test #29 4.19 Flashcards

1
Q

what surface marker (cell type) is deficient in Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobulimemia?

A

CD19 (no mature B cells in circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

B cell markers

A

CD19, 20, 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CD15

A

neutrophil marker. also present in reed sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CD16

A

NK cells (and others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

two types of abnormal ventilation during sleep

A

(1) apnea (cessation of breathing for >10 seconds)

2) hypopnea (reduced airflow causing SaO2 to decrease >4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

obstructive sleep apnea

A

noturnal hypoventilation w/ a transient upper airway obstruction due to poor pharyngeal muscle tone

most common cause of excessive daytime sleepiness

exam: erythrocytosis, obesity, increased soft tissue in oropharynx

arterial blood gas in day: normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

obesity hypoventilation syndrome (aka Pickwickian syndrome)

A

obesity impedes expansion of chest and abdominal wall during breathing.

increased respiratory work & decreased respiratory drive.

underventilation during all hours (chronically elevated PaCO2 and reduced PaO2)

arterial blood gas = abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

differentiation obesity hypoventilation syndrome from sleep apnea?

A

sleep apnea: normal arterial blood gas in day time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

central sleep apnea

A

patient’s central DRIVE to initiate breaths is absent.

neurological problem (not mechanical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tumor w/ fat, smooth muscle, blood vessel

A

angiomyolipoma (benign tumor)

associated w/ tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tuberous sclerosis inheritance

A

autosomal DOMINANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tuberous sclerosis symptoms

A

HAMARTOMAS

  • hamartomas in CNS and skin
  • angiofibromas (face, adenoma sebaceum)
  • mitral regurgitation
  • angiomyolipoma (renal)
  • tuberous sclerosis
  • autosomal dOminant
  • mental retardation
  • ash-leaf patch (hypopigmented)
  • shagreen patch (thick leathery, dimpled, organge

also: subependymal astrocytoma and ungual fibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NF2

A

autosomal DOMINANT. bilateral acoustic neuromas.

also have multiple meningiomas, gliomas, ependymomas of spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

cerebellar hemangiomas, retinal hemangiomas, liver cysts, bilateral renal cell carcinoma, pheochromocytoma

A

von-hippel-lindau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sturge-weber syndrome

A

STURGE:

Somatic
Tram track Ca2+ opposite gyrus
Unilateral leptomeningeal angioma& port-wine stain
Retardation
GNAQ (activating mutation)
& Glaucoma (episcleral hemangioma)
Epilepsy

port-wine stain – nonblanching in V1/V2 distribution

developmental anomaly of neural crest derivatives (mesoderm/ectoderm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

A

Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome

multiple tenangiectasia of skin & mucosa.

presentation is recurrent epistaxis or GI bleed (melena)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does B agonists (increased camp) increase contractility?

A

cAMP increases conductance of Ca2+ channels in SR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when patient takes exogenous glucocorticoids, worry about..

how is this prevented?

A

acute adrenal insufficiency (when used for 3+ wks)

prevent by tapering off treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where does suppression occur when extended exogenous glucocortoids are taken?

A

the WHOLE axis: hypothalamic, pituitary, and adrenal!

low CRH, low ACTH, low cortisol!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mutation in NF1

A

mutation in NF1, tumor suppressor that regulates Ras

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how does alcohol lead to pancreatitis?

A

obstruction via ductal concreations & direct parenchymal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

three types of damage in pancreatitis

A

(1) pancreatic autodigestion - proteases
(2) vascular damage & hemorrhage - elastase
(3) fat necrosis - lipase / phospholipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

amylase makes..

A

hydrolyze starch into maltose (a glucose-glucose dissacharide), trisaccharide maltotriose, limit dextins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

17 alpha hydroxylase needed for (2)

A

(1) pregnenolone -> 17 hydroxypregnenolone

(2) progesterone -> 17 hydroxyprogesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

17 alpha hydroxlase deficiency on secondary sex characterestics

A

prevents in both males & females.

no menarche in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

5-alpha reductase deficiency on secondary sex characteristics?

A

abnormal external genitalia development, but will have normal secondary sex (increased muscle mass and phallus enlargement) bc of testosterone

prostate and hair = DHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

urine from umbilicus

A

persistant allantois remnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

allantois becomes..

