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Applied Human Anatomy and Physiology for Exercise and Wellness I (EXSC-1310-400) > Integumentary and Lymphatic Systems > Flashcards

Integumentary and Lymphatic Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Epithelial cells are polarized because

A) they have an apical and a basal edge.

B) they have cellular junctions.

C) are composed of molecules built entirely of polar covalent bonds.

D) their nuclei are not always centered

A

A) they have an apical and a basal edge.

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2
Q

You are a nurse providing a patient with an intradermal injection in their forearm. What is the correct order of strata the needle would pierce through as it enters the forearm?

A) Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum

B) Stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale

C) Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

D) Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

A

C) Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

The forearm does not have a stratum lucidum

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3
Q

Which cell type makes up the majority of the epidermis?

A) Adipocyte

B) Melanocyte

C) Keratinocyte

D) Basal cell

A

C) Keratinocyte

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4
Q

What is the main function of the dermal papillae?

A) Store energy within adipose tissue in papillae

B) Increase strength of connection between epidermis and dermis

C) Provide a site of attachment for the dermis to the hypodermis

D) Enhance the ability for sensation of vibration and pressure

A

B) Increase strength of connection between epidermis and dermis

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5
Q

Which of the following similarities between the epidermis and dermis is correct?

A) They both consist of epithelial tissue

B) They both consist of connective tissue

C) They both contain an abundance of blood vessels

D) They both contain nerve receptors for touch

A

D) They both contain nerve receptors for touch

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6
Q

All the following are functions of the hypodermis EXCEPT:

A) Connection to the epidermis

B) Insulation

C) Protection of underlying organs

D) Energy (fat) storage

A

A) Connection to the epidermis

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7
Q

What is the most common form of exocrine secretion that releases material through the exocytosis of vesicles?

A) aprocrine

B) holocrine

C) merocrine

D) serous

A

C) merocrine

An example would be the sweat glands.

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8
Q

The integumentary system is made of multiple layers of tissue and cells. Which of these is not part of the integumentary system?

A) skeletal muscle

B) blood vessels

C) autonomic and sensory nerve fibers

D) exocrine glands

A

A) skeletal muscle

This is part of the muscular system.

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9
Q

Which of these is not a role of the hypodermis and deep fascia?

A) fat storage

B) holding the nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and sebaceous glands of skin

C) insulation and cushioning

D) connecting skin to the fibrous tissue of the bones and muscles

A

B) holding the nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and sebaceous glands of skin

Holding the nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and sebaceous glands of skin is not carried out by the hypodermis but by the dermis.

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10
Q

The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of ________.

A) melanocytes

B) keratinocytes

C) connective tissue

D) adipose tissue

A

C) connective tissue

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11
Q

This type of secretion occurs when a cell explodes.

A) holocrine

B) apocrine

C) serous

D) merocrine

E) alveolar

A

A) holocrine

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12
Q

All the following are functions of hair EXCEPT:

A) Insulation

B) Energy storage

C) Sensory input

D) Protection

A

B) Energy storage

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13
Q

The function of sebum is to:

A) Be released as part of the human pheromone response

B) Lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair

C) Create a layer of oil over the skin allowing for increased insulation

D) Maintain homeostasis through thermoregulation

A

B) Lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair

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14
Q

Chemical hair dyes are able to stain the hair by creating holes in the tough, outermost layer of the hair known as the ________, allowing the dye to enter the hair and alter its color.

A) Cuticle

B) Glassy membrane

C) Medulla

D) Cortex

A

A) Cuticle

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15
Q

Similar to the hair, nails grow continuously throughout our lives. Which of the following is farthest from the nail growth center?

A) nail bed

B) hyponychium

C) nail root

D) eponychium

A

B) hyponychium

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16
Q

Which accessory structures of the skin is responsible for producing sweat?

A

Sudoriferous glands

These include eccrine and apocrine glands that produce sweat.

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17
Q

The basement membrane is

A) entirely cellular.

B) the basal membrane of epithelial cells.

C) what sticks epithelial tissue to connective tissue.

D) ectodermal in origin.

E) secreted entirely by epithelial cells.

A

C) what sticks epithelial tissue to connective tissue.

