test #44 5.4 Flashcards

1
Q

kidney is entirely derived from..

A

metanephros

metanephric diverticulum (ureteric bud – collecting duct system)

metanephric mesenchyme (glomeruli & tubules)

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2
Q

when does the metanephros develop

A

5-6th week of gestation

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3
Q

most common cause of unilateral fetal (antenatal) hydronephrosis

A

ureteric bud = initially solid cord, then canalizes (done by 10th wk)

metanephros can produce urine before ureteric bud canalizes –> hydronephrosis

last segment to canalize: ureteropelvic junction (between kidney and ureter)

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4
Q

cause of antenatal hydronephrosis obstruction

A

most common:
-ureteropelvic junction (last to recanalize)

other:

  • vesicoureteral junction
  • posterior urethral valve (membrane in posterior urethra)
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5
Q

when is a fetus able to make urine

A

8-10th wk

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6
Q

pilocytic astrocytoma on imaging

A

usu in cerebellum, but can’t be in cerebral hemisphere

cystic component w/ a tumor nodule.

nodule: active part of tumor

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7
Q

most common malignant brain tumor in children

A

medulloblastoma

exclusively cerebellum

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8
Q

histology of medulloblastoma

A

small, blue cells. hyperchromatic nuclei, scant cytoplasm

can see homer-right rosettes

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9
Q

histology of ependymoma

A

perivascular rosettes w/ rod-shaped blepharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies) near nucleus

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10
Q

odds ratio vs relative risk

A

odds ratio: ad/bc

relative risk: [a/(a+b) / c/(c+d) ]

given chart:
a b
c d

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11
Q

expressing support in interview

A

express concern independent of understanding.

express concern & interest for patient by acknowledging what the patient says. does NOT claim to know how the patient feels

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12
Q

facilitation in interview

A

interviewer encourages patient to talk more about experience. asking “and then what happened”

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13
Q

empathy in interview

A

expression of understanding of experience.

try to “walk in the shoes” to vicariously experience feelings, thoughts, actions.

differs from support, bc tries to project into the experience.

“i can imagine how that experience affected your perspective on life”

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14
Q

reflection in interview

A

when physicial repeats what patient tells him, i.e. by summarizing

“so, you’re telling me you were molested as a kid”

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15
Q

confrontation in interview

A

interviewer draws attention to discrepancy in response

“although you say you were disturbed, you sound unaffected as you describe it”

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16
Q

mitral valve problems in rheumatic fever

A

early: mitral valve regurgitation
late: mitral valve stenosis

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17
Q

death with rheumatic fever

A

early: myocarditis
late: valvular heart disease –> valvular issues!

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18
Q

diffuse fibrous thickening & distortion of mitral valve leaflets.

commissural fusion at leaflet edges

stenotic orifice w/ diastolic murmur

all suggest

A

rheumatic fever mitral valvular disease

mitral stenosis –> atrial dilation –> atrial mural thrombus –> stroke

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19
Q

most common cardiac manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis

A

fibrinous pericarditis

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20
Q

almost all causes of mitral valve STENOSIS are caused by…

A

chronic rheumatic heart disease

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21
Q

infective endocarditis of mitral valve tends to be..

A

destructive and regurgitant

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22
Q

mitral valvular calcinosis

A

usually does not impair valve function

usu in women > 60w/o w/ myxomatous floppy mitral valve or elevated left ventricular pressure

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23
Q

ASD on ausculation

A

wide fixed S2 splitting.

does not change w/ respiration

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24
Q

split S1?

