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UWorld mixed > test #33 4.22 > Flashcards

test #33 4.22 Flashcards

1
Q

antiarrhythmic prolonging QT & bradycardia (prolonged PR)

A

sotalol

beta-blocker w/ class III antiarrhythmic properties

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2
Q

how do beta blockers work?

A

(1) slow AV nodal conduction

(2) prolonging phase 4 depolarization

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3
Q

triglyceride breakdown. fate of fatty acid & glycerol?

A

triglyceride –> fatty acid & glycerol (via lipases)

FATTY ACID –> fatty acyl-coA
via fatty acid CoA synthetase

carnitine carries fatty acyl-CoA into mitochondria

fatty acyl-CoA –> beta oxidation

GLYCEROL (IN LIVER)
glycerol –> glycerol 3-phosphate
(via glycerol kinase)

glycerol 3-phosphate -> DHAP

DHAP can go into (1) energy via glycolysis or (2) glucose via gluconeogenesis

glycerol also can be used for triglyceride synthesis in any tissue

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4
Q

liver-specific enzyme for energy generation & glucose synthesis

A 
glycerol kinase
(converts glycerol into glycerol 3 phoshpate)

glycerol 3-phosphate -> DHAP -> either glycolysis or gluconeogenesis

ONLY in liver.

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5
Q

acetyl-CoA carboxylase

A

first committed step in fatty acid SYNTHESIS!

acetyl-CoA –> malonyl-CoA
(acetyl-CoA carboxylase)

eventually make palmitate

occurs in cytoplasm

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6
Q

where does fatty acid oxidation occur? synthesis?

A

oxidation in mitochondria

synthesis in cytoplasm

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7
Q

fatty acid synthesis movement from mitochondria to cytosol?

A

oxaloacetate + acetylCoA –> citrate

citrate shuttled out

converted into oxaloacetate + acetylCoA again (via ATP citrate lyase)

acetyl-CoA –> malonyl CoA–> fatty acid

oxaloacetate –> malate –> pyruvate, back into mito

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8
Q

which is the only organ that can use glycerol as energy source?

A

LIVER

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9
Q

how do adipocytes make glycerol for triglyceride synthesis?

A

synthesizes glycerol phosphate from DHAP

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10
Q

nail clubbing suggests? nail spooning [koilonychia] suggests

A

clubbing: PROLONGED hypoxia

associated w/ large-cell lung cancer, TB, CF, suppurative lung disease: empyema, bronchiectasis, chronic lung abscesses

(not asthma, bc brief, episodic?)

spooning: Fe2+ deficiency anemia

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11
Q

nail clubbing:

A

drumstick appearance, flattening of nail folds, shininess of nail and distal portion of finger.

pressing of nail: spongy, fluctuant (unstable) sensation –> softening of nail beds

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12
Q

potential pathophysiology of digital clubbing

A

failure of platelet precursors to fragment completely within pulmonary circulation

increased peripheral megakaryocytes & platelet clumps –> impact finger & toe –> release PDGF and VEGF –> increased fibrovascular proliferation –> clubbing!

also, elevated levels of prostaglandin E2 implicated.

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13
Q

c-ANCA targets

A

lysosomal enzymes

wegners: granulomatosis w/ polyangiitis

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14
Q

wegner’s (granulomatosis w/ polyangiitis)

what’s involved (3)

A

necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis

  1. upper respiratory: ear, nose, sinus, throat: chronic sinusitis, mucosal ulceration (due to mucosal granulomas that later ulcerate)
  2. pulmonary symptoms: cough/hemoptysis, focal necrotizing granuloma in lung, can coalesce and undergo cavitation
  3. renal disease: RPGN: crescentic
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15
Q

RPGN due to wegner’s differs bc

A

pauci-immune.

RPGN 1: immunoglobulin against basement membrane
RPGN 2: immune complex mediated

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16
Q

nephritic 2-3 days after upper respiratory infection? nephritic 2-3 wks after URI?

A

2-3 days: IgA nephropathy

2-3 wks: PSGN: postinfectious strep glomerulonephritis

A is earlier

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17
Q

indirect jaundice post-stress (i.e. hiking, fasting)

A

gilbert syndrome! weak UDP-glucoronyl-transferase. usu not a big deal, unless stressed.