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18
Q

Which of these is NOT true regarding the structure of epithelial tissue?

A) Epithelial tissue has a large amount of extracellular material between cells.

B) Epithelial tissue is nearly completely avascular.

C) Epithelial tissue can replace itself quickly.

D) Epithelial tissue has apical and basal surfaces that are structurally different.

A

A) Epithelial tissue has a large amount of extracellular material between cells.

Epithelial tissue has very little extracellular matrix.

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19
Q

Which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat?

A) tendon

B) adipose tissue

C) reticular tissue

D) dense connective tissue

A

B) adipose tissue

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20
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the hypodermis?

A) protects underlying organs

B) helps maintain body temperature

C) storage of blood vessels

D) a site for long-term energy storage

A

C) storage of blood vessels

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21
Q

If you cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound, which of the following cells would help get rid of the bacteria?

A) Merkel cells

B) keratinocytes

C) Langerhans cells

D) melanocytes

A

C) Langerhans cells

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22
Q

What structure within the skin enables it to be sensitive to touch?

A) keratin and glycolipids in the stratum corneum

B) dilated arterioles in the dermis

C) colecalciferol

D) Meissner corpuscles

A

D) Meissner corpuscles

These are concentrated on the fingertips.

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23
Q

One of the functions of the integumentary system is protection. Which of the following does not directly contribute to that function?

A) stratum lucidum

B) desmosomes

C) folic acid synthesis

D) Merkel cells

A

C) folic acid synthesis

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24
Q

You decide to go for a run outside on a hot day and you notice your body temperature begin to rise. To cool you down, your body activates responses to bring your body temperature back to homeostasis. Which of the following options will NOT lead to body cooling?

A) Dilation of dermal blood vessels

B) Contraction of arrector pili muscles

C) Routing of blood circulation towards surface of skin

D) Activation of eccrine sweat glands

A

B) Contraction of arrector pili muscles

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25
Q

A lack of vitamin D in the body can lead to ________ in children.

A) Osteoporosis

B) Rickets

C) Jaundice

D) Albinism

A

B) Rickets

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26
Q

Which type of receptor is highly concentrated on fingertips and functions to respond to light touch?

A) Meissner corpuscle

B) Pacinian corpuscle

A

A) Meissner corpuscle

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27
Q

What do sebaceous glands secrete?

A) lipids that lubricate skin

B) sweat needed for heat regulation

C) organic compounds that, following bacterial decomposition, cause body odor

D) water, salt, waste, and an antimicrobial peptide

A

A) lipids that lubricate skin

This is called sebum.

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28
Q

A cell that keeps going through mitosis after the checkpoints fail can develop into a__________.

A) molecule

B) cancer cell

C) embolism

D) somatic cell

A

B) cancer cell

This is one possible fate if the tumor is malign.

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29
Q

Cancer cells can be characterized as “generic” cells that perform no specialized body function. Thus, cancer cells lack ________.

A) differentiation

B) reproduction

C) responsiveness

D) both reproduction and responsiveness

A

A) differentiation

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30
Q

Collagen lends ________ to the skin.

A) elasticity

B) structure

C) color

D) UV protection

A

B) structure

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31
Q

An individual has spent too much time sun bathing. Not only is his skin painful to touch, but small blisters have appeared in the affected area. This indicates that he has damaged which layers of his skin?

A) epidermis only

B) hypodermis only

C) epidermis and hypodermis

D) epidermis and dermis

A

D) epidermis and dermis

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32
Q

Which degree burn affects the epidermis, is the most painful, and heals within a few days?

A

First-degree burn

An example would be a sunburn.

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33
Q

In general, skin cancers ________.

A) are easily treatable and not a major health concern

B) occur due to poor hygiene

C) can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun

D) affect only the epidermis

A

C) can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun

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34
Q

Bedsores ________.

A) can be treated with topical moisturizers

B) can result from deep massages

C) are preventable by eliminating pressure points

D) are caused by dry skin

A

C) are preventable by eliminating pressure points

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35
Q

After a skin injury, the body initiates a wound-healing response. The first step of this response is the formation of a blood clot to stop bleeding. Which of the following would be the next response?