A

URACHUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

urachus

A

duct between bladder (urogenital sinus) and yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

failure of urachus to obliterate results in..

A
  1. patent urachus: umbilicus to bladder: pee from belly button
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

vesicourachal diverticulum

A

failure to close part of urachus adjacent to bladder.

outpouching of apex of bladder. commonly asymptomatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

urachal sinus

A

failure to close distal part of urachus (adjacent to umbilicus)

periumbicilical tenderness & purulent discharge from umilicus due to persistent and recurrent infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

vitelline duct

A

omphalo-mesenteric duct connect yolksac to midgut lumen.

connect small intestine w/ skin at umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

failure of vitelline duct to obliterate

A

(1) vitelline fistula

(2) meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

vitelline fistula

A

failure of vitillene duct to obliterate

meconium from umbillicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

meckel’s diverticlum

A

partial closure of vitilline duct. patent portion attached to ileum (true diverticulum)

ectopic gastric mucosa / pancreatic tissue –> melena, periumbilical pain, ulcers

rule of 2!
2 inches, 2 feet from ileocecal valve, 2% of population, 2 epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

omphalocele

A

incomplete closure of anterior abdominal wall.

– failure of abdominal contents to return to body cavity

presents as ventral opening at the umbilicus, protruding viscera covered by peritoneum

SEALED in peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

gastroschisis

A

inadequate enlargement of peritoneal cavity during fetal life.

viscera PROTRUDE through defect in anterior abdominal wall adjacent to umbilicus

NOT covered by peritoneum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

closure of abdominal wall (rostral, lateral, caudal)

A

rostral fold: sternal defects
lateral: omphalocele, gastroschisis
caudal fold: bladder extrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

duodenal atresia results from..

A

failure to recanalize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

jejunal, ileal, colonic atresia results from…

A

vascular accident – apple peel atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

midgut development

A

6th wk: midgut herniates through belly button

10th: return to abdominal cavity, rotates around SMA, 90 degree counter clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

granules in whipple’s disease

A

diastase-resistant granules in macrophages (lysosomes w/ partially digested bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what medication can decrease formation of adenomatous polyp formation?

A

aspirin! cox-2 overexpression in colon mucosa help lead to adenocarcinoma in adenoma-to-carcinoma sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

adenoma to carcinoma sequence

A
AK53 & DCC
1. APC (b-catenin) --> AT RISK
(cox-2 overexpression & methylation increase too)
2. K-ras -->ADENOMA
3. p53 & DCC --> CARCINOMA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how does APC mutation lead to at risk colon?

A

APC keeps beta-catenin low –> maintains intercellular adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

FAP –> carcinoma always involves..

A

RECTUM (left, despite being an “exophytic mass’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

HNPCC –> carcinoma always involves

A

PROXIMAL COLON (right, despite not being exophytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

febuxostat

A

like allopurinol, inhibits xanthine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

probenicid

A

blocks reabsorption of uric acid.

so does HIGH dose of salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

caspase

A

cysteine protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what two enzymes can act on fructose intracellularly

A

fructokinase (fructose 1-phosphate) and hexokinase (fructose 6-phosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

where is fructose absorbed

A

proximal intestine, facilitative hexose transporter GLUT 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how is fructose metabolised in essential fructosuria?

A

absent fructokinase, cannot make fructose-1-phosphate. mostly loose in urine.

BUT small amount converted by hexokinase in liver into fructose-6-phosphate –> phosphoglucomutase turns it into –> glucose 6 phosphate.

can be used for glycogenesis, glycolysis, HMP, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

aldolase B converts..

A

fructose 6-phosphate –> DHAP (dihydroxyacetone P) and glyceraldehyde

glyceraldehyde –> glyceraldehyde 3-phoshpate via triose kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

galactose metabolism

A

galactose –> galactose-1-phosphate
(via galactokinase)

galactose 1-phosphate –> glucose 1-phosohate
(via galacose-1-uridyltransferase, which also converts UDP-glucose –> UDP-galactose

UDP glucose is regenerated from UDP galactose with UDP-galactose-4-epimerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

aldose reductase

A

[low affinity for glucose, only relevant when glucose is high]

converts glucose –> sorbitol.
also galactose –> galactitol

will accumulate if there is no sorbitol dehydrogenase to convert sorbitol —> fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

which tissues (4) lack sorbitol dehydrogenase? what is the manifestations of this?