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18
Q

normal serum total bilirubin

A

.2-1 mg/ml

< 0.2mg direct bilirubin

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19
Q

which TB virulence factor allows for intracellular bacterial proliferation

A

sulfatide

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20
Q

horseshoe nuclei

A

langhan’s giant cells

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21
Q

classic locations for disseminated TB

A
  • basal meninges (tuberculous meningitis
  • lumbar spine (Pott disease)
  • psoas muscle (psoas abscess)
  • serous membranes like pericardium and pleura
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22
Q

disseminate TB vs milary

A

milliary -> extreme form; small scattered seed-like foci of infection throughout body.

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23
Q

preventative measure for all kidney stones?

A

drink fluids

most stones result from supersaturation

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24
Q

low calcium diet on Ca2+ kidney stone formation?

A

INCREASES risk.

serum Ca2+ is low, compensatory increase in intestinal Ca2+ absorption and Ca2+ release from bone –> increase risk of stone formation

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25
Q

high protein diet on kidney stone formation?

A

increases risk.

increases body’s acid load, stimulate calcium release from bones & Ca2+ excretion into urine.

recommend low protein diet for individuals w/ calcium and uric acid stones

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26
Q

high dietary Na+ on kidney stone formation?

A

increased Ca2+ release from bone.

recommend low Na+ diet

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27
Q

recommendation for patients w/ calcium stones and hyperoxaluria?

A

pyridoxine. B6 decreases endogenous oxaloacetate formation –> less stone

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28
Q

difficulty abducting right arm past horizontal position & prominence of scapular angle

A

serratus anterior
long thoracic n.

likely injured during masectomy

past horizontal abduction –> need seratus anterior to rotate glenoid cavity superiorly.

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29
Q

which structures can be damaged in thyroidectomy (2)

A
  1. recurrent laryngeal, when ligate inferior thyroid

2. superior laryngeal, when ligate superior thyroid artery.

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30
Q

anterior dislocation of shoulder OR fracture of neck of humerus can injure..

A

axillary n. delt & teres minor & sensation to upper lateral arm

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31
Q

stretch between head and shoulder injures..

A

upper trunk of brachial plexus. erb’s palsy

damaged musculocutaneous & suprascapular
– shoulder adducted, arm pronated, elbow extended

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32
Q

where does clavicular fracture typically occur

A

middle 1/3rd, due to strength of ligamentous structures at either end.

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33
Q

first infection w/ VZV is called? reactivation is called? spread via?

A

spread via respiratory secretions

1st infxn: varicella, chicken pox

reactivation: herpes zoster (shingles)

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34
Q

presentation of herpes zoster (reactivation)

A

1st. burning and/or pain unilaterally in dermatome.

2-3 days: erythematous maculopapular rash in affected dermatome.

papule transform into vesicles that later coalesce.

rupture of vesicles -> ulcers that crust. CONTAGIOUS until lesions are DRY.

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35
Q

skin biopsy of herpes zoster infection

A

intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes & multinucleated giant cells. (positive Tzanck)

acantholysis (loss of intercellular connections) & intraepidermal vesicles

dermal inflammatory infiltration and leukocytoclastic vasculitis may be present.

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36
Q

acantholysis forming suprabasal blisters –>

A

pemphigus vulgaris
IF: IgG deposits in reticular pattern around keratinocytes.
Ab target is desmoglein 3

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37
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis

A

pruritic grouped vesicles on extensor surfaces.

light micropscopy: accumulations of neutrophils on tips of dermal papillae

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38
Q

verruca vulgaris

A

WARTS like in HPV infection

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39
Q

skin biopsy of molluscum contagiosum

A

pox virus

– eosinophillic cytoplasmic inclusions.

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40
Q

definition of GI ulcer (vs. erosion)

A

breaches of alimentary tract mucosa that extend THROUGH muscularis mucosae –> into submucosa or beyond

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41
Q

gastric ulcers & risk of malignancy?

A

can frequently be malignant in nature; associated w/ poorly defined excavated ulcer bordered by irregular heaped-up mucosa

(vs. duodenal ulcer, usu not malignancy-related)

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42
Q

duodenal ulcers & risk of malignancy?

A

not associated!

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43
Q

esophageal ulcer & risk of malignancy

A

both associated!

(1) esophageal adenocarcinoma– associated w/ ulcerated exophytic lesion at GE-junction)
(2) squamous cell carcinoma–associated w/ plaque-like thickening of mucosa that may eventually excavate & ulcerate

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44
Q

colon ulcer & risk of malignancy?