A) increased production of melanin by melanocytes

B) increased production of connective tissue

C) an increase in Pacinian corpuscles around the wound

D) an increased activity in the stratum lucidum

A

B) increased production of connective tissue

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36
Q

Squamous cell carcinomas are the second most common of the skin cancers and are capable of metastasizing if not treated. This cancer affects which cells?

A) basal cells of the stratum basale

B) melanocytes of the stratum basale

C) keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum

D) Langerhans cells of the stratum lucidum

A

C) keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum

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37
Q

The interconnecting network of capillaries that stem from an arteriole is called a(n)______.

A) arteriovenous anastomosis

B) capillary bed

C) thoroughfare channel

D) venule bundle

A

B) capillary bed

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38
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In one day, more fluid exits the capillary through filtration than enters through reabsorption.

B) In one day, approximately 35 mm of blood are filtered and 7 mm are reabsorbed.

C) In one day, the capillaries of the lymphatic system absorb about 20.4 liters of fluid.

D) None of the above are true.

A

A) In one day, more fluid exits the capillary through filtration than enters through reabsorption.

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39
Q

Which stem cell type will be dedicated to giving rise to lymphocytes?

A) Lymphoid stem cell

B) Totipotent stem cell

C) Myeloid stem cell

D) Hemocytoblast

A

A) Lymphoid stem cell

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40
Q

The leukocytes that migrate to the tissue to become resident macrophages are the ________.

A) lymphocytes

B) eosinophils

C) monocytes

D) neutrophils

E) basophils

A

C) monocytes

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41
Q

The leukocyte type that participates in cell-mediated and humoral immunities are the

A) Monocytes

B) Basophils

C) Lymphocytes

D) Neutrophils

A

C) Lymphocytes

42
Q

Which body system functions in transporting fats, redistributing excess intersitial fluid, and circulating immune cells?

A) lymphatic system

B) cardiovascular system

C) immune system

D) urinary system

A

A) lymphatic system

43
Q

You’re looking at a slice of a lymphatic organ under the microscope. You visualize red pulp, white pulp, and a germinal center. What lymphatic organ are you looking at?

A) adenoid

B) lymph node

C) spleen

D) tonsil

A

C) spleen

The spleen consists of white pulp, red pulp, germinal centers, and sinuses.

44
Q

Fluid in the interstitial environment is returned to the blood by way of

A) A majority by capillary reabsorption and smaller amount by movement into terminal lymphatics

B) A majority by movement into terminal lymphatics and smaller amount by capillary reabsorption

C) Venous return and lymphatic vessels

D) Capillary reabsorption

E) Movement into terminal lymphatics

A

A) A majority by capillary reabsorption and smaller amount by movement into terminal lymphatics

45
Q

The cell type that leaves the bone marrow to mature in the thymus is specifically called a(n)

A) NK cell

B) Thymocyte

C) T cell

D) B cell

E) Plasma cell

A

B) Thymocyte

46
Q

In secondary lymphoid organs, where do B cells rapidly divide and differentiate?

A) Lymphatic nodules

B) Diffuse lymphatic tissue

C) Lymphatic follicle

D) Germinal centers

A

D) Germinal centers

47
Q

When a mast cell reacts to an irritation, which of the following chemicals does it release?

A) collagen

B) histamine

C) hyaluronic acid

D) myelin

A

B) histamine

48
Q

If you cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound, which of the following cells would help get rid of the bacteria?

A) Merkel cells

B) keratinocytes

C) Langerhans cells

D) melanocytes

A

C) Langerhans cells

49
Q

Which of the following cells is important in the innate immune response?

A) B cells

B) T cells

C) macrophages

D) plasma cells

A

C) macrophages

50
Q

Which of the lymphoid nodules is most likely to see food antigens first?

A) tonsils

B) Peyer’s patches

C) bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue

D) mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

A

A) tonsils

51
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the barrier defenses?

A) Mouth

B) Stomach

C) Mucosal surface

D) Lungs

A

D) Lungs

52
Q

The gastrointestinal, respiratory, and reproductive tracts all have this specific type of barrier defense in common.