A

lens, schwann cells, retina, kidney.

glucose –> sorbitol via aldose reductase. sorbitol accumulates (can’t convert to fructose).

has osmotic pull. results in..

cataracts, peripheral neuropathy, retinopathy, nephropathy (as seen in diabetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

acute interstitial pancreatitis vs. acute necrotic pancreatitis

A

acute interstitial: GROSS EDEMA: microscopic: calcifications. l

ipase digests adipose cells, form fatty acids that bind Ca2+ & ppt calcium salts.

if inflammation continues, trypsin activated, autodigestion of pancreas –

acute necrotic pancreatitis: GROSS CHALKY. destroy vessels –> white chalky fat necrosis. spread onto mesentery, omentum, other parts of abdominal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

mesenteric ischemia on gross

A

bowel is dusky red and congested. see subserosal ecchymoses, edema, defined necrosis

(probably related to arcades, mult sources of blood to bowel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

calcification on bowel mesentary, omentum, etc

A

pancreatitis. lipase release free fatty acids, which bind Ca2+ and ppt calcium salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

gastroesophageal mural injury: mallory-weiss vs. boerhaave syndrome?

A

both caused by forceful vomiting

mallory-weiss: MUCOSAL tear. submucosal arterial or venous plexus bleeding

boerhaave: esophageal TRANSMURAL tear. esophageal air/fluid leakage into mediastinum & pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ethanol metabolism

A

in cytosol:
ethanol –> acetaldehyde
(alcohol dehydrogenase, makes NADH)

in mitochondria:
acetaldehyde –> acetate
(acetaldehyde dehydroganse, makes NADH)

overall increase in NADH/NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

why does alcohol cause lactic acidosis?

A

high NADH/NAD+
need NAD+ for glycolysis, will regenerate AND+ via lactic acid production

pyruvate -> lactate
consume NADH –> NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

why does alcohol cause steatosis in liver (2)?

A

high NADH/NAD+

  1. glyceradehyde-3-phosphate –> glycerol-3-phosphate. combine w/ fatty acids –> triglycerides
  2. high acetyl-CoA (due to inhibition of TCA) promotes lipogenesis

TCA inhibited bc oxaloacetate is converted to malate (to regenerate NAD+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what 4 metabolic pathways are affected by alcohol?

A

high NADH/NAD+

  1. pyruvate -> lactate
    (consumes NADH–> NAD+)
  2. oxaloacetate -> malate
    (consumes NADH –> NAD+)
  3. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate –> glycerol-3-phosphate
    (combines w/ fatty acids to make triglyceride)
  4. blocked TCA, build up acetyl-CoA, permits ketogenesis & lipogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

supine hypotension syndrome

A

aortocaval compression syndrome

hypotension, pallor, sweating, nausea, dizziness

when preggers lady > 20wks lay on back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

inheritance of hemochromatosis

A

autosomal recessive
fairly common among northern europeans

intestinal absorption of iron
usu C282Y mutation on chr 6 in HFE gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

symptoms of hemochromatosis (5)

A
  1. micronodular cirrhosis
  2. diabetes mellitus
  3. skin pigmentation
  4. testicular atrophy
  5. CHF

increased risk of HCC

all related to DEPOSITS of Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

most common source of e. coli bacteremia

A

URINARY TRACT!

urosepsis risk: BPH, fecal incontinence, neurogenic bladder secondary to diabetes, frequent indwelling catheterization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

why does mucor, rhizopus, absidia <3 diabetic ketoacidosis

A

have ketone reductase.

proliferate in vasculature, causes downstream tissue necrosis –> black eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

differentiate paranasal infxn w. aspergillus and mucor?

A

histology.
aspergillus: acute angle septate

mucor: broad angle, nonseptate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

SEROLOGICAL TESTING.

increased IgE and Ab to aspergillus fumigatus = diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

quadratus lumborum

A

muscle of posterior abdominal wall

75
Q

erector spinae

A

large group of back muscle. longitudinally along spinous processes. contraction = spine extension

76
Q

transversus abdominis (transversalis)

A

most internal component of anterior abdominal wall musculature. below inferior oblique

77
Q

ligamentum flava

A

paired elastic ligaments, connect vertebral laminae.

form posterior wall of spinal canal. help hold body erect.