A

associated!

distal colon: annular lesions w/ “napkin-ring” constriction of bowel, w/ heaped up edges & ulcerated central region.

also, ulcerative colitis generally increased risk of colorectal cancer.

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45
Q

rx for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine (increase Na inactivation)

painful episodes can last for months! unclear pathogenesis

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46
Q

side effect of carbamazepine

A

aplastic anemia & agranulocytosis

47
Q

haloperidol can be given for

4

A

schizophrenia, acute psychoses, acute mania, tourette

48
Q

how to avoid confounding

A

confounding: confusion of two supposedly causal variables, such that part/all of observed effect thought to be due to one variable is actually due to other.

deal by matching on possible confounders: age, race

49
Q

selection bias

A

choosing groups that reflect general population

50
Q

which muscles of mastication close jaw? open?

A

close: masseter, medial pterygoid, temporalis
open: lateral pterygoid

51
Q

what leaves through foramen ovale (4)?

A

V3 of trigeminal
lesser petrosal nerve
accessory meningeal artery
& emissary veins

52
Q

what leaves through foramen spinosum (3)?

A

meningeal/recurrent branch of V3
middle meningeal artery
middle meningeal vein

53
Q

foramen lacerum

A

carotid canal just above this.

  • meningeal branch of ascending pharyngeal artery.
  • artery & n. of pterygoid canal.

otherwise, occluded by cartilage

54
Q

jugular foramen

A
  • CN IX, X, XI,
  • inferior petrosal and signoid sinus
  • posterior meningeal artery
55
Q

exit points for trigeminal n. branches (3)

A

standing room only

superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale

(not spinosum!)

56
Q

presentation of arsenic poisioning?

A

arsenic containing insecticide.

GI symptoms: nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea. decreased level of consciousness, hypotension, tahycardia.

GARLIC ODOR in breath
MEES lines: fingernails w/ white lines

rx: dimercaprol or succimer.

displaces arsenic ions from sulhydryl groups of enzymes.

dimercaprol itself = toxic (nephrotoxic & HTN)

57
Q

dimercaprol / succimer use (3)? mechanism?

A

displaces ions from sulhydryl groups of enzymes.

use for mercury, arsenic, gold, lead

58
Q

rx for acute lead or mercury posioning?

A

choice: CaNa2-EDTA

59
Q

cyanide poisioning presentation? rx (3)

A

presentation: almond scented breath, trismus, apnea
rx: (1) amyl nitrite (2) sodium thiosulfate (3) hydroxocobalamin
(1) nitrite: forms methemoglobin, binds to cyanide ions (forming nontoxic cyanomethemoglobin) –> prevents cyanide binding to mitochondrial enzymes
(2) thiosulfate: sulfur donor, increase thiocyanate for excretion
(3) hydroxocobalamin: bind to CN and excrete in urine

60
Q

deferoxamine

A

rx: iron poisioning. facilitates urine excretion

61
Q

rx for methemoglobinemia

A

methylene blue. reducing agent, converts iron in heme form Fe3+ to Fe2+

62
Q

lyonization

A

process of randomly inactivating an X chromosome in normal females –> heterochromatin – Barr body at periphery of nucleus on micropscopy.

all human females -> mosaics of X-chromosome (methylation of cytosine -> methycytosine)

63
Q

why do RBCs make 2,3 BPG?

A

made in glycolysis.

normally:
glucose&raquo_space;> 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate –> 3phosphoglycerate (1 ATP made)&raquo_space;» pyruvate.

in RBC, will convert 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate –> 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate (via a mutase) –> 3 phosphoglycerate&raquo_space;> pyruvate

basically sacrifice making ATP, in order to make 2,3 DPG. important in reducing hemoglobins affinity for oxygen for delivery to peripheral tissue!

64
Q

varicose veins

A

dilated tortuous veins that predominately involved superficial veins of leg.

risk factors: chronically increased lower-extremity venous pressure: long periods of standing, >50y/o, multiple pregs. genetic defects that affect venous wall/valvular integrity.

65
Q

repercussions of varicose veins?

A

prolonged increase in intraluminal pressure results in loss of vessel-wall tensile strength. result in venous dilation –> causing veins to fail. resulting backflow exacerbates venous HTN –> worse valve competency.

complications: painful superficial thromboses, stasis dermatitis, skin ULCERATION (medial malleolus), poor wound healing, superficial infection.

66
Q

claudication usu associated w/

A

pain & weakness associated w/ exertion.

due to peripheral artery disease.