A) fungal

B) chemical

C) nonpathogenic bacteria

D) physical

A

C) nonpathogenic bacteria

Nonpathogenic flora in the mucosal tissues (GI, respiratory, and reproductive tracts) prevent pathogens from growing.

53
Q

When a macrophage from the innate immune system performs phagocytosis on a bacteria what is happening?

A) The macrophage engulfs and destroys the bacteria.

B) The macrophage produces proteins that clean the surface of the bacteria.

C) Phagocytosis initiates a fever.

D) Phagocytosis cannot be performed by a macrophage cell.

A

A) The macrophage engulfs and destroys the bacteria.

When a macrophage performs phagocytosis on a bacteria it engulfs and destroys the bacteria.

54
Q

Enhanced phagocytosis of a cell by the binding of a specific protein is called ________.

A) endocytosis

B) opsonization

C) anaphylaxis

D) complement activation

A

B) opsonization

55
Q

Which of the following leads to the redness of inflammation?

A) increased vascular permeability

B) anaphylactic shock

C) increased blood flow

D) complement activation

A

C) increased blood flow

56
Q

Why might a psychological stimulus driven by participating in exercise modify respiration?

A) There are no changes to respiration due to psychological stimuli associated with exercise.

B) Exercise requires increased oxygen and increased release of carbon dioxide, so the psychological stimulus prepares the body for that.

C) Exercise results in less carbon dioxide being released, and it is instead conserved, so respiration is decreased prior to exercise and this is in part due to the psychological stimulus.

D) The psychological stimulus decreases respiration to maintain oxygenation to the tissues.

A

B) Exercise requires increased oxygen and increased release of carbon dioxide, so the psychological stimulus prepares the body for that.

57
Q

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) T cells mature in the thymus.

B) Plasma cells develop from T cells.

C) All lymphocytes arise from red bone marrow.

D) B cells are involved in antibody-mediated immunity.

A

B) Plasma cells develop from T cells.

Plasma cells develop from B cells, not from T cells.

58
Q

Hormones produced by the thymus play a role in the ________.

A) development of T cells

B) preparation of the body for childbirth

C) regulation of appetite

D) release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach

A

A) development of T cells

59
Q

T and B lymphocytes ________.

A) are polymorphonuclear

B) are involved with specific immune function

C) proliferate excessively in leukopenia

D) are most active against parasitic worms

A

B) are involved with specific immune function

60
Q

Where are MHC class II molecules found?

A) only on erythrocytes

B) only on macrophages

C) on most body cells

D) only on specific immune system cells

A

D) only on specific immune system cells

MHC class II molecules are expressed only by antigen-presenting macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

61
Q

The T cells that stimulates B cells to differentiate into plasma cells are the ______________.

A) Tc. Cytotoxic T cells

B) Th1. Helper T1 cells

C) Th2. Helper T2 cells

D) Treg. Regulatory T cells

A

C) Th2. Helper T2 cells

Helper T2 (Th2) cells act to drive B cells to differentiate into plasma cells.

62
Q

Why is clonal expansion so important?

A) to select for specific cells

B) to secrete cytokines

C) to kill target cells

D) to increase the numbers of specific cells

A

D) to increase the numbers of specific cells

63
Q

Which type of T cell is most effective against viruses?

A) Helper T1 cells

B) Helper T2 cells

C) Cytotoxic T cells

D) Regulatory T cells

A

C) Cytotoxic T cells

64
Q

T cells that secrete cytokines that help antibody responses are called ________.

A) thymocytes

B) Th2

C) Th1

D) regulatory T cells

A

B) Th2 (Helper T2 Cells)

65
Q

Which of the following best describes an antigen?

A) small chemical groups attached to pathogens

B) large groups of proteins attached to pathogens

C) small groups of white blood cells

D) large groups of cells attached to red blood cells

A

A) small chemical groups attached to pathogens

66
Q

Cell clustering induced by antibody-antigen attachment is called______.

A) agglutination

B) coagulation

C) fibrinolysis

D) thrombosis

A

A) agglutination

Agglutination is the process of antibodies attaching to non-self erythrocytes and creating clumps of erythrocytes.

67
Q

Which of the following plasma proteins is not produced by the liver?