78
Q

psoas major

A

anterior surface of transverse processes & lateral surface of vertebral bodies of T12-L5

79
Q

long delay between diet change and vitamin deficiency (~4yr) suggests..

A

cobalamin B12

hepatic reserves last for up to several years

80
Q

which vitamins present w/ deficiency rapidly

A

WATER SOLUBLE, quickly wash out of body (except B12 and folate – have stores in liver)

81
Q

time frame of B12 and folate deficiency

A

B12: hepatic reserves last for years

folate: about 1/2 stored in liver, lasts 3-4 months.

folate deficiency faster

82
Q

storage of vitamin D (25-vitD)

A

in adipose tissue.

deficiency takes a few months

83
Q

vitamin A storage

A

90% stored in liver, perisinusoisal stellate (Ito cells)

last 6 months

84
Q

vitamin K storage

A

small amount in liver, lasts 1-3 weeks only.

heavily dependent on that made from large intestinal microbes

85
Q

diagnosis of hashimoto

A

usu (1)hypothyroidism, (2) high TSH, low T4/T3, and (3) anti-TPO antibody

can do biopsy: see intense mononuclear infiltration w/ lymphocytes and plasma cells. germinal centers.

86
Q

characterestics of papillary thyroid cancer (3)

tall variant?

A

MOST COMMON. GOOD PROGNOSIS.

(1) branching papillary structure
(2) psamomma bodies
(3) ground glass nucleus w/ intranuclear grooving “orphan annie eyes’

tall variant: follicular hyperplasia, lined by tall epithelial cells. older individuals, worse prognosis compared to well-differentiated papillary thyroid cancer.

87
Q

in thyroid; follicular hyperplasia lined by tall epithelial cells in older individual?

A

tall variant of papillary thyroid carcinoma. worse prognosis.

88
Q

mixed cellular infiltration w/ occasional multinuclear giant cells in thyroid

A

subacute thyroiditis or,
de Quervain thyroiditis or,
granulomatous thyroiditis

89
Q

presentation of subacute thyroiditis, de Quervain, granulomatous thyroiditis

A

painful tender thyroid. first thyroxoticosis, then hypothyroid

usu post-viral illness

90
Q

origin of Riedel’s thyroiditis

A

IgG4-related systemic illness

91
Q

Riedel’s thyroiditis vs. anaplastic carcinoma

A

both are firm, fixed, painless masses, but..

Riedel – young female. anaplastic – old people.

92
Q

rapid relief for rheumatoid arthritis

A

glucocorticoids

NSAIDs woud help too

93
Q

sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, minocycline in rheumatoid arthritis

A

used to treat mild, early, seronegative rheumatoid arthritis.

do NOT have anti-inflammatory.

effects work as immune modulators (disease modifying)

94
Q

colchicine

A

NOT used in rheumatoid arthritis.

binds to tubulin and inhibts MT polymerization of neutrophils. reduce inflammatory response to uric acid crystals

95
Q

rx for acute gout:

A

NSAID, glucocorticoids (short-term only), colchine

96
Q

rx for chronic gout:

A

allopurinol, febuxostat, probenicid, also colchine

97
Q

mechanism of pain in migraines

A

(1) trigeminal afferents to meninges activated
(2) release substance P and CGRP (calcitonin gene related peptide)
(3) causes neurogenic inflammation –> vasodilation and plasma protein extravasation

98
Q

sumatriptan for cluster headache and migraines

A

agonist of 5-HT 1B/1D on post-synaptic vasculature & presynaptic trigeminal neuron. inhibit release of vasoactive peptides. blocks vasodilation.

ABORTIVE.

contraindicated in prinzmetal angina and CAD bc can cause coronary vasospasm

99
Q

buprprion activity

A

NDRI and nicotine agonist

100
Q

which drugs block presynaptic reuptake of 5-HT and NE?