67
Q

phlegmasia alba dolens

A

painful white leg, “milk leg”

consequence of iliofemoral venous thrombosis in peripartum women.

pregnancy disposes to deep vein thrombosis due to pressure of uterus on deep pelvic veins –> stasis. also, hypercoagulable.

68
Q

location of varicose veins

A

SUPERFICIAL venous system. not deep. less associated w/ thromboembolism & PE.

69
Q

describe giardia morphology? most important in preventing it in GI system?

A

pear-shaped, bilaterally symetric organism. 4 pairs of flagella. 2 nuclei.

IgA helps prevent & clear infection. impair adherence.

70
Q

how do eosinophils kill helminth larvae?

A

antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). involves major basic protein.

71
Q

familial syndrome associated w/ bronchiectasis?

A

kartagener’s syndrome. immotile cilia due to dyenin arm defect.

infertility, recurrent sinusitis, and bronchietasis

72
Q

most common congenital upper limb deformity. 2nd most?

A

most common: synfactyly – failure of digits to separate

2nd: constriction band syndrome: interrupts fetal blood supple to distal limbs, causes amputation of fingers/toes

73
Q

osler-weber-rendu disease aka

A

hereditary hemmorhagic telangiectasia

74
Q

increased bleeding time and PTT (normal PT) suggests?

A

von willebrand disease

  1. BT bc binds to platelets
  2. PTT bc stabilizes/carries factor VII

absence of vWF –> functional factor VIII and platelet deficiency.

factor VII deficiency itself will NOT affect bleeding time.

(aka factor VII needs vWF, but vWF does not need factor VII)

if bleeding time is up, MUST mean there is a platelet issue

75
Q

inheritence of von willebrand disease

A

autosomal DOMINANT w/ variable penetrance

most common heritable bleeding disorder.

76
Q

DIC elevates

A

bleeding time, PT, and PTT (consumptive).

also elevated d-dimers
degradation product of cross-linked fibrin

77
Q

factor XIII

A

transglutaminase. crosslinks fibrin polymers. STABILIZE clots.
deficiency: causes delayed bleeding, but does NOT prolong bleeding time, PT, or PTT.

78
Q

why is amphotericin so terrible

A

binds cell membrane cholesterol

has higher affinity for ergosterol than cholesterol, but does affect cholesterol a little.

main: nephrotoxic, hypomagnesium, hypokalemia.

main toxicity:

  1. acute infusion related reaction
    - chills, fever, rigor, hypotension
    - antipyretics & antihistamine can help
  2. dose-dependent nephrotoxicity
    - bc decreases GFR
  3. electrolyte abnormalities
    - hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia
  4. anemia
    - due to suppressed EPO synthesis
  5. thrombophlebitis
    - at site of injection
79
Q

oxidase +, comma shaped, gram negative bacteria (3). how are they unique?

A
  1. camplyobacter jejuni
    - grows in 42 C
  2. vibrio cholera
    - grows in alkaline conditions
  3. helicobacter pylori
    - produces ureas

[pseudomonas is also oxidase +, but is a rod)

80
Q

which 2 bacteria increase cAMP in intestine?

A
  • ETEC (heat labile toxin)

- vibrio cholera

81
Q

when should the neural tube close

A

4th week of fetal development

82
Q

failure of neural tube closure increases 2 things in amniotic fluid

A

AFP and acetylcholinesterase

83
Q

duodenal atresia occurs due to

A

abnormal apoptosis. duodenal lumen fails to recanalize

84
Q

adverse effects of L-DOPA on brain

A

anxiety and agitation

also insomnia, confusion, delusions, hallucinations

85
Q

test for supraspinatus pathology?

A

empty-can supraspinatus test.

simultaneous abduction and flexion of arm at shoulder & apply force downwards

86
Q

long head of biceps brachii? short head?

A

long head: passes through glenohumeral joint to insert on supraglenoid tubercle of scapula.

short-head on coracoid

87
Q

levator scapulae inserts on..

A

superomedial border of scapula and on tranverse processes of C1 - C4

88
Q

primary biliary cirrhosis

A

chronic liver disease.

characterized by autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts & cholestasis

usu middle age women, insiduous onset.

pruritus is first symptom, fatigue.

physical exam: hepatosplenomegaly, xanthomatous lesions of eyelind or in skin / tendons

lab: elevated ALP, cholesterol, and IgM

associated w/ autoimmune diseases

89
Q

describe changes w/ skin aging.