A) fibrinogen

B) alpha globulin

C) beta globulin

D) immunoglobulin

A

D) immunoglobulin

68
Q

Whether or not a B cell is allowed to leave the bone marrow alive depends mainly on _____________.

A) its ability to recognize self-antigens

B) the number of antibodies on its surface

C) its ability to respond to helper T cell activation

D) whether it has been exposed to antigen in the bone marrow

A

A) its ability to recognize self-antigens

B cells that recognize self-antigens in bone marrow are destroyed.

69
Q

The largest antibody, and usually the first antibody to be made in a primary response, is the ___________ antibody

A) IgA

B) IgD

C) IgG

D) IgM

A

D) IgM

With its ten antigen-binding sites, the IgM antibody is the largest, and is usually the first to be created in a primary response.

70
Q

When does class switching occur?

A) primary response

B) secondary response

C) tolerance

D) memory response

A

A) primary response

71
Q

The destruction of B cells that recognize self-antigens in bone marrow is called

A) Peripheral tolerance

B) Clonal anergy

C) Negative selection

D) Clonal deletion

E) Central tolerance

A

E) Central tolerance

72
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is used to prevent Rh-negative mothers from becoming sensitized to the Rh antigen of their newborn child. This is an example of

A) Active natural immunity

B) Active artificial immunity

C) Passive natural immunity

D) Passive artificial immunity

A

D) Passive artificial immunity

73
Q

What is deformation?

A) Deformation is the magnitude of the restoring force.

B) Deformation is the change in shape due to the application of force.

C) Deformation is the maximum force that can be applied on a spring.

D) Deformation is regaining the original shape upon the removal of an external force.

A

B) Deformation is the change in shape due to the application of force.

74
Q

Which of the following cells would be most active in early, antiviral immune responses the first time one is exposed to pathogen?

A) macrophage

B) T cell

C) neutrophil

D) natural killer cell

A

D) natural killer cell

75
Q

Which class of antibody is found in mucus?

A) IgM

B) IgA

C) IgE

D) IgD

A

B) IgA

76
Q

What is the primary function of the digestive system?

A) Protect the body against infection of pathogens in the consumed materials.

B) The primary function of the digestive system is to supply blood to the liver via the hepatic portal vein.

C) The primary function of the digestive system is to break down consumed food and absorb nutrients.

D) Produce hormones that help to regulate digestive glands and accessory organs.

A

C) The primary function of the digestive system is to break down consumed food and absorb nutrients.

77
Q

A child is rushed to the emergency department of a local hospital due to ingestion of a peanut, to which they have an allergy. Which immunoglobulin class is at work here?

A) IgE

B) IgD

C) IgM

D) IgG

A

A) IgE

78
Q

Seroconversion is best described as the point at which __________________.

A) The adaptive immune system begins its attack on the pathogen.

B) The innate immune system slows its attack on the pathogen.

C) The body is completely cleared of the pathogen.

D) The pathogen is cleared in the serum and the serum antibody rises simultaneously.

A

D) The pathogen is cleared in the serum and the serum antibody rises simultaneously.

79
Q

What immediate effect do IgA antibodies in the mucosal immune response system have on bacteria?

A) engulfing the pathogen entirely and destroying it

B) by antigen presentation with an MHC molecule

C) making holes in the cell wall of the pathogen so the pathogen cannot sustain itself

D) coating the pathogen entirely with antibodies so the pathogens can’t bind to receptors

A

D) coating the pathogen entirely with antibodies so the pathogens can’t bind to receptors

IgA antibodies in mucous secretions coat the pathogen entirely with antibodies so the pathogens can’t bind to receptors.

80
Q

What is the reason that you have to be immunized with a new influenza vaccine each year?

A) the vaccine is only protective for a year

B) mutation

C) macrophage oxidative metabolism

D) memory response

A

B) mutation

81
Q

Which enzymes in macrophages are important for clearing intracellular bacteria?

A) metabolic

B) mitochondrial

C) nuclear

D) lysosomal

A

D) lysosomal

82
Q

How are parasites such as worms typically eliminated from the human body?