A

(1) TCA
(2) SNRI (venlafaxine and duloxetine)

note: TCA also have..
(1) anti-alpha adrenergic
(2) anti-muscarinic
(3) anti-H1 histamine

101
Q

SNRI used for? specific extra use of each>

A

rx: depression.
venlafaxine also: generalized anxiety disorder & panic
duloxetine: also peripheral diabetic neuropathy

102
Q

drugs used for migraine prophylaxis

A

b-blockers
antidepressants (TCA and SNRI)
anticonvulsants (valproate and topiramate)b

103
Q

didanosine

A

nucleoside reverse transcription inhibitor.

side effect: pancreatitis

104
Q

ganciclovir toxicity

A

interfere w/ human host cell DNA synthesis

105
Q

zidovudine toxicity

A

inhibit mammalian cellular and mitochondria DNA polymerases

bone marrow suppression (anemia, granulocytopenia)

106
Q

common side effect in non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (nnRTIs: efavirenz, nevirapine, delaviridine)

specific ones?

A

rash and hepatotoxicity

efavirenz: vivid dreams and CNS

delaviridine and efavirenz contraindicated in pregnancy

107
Q

rx for reducing risk of fetal transmission of HIV?

A

zidovudine

108
Q

common side effect of nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibits (nRTIs)

A

bone marrow suppression (reverse with G-CSF and EPO)

peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis (nucleosides)

anemia: zidovidine
didanosine: pancreatitis

109
Q

what is more toxic: acyclovir or gancyclovir?

A

gancyclovir

110
Q

toxicity with gancyclovir

A

bone marrow suppression & renal toxicity

111
Q

toxicity with acyclovir

A

obstructive crystalline nephropathy & acute renal failure

112
Q

foscarnet toxicity

A

nephropathy, results in electrolyte abnormalities: hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia

113
Q

cidofovir toxicity

A

nephrotoxic! give w/ probenecid and IV saline to reduce toxicity

114
Q

nonselective beta and alpha blockers

A

carvedilol and labetalol (modified endings)

115
Q

nebivolol

A

combines cardioselective B1 blockage w/ stimulation of B3 (activates NO synthase in vasculature)

116
Q

short acting benzo (<10hr)

A

MOAT

midazolan, oxazepam, alprazolam, triazolam

117
Q

medium acting benzo (10-20)

A

LET

lorazepam, estazolam, temazepam

118
Q

long acting benzo (days)

A

chlordiazepoxide, clorazepate, diazepam, flurazepam

119
Q

choosing duration of a benzo?

A

long-acting: more severe drowsiness, but less addicting/dependent

older people: short acting or they will fall
drug addict: long acting, or they will get addicted!

120
Q

association between risk of dependence and rate of clearance.

A

directly proportional.

rate of clearance high, more dependence

121
Q

association between duration of action and withdrawal symptoms

A

shorter duration of action, more likely withdrawal symptoms will occur

122
Q

short acting benzo vs. zolpidem

A

short acting benzo = addictive.

zolpidem = rapid onset of action & short half-life, but LOW POTENTIAL for tolerance and dependence

123
Q

normal P50 (partial pressure of oxygen at which hemoglobin is 50% saturated)

A

26mmHg.

shifted to lower numbers in lungs (LEFT = lungs)

shifted to higher numbers in tissue (RIGHT = tissue)

124
Q

oxygen dissociation curve for sickle cell

A

shifted to RIGHT (easier to release oxygen)

125
Q

subperiosteal thinning w/ cystic degeneration filled with brown fibrous tissue?

A

hyperparathyroidism! usu cortical bones

126
Q

excessive osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae. and widening between osteoid seems

(as measured by bone histomorphometry and double tetracycline labeling)

A

vitamin D deficiency

127
Q

trabecular thinning w/ few interconnections

A

osteoperosis

128
Q

lamellar bone structure resembling mosaic?

A

paget’s disease of bone

129
Q

spongiosa filling medullar canal with no mature trabeculae

A

osteopetrosis

130
Q

after vitamin D is absorbed from GI tract or skin..