A

suggests delayed closure of tricuspid valve, due to right bundle branch block

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25
mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo
aortic stenosis
26
early diastolic decrescendo murmur
aortic regurgitation
27
late systolic crescendo murmur w/ mid-systolic click
mitral valve prolapse click: sudden tensing of chordae tendinae most frequent valvular lesion
28
holosystolic high pitched blowing murmur
mitral regurgitation
29
holosystolic harsh murmur, loudest in tricuspid area, accentuated w/
VSD
30
presystolic accentuation
intensity of diastolic murmur before louder just before S1 or when diastolic murmur appears just prior to S1 can result from mitral/tricuspid valve stenosis OR physiological increased flow through valves
31
systolic ejection murmur accentuated by standing
decrease preload hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
32
early diastolic decrescendo murmur decreased by amyl nitrate
vasodilate --> decrease afterload aortic regurgitation
33
late diastolic murmur eliminated by atrial fibrillation
mitral and/or tricuspid stenosis | related to atrial contraction
34
drug induced lupus
ANA, anti-histone antibody = specific Q CHIMPPS ``` quinidine chlorpromazine hydralazine isoniazid methyl-dopa procainimide phenytoin sulfa drugs ``` also etanercept & minocycline high risk: hydralazine & procainamide
35
immediate side effects of adenosine
chest burning, flushing transient hypotension but has very short half life vasodilator in chemical cardiac stress tests & stops acute supraventricular tachycardias
36
where are ureas nitrogen dervived from
1. NH3 | 2. aspartate (sweet pee)
37
biochemical pathways involving aspartate (3)
-urea cycle (contributes one N) -pyrimidine synthesis combines w/ carbamoyl phosphate to make orotic acid (temporary base)
38
orotic acid + PRPP makes
UMP this path is blocked in orotic acidura
39
leflunomide
blocks combination of carbamoyl phosphate + aspartate --> orotic acid
40
urea cycle
ordinarily, careless crappers are also frivulous about uriantion ornithine + carbamoyl phosphate --> citrulline + aspartate --> arginninosuscinate --> fumarate (released) + arginine --> urea + ornithine
41
rate limiting step in urea cycle
carbamoyl phosphate synthase I remember: I pee
42
what forms asparagine. relevance?
non essential amino acid. produced from oxaloacetate in transamination reaction. oxaloacetate -> aspartate using glutamate amino group aspartate -> asparagine using glutamine amino group via asparagine synthase only comes up as site of N-linked modification in golgi
43
alanine formed by
transfer of an amino group onto pyruvate
44
parasympathetic agents on blood vessels
do not have cholinergic innervation, but do have muscarinic receptors on ENDOTHELIAL surface 1. promote release of NO (endothelium-derivived relaxing factor), 2. activates guanylate cyclase, 3. increase cGMP 4. activates Ca2+ pump & 5. causes Ca2+ efflux. decrease in Ca2+ in vascular smooth wall --> RELAXATION
45
muscarinics on GI system
increase tone of smooth muscle in viscera; increase motility & secretion, opens sphincters
46
tibial n. sensation & motor
can't TIP toe w/ damage inversion & plantar flex & toe flex plantar region of foot
47
common peroneal n. sensation & innervation
foot dropPED w/ damage eversion & dorsiflex dorsum of foot
48
cutaneous medial leg?
cutaneous branch of saphenous n (branch of femoral)
49
accentuated second heart sound over upper left sternal border suggests..
pulmonary HTN
50
common cardiac features that can be seen in CREST
pulmonary HTN --> leading to cor pulmonale (right heart failure)
51
pathogenesis of CREST and systemic sclerosis
increased proliferation & accumulation of monoclonal T cells in affected tissue secrete cytokine, esp TGF-b, increase production of collagen & ECM by fibroblasts any tissue affected SMALL ARTERIOLES & capillaries FIRST
52
presentation of lichen planus
6 P's pruitic, purple, polygonal, planar, papules & plaques. mucosal involvement Wickham striae: reticular white lines sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at dermal-epidermal junction associated w/ hep C
53
most common cause of death in scleroderma
pulmonary! interstitial fibrosis or pulmonary HTN --> COR PULMONALE