A) Neutralization

B) Granulocyte activity

C) Natural killer cell activity

D) Macrophage oxidative metabolism

A

B) Granulocyte activity

Specifically eosinophils.

83
Q

Which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells?

A) endothelial

B) epithelial

C) hematopoietic

D) mesenchymal

A

C) hematopoietic

84
Q

When a mast cell reacts to an irritation, which of the following chemicals does it release?

A) collagen

B) histamine

C) hyaluronic acid

D) myelin

A

B) histamine

85
Q

Which type of immune response is most directly effective against bacteria?

A) natural killer cells

B) complement

C) cytotoxic T cells

D) helper T cells

A

B) complement

86
Q

To what does a self-antigen bind for self recognition?

A) MHC

B) The T-cell receptor

C) CD8

D) CD4

A

A) MHC

87
Q

Inherited immune deficiency diseases are best treated by __________.

A) antiviral drugs

B) blood transfusion

C) bone marrow transplant

D) vaccine

A

C) bone marrow transplant

A bone marrow transplant is the most successful treatment known for inherited immunodeficiency.

88
Q

What drug is used to counteract the effects of anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine

89
Q

What causes the delay in delayed hypersensitivity?

A) recruitment of immune cells

B) cytokine release

C) histamine release

D) inflammation

A

A) recruitment of immune cells

90
Q

Shellfish is known to cause a type of hypersensitivity reaction. Which type?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

A

A) Type I

91
Q

Which autoimmune disease targets nuclear DNA and proteins?

A) Hashimoto’s disease

B) Graves’ disease

C) Celiac disease

D) Lupus erythematosus

A

D) Lupus erythematosus

92
Q

Mr. Steinberg has type A+ blood. Therefore, he has what type of antigens in his blood?

A) A and Rh D antigens

B) B antigens only

C) A and B antigens

D) Rh D antigen only

A

A) A and Rh D antigens

Since he is type A, he must have the A antigens in his blood. The (+) indicates he also has the Rh D antigens.

93
Q

What maternal and fetal blood types would result in sensitization, then hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A) type O fetus and a type AB mother.

B) type AB fetus and a type O mother.

C) Rh+ fetus and a Rh- mother.

D) Rh- fetus and a Rh+ mother.

A

C) Rh+ fetus and a Rh- mother.

The first baby would cause sensitization. The second would be at risk of HDN.

94
Q

Where are MHC class II molecules found?

A) only on erythrocytes

B) only on macrophages

C) on most body cells

D) only on specific immune system cells

A

D) only on specific immune system cells

MHC class II molecules are expressed only by antigen-presenting macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

95
Q

Which class of antibody crosses the placenta in pregnant people?

A) IgM

B) IgA

C) IgE

D) IgG

A

D) IgG

96
Q

Which form of skin cancer is most likely to metastasize?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma

B) Basal cell carcinoma

C) Melanoma

D) Eczema

A

C) Melanoma

97
Q

Surgeons have taken a biopsy of Carolyn’s newly transplanted kidney. An abundance of which component in the immune system will indicate to the surgeons that the transplant may fail?

A) cytotoxic T cells

B) naïve B cells

C) NK cells

D) regulatory T cells

A

A) cytotoxic T cells

The presence of an excessive amount of cytotoxic T cells is an indication that a transplant is being rejected by the immune system

98
Q

There is a vaccine given to patients with hepatitis B virus. This is a vaccine that has been found to be effective in fighting a certain type of cancer. Which type of cancer would be a complication of a person infected with hepatitis B?

A) liver cancer

B) cervical cancer

C) kidney cancer

D) colon cancer

A

A) liver cancer

There is an effective vaccine for liver cancer as a complication of a hepatitis B virus.

99
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with HIV disease?

A) Kaposi’s sarcoma

B) melanoma

C) lymphoma

D) renal cell carcinoma

A

A) Kaposi’s sarcoma

100
Q

What disease is associated with bone marrow transplants?

A) diabetes mellitus type I

B) melanoma

C) headache

D) graft-versus-host disease

A

D) graft-versus-host disease

101
Q
A

Applied Human Anatomy and Physiology for Exercise and Wellness I (EXSC-1310-400) (5 decks)

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