A

must be activated by LIVER and KIDNEY

131
Q

genu varus, rachitic rosary, harrison’s sulci, craniotabes, growth retardation

A

vitamin D deficiency

  • genu varus: bowed legs
  • rachitic rosary: bony prominence at costochondral junction
  • Harrison’s sulci: indentations in lower ribs
  • craniotabes: softening of skull
132
Q

strong neutrophil chemotactic agents

A

leukotriene B4, C5a, 5-HETE

133
Q

3 fates of arachodonic acid

A

(1) cox 1-2: prostacyclin, prostaglandin, thromboxane
(2) 5-lipooxygenase: leukotrienes

(3) 12-lipooxygenase:
lipoxin

134
Q

fxn of lipoxins

A

made from arachadonic acid via 12-lipooxygenase

lipoxin A4 and B4

  1. vasodilate
  2. inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis
  3. stimulate monocyte adhesion
135
Q

LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

A

made from arachadonic acid via 5-lipooxygenase

  1. increased bronchial tone
  2. vasoconstriction
  3. increased permeability

think: constrict everything

136
Q

LTB4 & 5-HETE

A

neutrophil chemotaxis

137
Q

prostacyclin (PGI2)

A

made from arachadonic acid via cyclooxygenase (PGH2 intermediate)

  1. inhibit platelet aggregation
  2. vasodilate
  3. reduce bronchial tone
  4. reduce uterine tone
  5. increases permeability

relaxes everything

138
Q

prostaglandins (PGD2, PGE2, PGF2a)

A

made from arachadonic acid via cyclooxygenase

  1. vasodilate
  2. increase permeability
  3. increase uterine tone
  4. reduce bronchial tone
139
Q

main difference between prostacyclin and prostaglandins?

A

prostaglandin (PGD2, PGE2, PGF2) INCREASE uterine tone

prostacyclin reduces uterine tone and reduces platelet aggregation

140
Q

misoprostol

A

PGE1 analogue. used to increase production of gastric mucosa & decrease acid production.

also an abortifactant, increases uterine tone

141
Q

thromboxane

A

made from arachodonic acid via cyclooxygenase

counteracts prostacyclin (PGI2)

(1) increases platelet aggregating
(2) vasoconstriction
(3) increases bronchial tone

‘increases everything’

142
Q

important neutrophil chemoattractants (6)

A
5-HETE
LTB4
C5a
IL-8
PAF
kallikrein
143
Q

bradykinin on vasculature

A
  • vasodilation
  • increases vascular permeability
  • stimulates muscular contraction
  • mediates pain
144
Q

initial concern w/ given ACE inhibitors?

A

hypotension, esp if using a diuretic, hyponatremic, renal impairment

esp worry if taking a thiazide!

reduce venous return, secondary to decrease in angiotensin II levels

can activate Bezold-Jarisch reflec: vagally mediated hypotension and bradycardia

145
Q

don’t combined ACE with.. (2)

A
  1. beta blockers, won’t help much

2. thiazides, will give too much hypotension

146
Q

three exposures related to liver angiosarcoma

A
  • arsenic (pesticides)
  • thorotrast (radioactive contrast)
  • polyvinyl chloride
147
Q

angiosarcoma on stain

A

CD31+, PECAM, impt for leukocyte extravasation

148
Q

QT interval encompasses

A

start of QRS and end of T wave

149
Q

inherited long QT? predisposed to

A
  • K+ channel
  • predisposed to torsades de pointes

(1) romano-warD
autosomal Dominant
no deafness

(2) lange-jervell-nielsen
autosomal recessive
sensorineural deafness

150
Q

mutations in cardiac cell cytoskeleton & mitochondrial enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation related to..

A

inherited dilated cardiomyopathy

151
Q

progressive fibrofatty replacement of right ventricular myocardium

A

arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy – mutation in calcium-binding sarcoplasmic reticulum protein

152
Q

follicular carcinoma on histology

A

sheets of follicular cells or large cells w/ eosinophilic cytoplasm (hurthle)

adenoma: no capsular / vascular invasion
carcinoma: capsular / vascular invasion

153
Q

urease test

A

H. pylori

give isotopic urea.

H. pylori converts urea into CO2 and ammonia. isotpically labelled CO2 absorbed in blood and exhaled. measured 30min later.