54
neisseria meningitidis vaccine
capsular polysaccharide vaccine
55
meningitis in young college student w/ purpuric rash
neiseria meningitidis
56
virulence factors in neisseria meningitidis
1. polysacharide capsule 2. IgA protease 3. LPS endotoxin 4. pili (attach on respiratory mucosa) 5.
57
heat-killed bacteria vaccine
bordetella pertusis, vibrio cholera, yersenia pestis vaccine
58
borrelia burgdorferi vaccine
recombinant bacterial outer surface protein
59
corynebacterium diptherium & clostridium tetani vaccine
inactivated toxin (toxoid)
60
BCG vaccine
TB: live attenuated organisms of a different mycobacterium species
61
salmonella typhi & francisella tularensis vaccine
live attenuated
62
protein A
staph aureus
63
IgA protease
SHiN strep pneumo haemphilus influenza neisseria meningitidis
64
where is proinsulin cleaved to insulin + c-peptide?
endoplasmic reticulum of beta-pancreatic cells
65
what is a good marker of total rate of B-cell endogenous insulin secretion
C-peptide unlike insulin: C-peptide is not significantly extracted on first pass through the liver!
66
what drug stimulates insulin release from pancreas
sulfonyureas | also GLP-analogues
67
GLUT-2 transporter
liver and pancreas
68
how do GLP-1 analogs increase insulin secretion
increase cAMP, which increases insulin secretion
69
99mTc-pertechnetate detects..
gastric mucosa
70
diagnosis of meckel diverticulum
pertechnetate radionucleotide study accumulates in gastric mucosa &zenker diverticulum often forms gastric / pancreatic tissue
71
how does meckel diverticulum form
failure of complete obliteration of omphalomesenteric duct / vitelline duct
72
most common manifestation of meckel diverticulum?
lower GI bleed & RLQ pain (due to acid secretion by ectopic gastric mucosa) could also cause intusseception -- colicky abdominal pain, currant jelly stool
73
inflammed meckel diverticulum difficult to differentiate from..
acute appendicitis
74
failure of proper descent of hindgut
different degrees of anal agenesis or imperforate anus
75
abnormal midgut rotation around SMA can lead too..
fibrous adhesive bands that can lead to intestinal obstruction
76
genetics of tuner's
genetically heterogeneous in cases of monosomy 45 XO: loss of parental X chromosome during mitosis (after fertilization - 50% complete monosomy (45, XO) - 30% mosaicism (46 XX / 45 XO) - remainder have structural abnormalities of X (such that X fragments or isochromosomes) or partial monosomy deletions of X.
77
weight loss despite normal to increased food intake, polyuria, polydypsia, and fatigue in young adult
type 1 DM
78
diagnosis of type 1 DM
fasting blood sugar > 126 mg/dL on 2 occasions | only need 1 if symptomatic
79
when is oral glucose tolerance test used?
usually reserve for pregnant women for gestational diabetes. rarely used. fasting glucose is key.
80
helicotrema
far part of cochlea w/o basilar membrane, allows for communication of scala vestibuli (top) and scala tympani (bottom)
81
high frequency sounds on which part of basilar membrane? low frequency?
high frequency: stiff part (base) closer to oval/round window low frequency: floppy part (apex) near helicotrema
82
what's in the inner ear
fluid filled site encased in bone that houses cochlea, semicircular canals & vestibule
83
fluid in scala vestibuli, scala media, scala tympani
VMT vestibuli & tympani have perilymph (high Na+ like extracellular fluid) media (high K+ like intracellular)
84
what separates scala media from scala tympani
basilar membrane
85
what is housed in scala media
tectorial membrane & organ of corti
86
sources of alkaline phosphate. how can it be differentiated (3)?
bone also: placenta, liver, intestine can differentiate between liver & bone via.. 1. electrophoresis & 2. specific monoclonal antibodies 3. denaturation (bone denatures easy: bone=boil)
87
tartare resistant acid phosphatase
specific to osteoclasts, but not commonly measured bc not stable protein
88
calcitonin
inhibit osteoclasts doesn't affect osteoblasts much.
89
urinary deoxypyridinoline and hydroxyproline
measures of osteoclast activity breakdown of collagen material note: hydroxyproline not good measure, common in meat products.
90
most reliable measure of osteoclast activity
urinary deoxypyridinoline