A

aging of human skin by 30-35. gradual thinning, reduction in subcutaneous fat, blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat ducts, & sebaceous gland.

decreased dermal collagen & elastic fibers

90
Q

wrinkles due to..

A

reduced synthesis of collagen fibrils.

loss of intrinsic reticular supoprt – inelastic skin sags and demonstrates wrinkles

91
Q

severe triglyceridemia can cause…

A

pancreatitis

92
Q

2 mechanisms of fibrates

A

(1) activate PPAR-alpha

(2) increased LPL activity –> triglyceride clearance

93
Q

how does PTH activate osteoclasts (3)

A

stimulate osteoblasts to (1) express RANK-L (2) secrete M-CSF

also decrease osteoprotegrin release (decoy receptor for RANK-L)

94
Q

thyroid hormone on bone formation

A

t3 increases bone turnover by mainly increasing OSTEOCLASTIC RESORPTION

(reason why patients w/ thyrotoxicosis have mild hypercalcemia)

95
Q

where is ventillation highest? perfusion? V/Q ratio?

A

BOTH ventilation & perfusion higher at BASE

V/Q RATIO greater at APEX

  • ventillation greater at base b/c alveoli are less distended, more compliant (weight of lung)
  • perfusion greater at base bc of gravity

perfusion GREATLY increases as move to base. ventilation increases slightly

96
Q

why do fibrates increase cholesterol stone in gallbladder?

A

inhibit 7-alpha-hydroxylase, increased cholesterol in bile – ppt out

97
Q

first step in cholesterol synthesis

A

via thiolase

condense two acetyl-CoA into acetoacetyl-CoA –> substrate for HMG-CoA reductase

98
Q

which hepatitis viruses transmitted fecal-oral?

A

NAKED ones. hep A and hep E

99
Q

hepatitis E is concerning in what population

A

high mortality rate in pregnant women.

most people –> self-limited. not associated w/ chronic liver disease OR carrier state.

100
Q

gait abnormality & urinary incontenience. LATER progresses to progressive dementia and emotional blunting

A

NORMAL PRESSURE HYDROCEPHALUS.
- wacky, wobbly, wet

gradual diminshed reabsorptive capacity of arachnoid villi.

(distinguish from alzheimers due to the order of symptoms!)

sometimes reversible w/ relief of CSF volume

101
Q

agenesis

A

absent organ due to absent primordial tissue

102
Q

aplasia

A

absent organ DESPITE presence of primordial tissue

103
Q

hypoplasia

A

incomplete organ development ; primordial tissue present

104
Q

deformation

A

extrinsic deformation occurs AFTER embryonic period

uterine pressure on fetus in breech position –> congenital hip dislocation. clubbed feet.

105
Q

disruption

A

secondary breakdown of previous normal tissue or structure (i.e. amniotic band syndrome – amniotic bands compress/ampute fetal limbs

106
Q

malformation

A

instrinsic disruption; during embryonic period (weeks 3-8)

i.e. holoprosencephaly, congenital heart disease, anencephaly, polydactyly, syndactyly

107
Q

sequence

A

abnormalities resulting form a single primary embryological event (i.e. oligohydramniosis –> potter sequence)

108
Q

holoprosencephaly

A

MALFORMATION: primary defect in cells or tissues that form an organ. division of prosencephalon happens during 5th wk of embryonic period.

associated w/ patau, edwards, and fetal alcohol syndrome

109
Q

most calcium stones result from what serum state / urine state

A

normocalcemia, hypercalciuria

usu idiopathic hypercalciuria

110
Q

what can cause hyperoxaluria?

A

diet high in oxaloacetate: chocolate, nuts, spinach

also, diets low in Ca2+ makes more free oxaloacetate for absorption and subsequent renal excretion (occurs in crohn’s disease & other intestinal malabsorption)

111
Q

what can cause hyperuricosuria?

A

high protein diet, large amounts of purines metabolized into uric acid.

112
Q

morning stiffness in osteoarthritis

A

happens! just shorter than in rheumatoid arthritis (~10-15min)

RA: can last hours

113
Q

most common cause of epiglottitis?

A

haemophilus influenza B:

drooling, dysphagia, difficulty breathing, fever, cherry red epliglotis

inspiratory stridor (narrowed larynx)

114
Q

cerebellar tumor in child w/ primitive cells?

A

medulloblastoma! primitive neuroectoderm

UWorld mixed (60 decks)

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