154
Q

distinguish ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

pulmonary capillary wedge

155
Q

histology: extreme myofiber disarray w/ interstitial fibrosis

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

156
Q

immunity to hepB indicated by

A

Anti-Hbs (HbsAb)

157
Q

HbsAg

A
  • detectable during acute infection

- persistence after 6 months – chronic infection

158
Q

anti-HBc IgM vs IgG

A

IgM:
- present acute infection & window phase when HbsAg and HbsAb absent

IgG:

  • detectable w/ HbsAb & HbeAb after recovery
  • present w/o HbsAb in chronic infxn
  • not present after vaccination
159
Q

window period in hep B

A

no HbsAg or HbsAb.

can have HbcAb IgM

160
Q

HBeAg

A

another component of core

  • appears AFTER HBsAg
  • marker for viral replication activity
  • detetable in chronic infectoin
161
Q

HBeAb

A

present after recovery from acute infection
- HBeAg/anti-HBe seroconversion indicates transition of chronic infection from high to low viral replication & infectivity

162
Q

hepatitis B infection presentation

A
  • long asymptomatic incubation period (6-8 wks)

- acute disease, lasting several week to months

163
Q

when does HBsAg appear in blood? when does it peak?

A

appear in blood: before symptom onset

peak: when patient is most ill

undetectable in 3-6 months

164
Q

markers for active viral replication (hep B)? what else rises in this time

A

HBeAg and HBV DNA in serum. rises shortly after HBsAg comes in.

also increase in anti-HBc IgM and serum transaminases [shortly after symptoms arise]

165
Q

exacerbation of chronic hepatitis B?

A

abrupt increase in liver enzyme, increased levels of HBV DNA.

exacerbation frequently occurs w/ HbeAg seroconversion & accompanying transition from high infectivity to low infectivity.

166
Q

acute hepatitis that has progressed to chronic hepatitis w/ low infectivity

A

HbsAg (>6 months), HbeAb, HbcAb

no HbeAg, no HbsAb

167
Q

acute hepatitis that has progressed to chronic hepatitis w/ high infectivity

A

HbsAg (>6 months), HbeAb, HBV DNA

no HbeAb, no HBsAb

168
Q

vaccinated against Hep B? resolved HepB?

A

vaccine: HbsAb, no anything else

resolved hepB: HbsAb, HbcAb

169
Q

inguinal hernia vs. direct hernia

A

inguinal hernia: failure of processus vaginalis to oliterate, travels through indirect inguinal. out of external inguinal canal, scrotum

external hernia: weakness in abdominal wall (hesselbach’s triangle, between rectus abominus, inferior epigastric, inguinal ligament). come out near external inguinal ring. NOT in scrotum bc has no passage (no processus vaginalis)

170
Q

hernia in scrotum? hernia above inguinal ligament? hernia below inguinal ligament?

A

in scrotum: indirect inguinal

above inguinal ligament: direct

below inguinal ligament: femoral

171
Q

hernias relative to inferior epigastrics

A

indirect: lateral.
direct: medial

172
Q

deep inguinal nodes receives drainage from?

A

reside under fascia lata, medial side of femoral vein.

glans penis // clitoris & superficial nodes

173
Q

superficial inguinal nodes receives drainage from?

A

scrotum & all cutaneous structures inferior to umbillicus. including genitalia and anus up to pectinate line

174
Q

testes drain to? scrotum? glans penis?

A

testes: para-aortic nodes.
scrotum: superficial inguinal nodes –> deep
glans penis –> deep inguinal nodes

175
Q

specific iron deficiency signs (anemia)

A

dysphagia, spoon nails or koilonychia (disfigured finger nails)

176
Q

filgastrim

A

G-CSF

177
Q

what help w/ iron absorption

A

vitamin C, reduces it to Fe2+ state

178
Q

factor V leiden

A

resistant to cleavage by protein C – thrombophilia

179
Q

antiphospholipid presents with (3) abnormal lab finding?

A
  1. venous thromboembolism
  2. arterial thromboembolism
  3. frequent fetal loss

LONG aPTT

180
Q

most common cause of long PTT?

A

lupus anticoagulant

181
Q

why is folic acid deficiency –> prothrombotic?

A

hyperhomocysteinemia

182
Q

lipofuscin is composed of..

A

product of lipid peroxidation.

lipid polymers and protein-complexed phospholipids.

‘wear & tear’

seen in heart & liver of aging or cachectic, malnourished patients.

183
Q

mediators of cachexia?

A

TNF-alpha!!!!

also: IFN-gamma, IL-6

184
Q

chromogranin + lung cancer?

A

small cell carcinoma!

also: neuron specific enolase, synaptophysin. secretory granules on EM