91
side effects of thiazides
``` HYPER GLUC increase in.. 1. glucose 2. lipids & cholesterol 3. uric acid: gouty arthritis 4. calcium: useful rx for calcium nephrolithiasis ``` HYPO: decrease in 1. potassium 2. BP : decreased blood volume and peripheral vascular resistance
92
which diuretic is helpful rx for renal nephrolithiasis
thiazides, reabsorb calcium, less in tubules
93
which drugs increase HDL
niacin and fibrates (via ppar-a)
94
high HbA2 suggests
thalasemia trait a2d2 globin (due to decrease production of a2b2 = HbA1)
95
Hb types in sickle cell
HbS high HbA1 low no affect on HbA2
96
most common pediatric malignancy
acute lymphoblastic leukemia
97
distinguishing between pre-B and pre-T cell ALL clinically?
T-ALL present w/ mediastinal mass can compress.. - great vessels: SVC syndrome - esophagus: dysphagia - trachea: stridor, dyspnea ``` bcell = 80% of cases tcell = 15% ``` B cell: fever, malaise, bleeding, bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly
98
black pigment stones
calcium billirubinate increased unconjugated bilirubin associated w/ chronic extravascular hemolysis small, spiculated, crumbly. radioopaque-- appear on X-ray
99
glucagon's major effect
liver: increased production of glucose pancreas: insulin secretion unlike epinephrine, insignificant affects on skeletal muscle & adipocytes
100
epinephrine glucose related effects?
1. liver: increased glycogenolysis / gluconeogenesis 2. skeletal muscle: decrease glucose uptake & increase alanine release (for liver gluconeogenesis) 3. adipose tissue: increased breakdown of triglycerides, increasing free fatty acids & glycerol in circulation
101
kidney's role in hypoglycemia
first 24 hrs of fasting: liver makes glucose sustained hypoglycemia: gluconeogenesis in kidney can kick in
102
major risk of clozapine
agranulocytosis, look at complete blood count also seizures
103
clozapine receptor target
D4 unlikely to cause dopaminergic side effects of pseudoparkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia, hyperprolactinemia (unlike other antipsychotics: D2)
104
ziprasidone side effect
long QT
105
leading cause of end stage renal disease in US
diabetic nephropathy
106
earliest detection of diabetic nephropathy?
microalbuminemia 30-300mg/day in 24hr collection 30-300microgram/mg of creatinine in spot collection
107
patient w/ dry cough & swollen face & dilated vessels?
superior vena cava syndrome, consider mediastinal mass
108
SVC syndrome
- facial edema / plethora - venous distension distal to obstruction due to mass compressing SVC like lung tumor impaired venuos return from upper body
109
where does SVC form
union of right & left brachiocephalic veins behind 1st costal cartilage
110
most common causes of SVC syndrome
(1) lung mass | 2) non-hodgkin's lymphoma (of perihilar, paratracheal lymph nodes
111
what hormones does small cell lung cancer secrete
ACTH and ADH
112
what hormone does squamous cell carcinoma in lung secrete
PTHrP
113
superior sulcus tumor
i.e. pancost tumor at lung apex: cause shoulder pain due to compression of bachial plexus & superior cervical ganglion = horner's can sometimes cause SVC, but less common than mediastinal mass
114
inactivation of hep A
water chlorination, bleach (1:100), formalin, UV irradiation, boiling to 85 C for 1 min will not die w/ frying, 20%diethy ether (bc naked), acid (recall - survives in stomach)
115
autoclaving
120 degrees for 20 min
116
boiling in celcius
100
117
cholesterol med w/ unbearable pruritus & flushing
niacin
118
mechanism of niacin
decrease synthesis of hepatic TG and VLDL (due to its suppression of free fatty acid release from peripheral tissue) also increases HDL
119
how do bile acid resins reduce cholesterol
cholesterol is used in synthesis of bile acids cholesterol 7a-hydroxylase
120
side effects of bile acid resins
GI upset | increased TG!
121
ezetimibe mechanism
reduces reabsorption of cholesterol and bile acids too
122
what is effective against chlamydia
doxycycline | macrolides
123
risperidone side effect
hyperprolactinemnia (due to dopamine antagonist effect): prolactin inhibits release of GnRH from hypothalamus can lead to amenorrhea, galactorrhea, breast soreness
124
anytime see amenorrhea
must rule out pregnancy (b-hCG)
125
