium is found in the ________
tunica intima
The earliest organ to form and begin function within the developing human is the ________
heart
Blood islands are ________
masses of developing blood vessels and formed elements scattered throughout the embryonic disc
True or false: One umbilical vein carries oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus.
True
The ductus venosus is a shunt that allows ________
most freshly oxygenated blood to bypass the fetal liver
Which of the following is the correct sequential development of vasculogenesis in the embryo?
A) angioblasts → hemangioblasts → blood islands → vascular tubes → ductus venosus
B) blood islands → angioblasts → hemangioblasts → vascular tubes → ductus venosus
C) hemangioblasts → angioblasts → blood islands → vascular tubes → ductus venosus
D) hemangioblasts → angioblasts → vascular tubes → blood islands → ductus venosus
C) hemangioblasts → angioblasts → blood islands → vascular tubes → ductus venosus
Hemangioblasts become angioblasts, which form blood island masses, which give rise to vascular tubes; from there, the ductus venosus develops and extends to the placenta.
Blood vessel formation in the embryo begins at day
17