"lake-like" cavitary brain lesion
lacunar stroke! HTN arteriolar sclerosis
126
brain injury that does not show up in acute CT, but later does as cystic space in basal ganglia / deep white matter
think lacunar stroke, occlusion of distal penetrating arteriole most commonly: due to hypertensive changes in arterioles (lipohyalinosis and microatheromas)
127
cause of lacunar infarcts
often chronic HTN --> lipohyalinosis, microatheroma --> ARTERIOLAR SCLEROSIS diabetes & smoking also risk factors will not present in acute CT, bc small, later show up as lake-like lesion
128
pure motor hemiparesis
infarct to posterior limb of internal capsule
129
pure sensory stroke
infarct to VPL or VPM of thalamus
130
ataxia-hemiplegia syndrome
infarct to base of pons
131
dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome
infarct to base of pons or genu of internal capsule
132
types of infarcts caused by cardiac thrombosis & carotid atherosclerosis
usu strokes often involve large territories, due to involvement of large / medium sized vessels CAN cause lacunar strokes if no other pathological cause can be identified, but these are most often by arteriolar sclerosis due to HTN
133
hypoxic encephalopathy defined as
abrupt cessation to CBF, as from cardiac arrest or shock. more global pyramidal cells of hippocampus & purkinjee cells & watershed most often affected
134
hypertensive encephalopathy
leads to cerebral edema due to breakthrough hyperperfusion that is not compensated for by cerebral autoregulation. headache, nausea and vomiting, other non-localizing neuro symptoms
135
sequelae of cerebral amyloid angiopathy
results in hemorrhage within cortex & subcortical white matter. not usu ischemic stroke
136
Charcot-Bouchard aneursyms
microaneursyms < 1mm in diameter. occur in small penetrating arterioles that perfuse basal ganglia, pons, subcortical white matter due to long standing HTN and prone to rupture --> hemmorhagic stroke w/ intraparenchyma hyperdensity
137
what goes into calculating reid index
thickness of gland / thickness of wall between epithelium & cartilage NOT including cartilage
138
severity of bronchitis depends on.
extent to which the luminal diameter of bronchi / bronchioles is decreased = reid index major contributor to increase : thickness of mucous gland layer
139
normal reid index
40% in chronic bronchitis > 50%
140
what rxn does sphingomyelinase normally do
absent in nieman pick sphingomyelin -> ceramide & phosphorylcholine
141
enzyme deficiency in metachromatic leukodystrophy & accumulated substance
arylsulfatase A accumulate: sulfatides
142
enzyme deficiency in tay sachs & accumulated substance
hexosaminidase A accumulate GM2 ganglioside
143
Fabry disease enzyme deficiency & accumulated substances
X-linked recessive alpha-galactosidase A accumulate ceramide trihexoside
144
Farber disease
ceramidase deficiency autosomal recessive ceramide accumulation in neurons & within skin granulomas
145
IV anesthetics (5)
barbituates, benzodiazepines, arylcyclohexylamines (ketamine), opiods, propofol
146
pharmacokinetics of thiopental (bartibituate)
high potency, high lipid solubility (brain fast), but rapidly redistributed to tissue --> skeletal muscle & fat induction decreases CBF antidote: charcoal / bicarb IV
147
benzodiazepine for anesthetic
IV midazolam, for endoscopy can combine w/ gas & narcotics. associated w/ anterograde amnesia and respiratory depression antidote: flumazenil IV
148
arylcyclohexylamine (ketamine) for anesthetic
PCP analogue, dissociated anesthetic. NMDA receptor antagonist. cardiovascular stimulant, causes disorientation, hallucination, and bad dreams, increases CBF IV
149
opiods for anesthetic
morphine, fentanyl. used w/ other CNS depressants during anesthesia IV
150
propofol for anesthesia
IV sedation in ICU rapid induction, short procedure less postop nausea than thiopental potentiates GABAa
151
local anesthetic classes
esters: cocaine, procaine, tetracaine amides: lidocaine, bupivacaine, mepivacaine
152
mechanism of action for local anesthetics (esters & amides)
enter cell, bind to voltage gated Na+ channels, prevent AP. [like class I antiarrhythmics] enter cell uncharged, bind charged often given w/ vasconstrictors to increase local concentration note: if acidic tissue, need increased dose, bc charged species cannot enter cell to work.
153
order of nerve blockade w/ local anesthetics
size is most important 1. small myelinated 2. small unmeylinated 3. large myelinated 4. large unmyelinated
154
order of loss of sensation w/ local anesthetic
1. pain 2. temperature 3. touch 4. pressure
155
succinylcholine mechanism of action
nAch strong agonist (insensitive to AchE) depolarizing muscle relaxant phase 1: sustained depolarization & inactivation. - POTENTIATED w/ AchE inhibitors phase 2: desensitized to succinylcholine, but continued block of nAchR (nondepolarizing phase) - ANTIDOTE w/ AchE inhibitors side effects: hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, malignant hyperthermia
156
important side effects of succinylcholine
increased: - potassium - calcium malignant hyperthermia
157
nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
nAch antagonists nondepolarizing muscle relaxants tubocurarine, atracurium, mivacurium, pancurionium, vecuronium, reversal: AchE inhibitors (+ atropine, to prevent muscarinic effects)
158
AchE inhibitor during phase I of succinylcholine? phase II?
phase I: depolarizing / inactivating. potentiate phase II: nondepolarizing block: antidote
159
AchE inhibitor w/ nondepolarizing muscle relaxant (tubocurarine, etc)
antidote! give atrophine to block muscarcinic effects
160
dantrolene
prevent release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum used as rx: for malignant hyperthermia & neuroleptic malignant syndrome
161
time frame of succinylcholine vs. nondepolarizing NMJ blockers
succinylcholine more rapid (60 seconds)
162
train-of-four stimulation response
used during anesthesia to assess degree of muscle relaxation stimulate presynaptic neuron & increase Ach in cleft. like an AchE inhibitor
163
train-of-four response to phase I succinylcholine
no response initially then quickly will gave gradually increased equivalent response in subsequent sets of stimulations (bc normally quickly metabolized by plasma cholinesterases)
164
train-of-four response to phase II succinylcholine
mirrors nondepolarizing NMJ blockers nAchR insensitive to depolarization by succinylcholine, but will still block the receptor. fading pattern w/ progressive reduction in each of the 4 responses fading, bc of blockade of presynaptic nAchR preventing preparation of vesicle fusion.
165
train-of-four response to nondepolarizing NMJ blockers
nAchR antagonists fading pattern w/ progressive reduction in each of the 4 responses. occurs bc nAchR antagonists prevent presynaptic neuron from preparing additional vesicles for release mirror phase II succinylcholine
166
duration of action of succinylcholine? variation?
determined by 1. diffusion out of NMJ & 2. metabolism by plasma cholinesterase (insensitive to AChE) usu < 10min but! 1/3000 pt homozygous for atypical plasma cholinesterase, which breaks succinylcholine SLOWLY over 1-3 hrs. neostigmine early: potentiate neostigmine late: antidote
167
explain normal train-of-four response
stimulate presynaptic neuron & measure depolarization in muscle in sequential twitches, presynaptic nAchR play an important role in preparing additional vessicles for release *impt when using NMJ blockers that are depolarizing agonists / nondepolarizing antagonists
168
train-of-four response to succinylcholine in phase I
sustained and equal reduction of all 4 twitches can overcome w/ additional train-of-four bc drug is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
169
succinylcholine transition from phase I to phase II
occurs w/ continued infusion 1. depolarized & inactivated 2. eventually desensitize to succinylcholine; acts as a nondepolarizing nAchR blocker will also block / inactivate presynaptic nAchR needed to prepare vesicles for fusion in phase II normally succinylcholine rapidly degraded via plasma cholinesterase: phase I then gone.
170
how many Ach molecules must bind to nAchR?
2 molecules!
171
whenever have a drug that is dependent on -esterase, worry about? (i.e. drugs metabolized by AchE)
slow and fast metabolizers!
172
atracurium special considerations
1. safe w/ renal & hepatic impairment 2. spontaneous breakdown to: laudonisine, which can cause SEIZURES 3. activates histamine -> BP fall, flushing, bronchoconstriction
173
mivacurium special considerations
1. very short acting | 2. metabolized by AchE (therefore: consider slow / fast metabolizers)
174
special considerations with NMJ blockers
paralytics! patient can still sense things! must give anesthetic & analgesics too.
175
impt feature of nAchR
desensitizes quickly! generally, too much Ach --> depolarization --> cholinergic crisis, which can happen w/ overmedicating for myasthenia gravis.
176
why does succinylcholine trigger malignant hyperthermia?
initially depolarizes muscle, lots of Ca2+ release and ATP generation
177
dilated esophagus, microbial cause? congenital?
microbial: esp from central / south america: trypanosomi cruzi congenital: achalasia
178
neurotoxin in trypanosoma cruzi?
destroys myenteric plexus in esogagus. similar in colon & ureter --> megaesophagus, megaureter, megacolon (also dilated cardiomyopathy)
179
babesia divergens infxn
endemic in northeast US. transmitted by ticks malaria-like illness w/ predilection for asplenic patients fever & hemolytic anemia see blood smear w/ maltese cross or ring rx: atovaquone & azithromycin
180
brucella melitensis
drinking infected milk / contact w/ infected sheep & goats fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly "undulating fever"
181
camplyobacter fetus / intestinalis
opportunistic pathogen infects immunocompromised septicemia in newborns, women in 3rd trimester of pregnancy, debilitated elderly
182
intial steps of ketogenesis
start from: leucine / lysine or acetyl-CoA --> HMG CoA via HMG CoA synthase HMG CoA --> acetoacetate via HMG CoA lyase acetoacetate --> B-hydroxybutyrate via NADH -> NAD+
183
where does ketogenesis occur
mitochondria of hepatocytes
184
metabolism of ketones
in mitochondria of: skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, renal cortex, brain. (not RBC) b-hydroxybutyrate -> acetoacetate acetoacetate --> acetoacetate CoA via thiophorase (convert succinyl CoA --> succinate) acetoacetate --> 2 acetyl CoA
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what is the major stimulus for ketogenesis
increase in acetyl-CoA due to.. depletion of oxaloacetate. 1. starving: oxaloacetate used in gluconeogenesis 2. alcoholic: NAD+ depletion converts oxaloacetate -> malate (to generate more NAD+)
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which 2 cells cannot use ketones
1. RBC; no mitochondria 2. hepatocytes (liver): no thiophorase / succinyl-CoA-acetoacetate CoA transferase can't convert acetoacetate --> acetoacetyl CoA
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2 mechanisms for removal of cholesterol
1. excretion of free cholesterol in bile | 2. conversion to bile salts (cholesterol 7-a-hydroxylase)
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bile acid synthesis steps
cholesterol -> cholic & chenodeoxycholic acid via: cholesterol 7-a-hydroxylase (rate limiting step) conjugated w/ taurine / glycine --> bile salt
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what solubilizes cholesterol in bile?
bile salt & phosphatidylcholine
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abnormal keratinization of mucus-secreting columnar epithlelium suggests
vitamin A deficiency epithelial cell metaplasia can occur w/ cystic fibrosis fat-soluble vitamin deficiency & damage to glands w/ inspissated mucous
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most likely outcome of hepatitis B infection
acute hepatitis w/ complete resolution
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possible outcomes w/ hepatitis B infection
most common: 1. acute hepatitis w/ complete resolution >95% 2. chronic hepatitis w/ or w/o cirrhosis & increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (4-5% chronic hepatitis; of those 20-50% develop cirrhosis; those 10% get HCC) 3. fulminant hepatitis w/ massive liver necrosis (<1%)
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fate of patients w/ chronic hepatitis B infection
only occurs w/ 4-5% of hep B infxn 20-50% develop cirhhosis 10% HCC (hep B--> usu acute hepatitis w/ complete resolution)
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ras
proto-oncogene cancer of bladder, lung, colon, pancreas, kidney
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n-myc
proto-oncogene neuroblastoma small cell lung cancer
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erb-b1
proto-oncogene squamous cell carcinoma of lung
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TGF-a
proto-oncogene astrocytoma, hepatocellular carcinoma
198
sis
proto-oncogene astrocytoma, osteosarcoma
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abl
proto-oncogene CML ALL
200
BRCA-1, BRCA-2
tumor suppressor DNA repair gene breast & ovarian cancer
201
NF-1
tumor supressor neuroblastoma neurofibromatosis 1 sarcoma
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APC/B-catenin
tumor supressor gastric colonic pancreatic cancer FAP
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DCC
tumor supressor colon cancer
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P53
tumor supressor majority of cancer Li-fraumeni
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Rb
tumor supressor retinoblastoma osteosarcoma G1-S
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WT-1
tumor supressor | wilms tumor pediatric kidney, primitive glomeruli
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etiology of ARDs
widespread injury to pulmonary microvasculature endothelium and/or alveolar epithelium --> causes alveolocapillary membrane to be leaky
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where do atherosclerotic plaques normally form
in large elastic arteries (aorta, carotid artery, iliac artery) & larger medium caliber muscular artery (coronary, popliteal) usu not pulmonary artery
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hyperosmotic volume contraction cause (2)
1. diabetes insipidus | 2. profuse sweating
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GI hemorrhage alters what fluid volume
isotonic fluid loss from ECV only | bc loose both fluid & osmoles, no pull on fluid from intracellular component
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most common cause of death in diabetic?
coronary heart disease! MI (40%) (even though have ESRD, still die from coronary heart disease) stroke also happen, but only 10%
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HIGHEST risk factors for coronary heart disease
1. noncoronary atherosclerotic disease 2. diabetes mellitus 3. chronic kidney disease these basically = coronary heart disease equivalents also: HTN, hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, advanced age, obesity, physical inactivity
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leading causes of ESRD
1. diabetes | 2. HTN
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lung: nodular apical densities w/ calcified nodes filled w/ birefringent particles surrounded by fibrous tissue
silicosis
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silicosis is defined by
upper lobe nodular densities on x-ray 1. eggshell calcifications of hilar nodes 2. birefringent silica particles surrounded by fibrous tissue
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x-ray of asbestosis
interstitial pattern, more prominent in lower lobes. calcified pleural plaques histology: ferruginous bodies, best w/ prussian blue stain
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berylliosis x-ray & histology
ill-defined nodular or irregular opacity on x-ray hilar adenopathy 40% histology: noncaseating granulomas like sarcoidosis
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inhalation of organic dust on x-ray, histology
hypersensitivity pneumonitis diffuse nodular interstitial infiltrates histology: noncaseating granuloma (foreign body response)
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which 3 lung diseases can have noncaseating granulomas
1. sarcoidosis 2. hypersensitivity pneumonitis w/ organic dust inhalation 3. berylliosis
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coal worker pneumoconiosis
x-ray: interstitial opacity nodal / perilymphatic lung tissue coal dust-laden macrophages
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most common cause of SCD
death within 1 hr of cardiac symptom usu cardiac arrhythmia --> ventricular fibrillation
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Caplan syndrome
rheumatoid arthritis & pneumoconioses w/ intrapulmonary nodules