Test Flashcards

1
Q

What does stony dullness to percussion indicate?

A

Pleural Effusion

Stony dullness is a physical examination finding associated with fluid in the pleural space.

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2
Q

What is the most likely cause of right-sided pleuritic chest pain?

A

Pneumonia

Pleuritic chest pain is often associated with pneumonia, particularly when there is inflammation of the pleura.

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3
Q

What are the key radiological findings in pulmonary oedema? (4)

A
  • Alveolar bat’s wings
  • Kerley B lines
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels

These findings are indicative of pulmonary congestion and interstitial edema.

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4
Q

What does a ground-glass appearance on X-ray suggest?

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Respiratory Distress Syndrome of the newborn

Ground-glass opacities can indicate various lung conditions, including fibrosis and acute respiratory distress.

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5
Q

What does a Ziehl-Neelsen stain positive for acid-fast bacilli indicate?

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

This staining method is used to identify mycobacteria, the bacteria responsible for TB.

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6
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis?

A

Caseous necrosis

Caseous necrosis is a distinctive form of tissue death seen in TB infections.

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7
Q

What is an Assmann focus?

A

Apical lesion in secondary tuberculosis

The Assmann focus is a characteristic finding in reactivation TB.

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8
Q

What is miliary tuberculosis?

A

Spread of organism into bloodstream

Miliary TB can lead to dissemination to multiple organs, resulting in a characteristic clinical picture.

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9
Q

What are the findings when the organism spreads via pulmonary artery in miliary tuberculosis?

A

Miliary dissemination into the lung

This leads to widespread pulmonary involvement seen in miliary TB.

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10
Q

What are the findings when the organism spreads via pulmonary vein in miliary tuberculosis?

A

Systemic dissemination to the liver, spleen, and kidneys

This results in organ involvement beyond the lungs.

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11
Q

What condition is indicated by positive anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

This autoimmune condition affects the kidneys and lungs.

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12
Q

What infection is associated with having a parrot or pigeon as a pet?

A

Chlamydophila psittaci infection

This zoonotic infection can lead to pneumonia.

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13
Q

What is the likely cause of dry cough and diarrhoea after a holiday abroad?

A

Legionella pneumophila

Testing urine for antigens is key for diagnosis.

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14
Q

What condition is suggested by the description ‘tall, thin young man who indulges in marijuana’?

A

Pneumothorax

This demographic is at higher risk for spontaneous pneumothorax, particularly Marfan syndrome.

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15
Q

What are the symptoms associated with sarcoidosis? (6)

A
  • Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Granulomas
  • Fatigue
  • Uveitis
  • Weight loss

Sarcoidosis is a systemic granulomatous disease.

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16
Q

What is the ‘signet ring sign’ on CT indicative of?

A

Bronchiectasis

This sign represents bronchi that are wider than adjacent blood vessels.

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17
Q

What does the ‘D sign’ on X-ray indicate?

A

Empyema

This sign is characterized by a crescent of fluid in the pleural space.

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18
Q

What does the ‘steeple sign’ on X-ray suggest?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis/croup

This sign shows narrowing of the upper airway.

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19
Q

What condition is indicated by a child with a barking cough?

A

Croup

Croup is often viral in origin and presents with a characteristic cough.

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20
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV patients?

A

Co-trimoxazole (± prednisolone if severe)

This treatment is standard for PCP in immunocompromised individuals.

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21
Q

What triad is associated with asthma, nasal polyps, and salicylate sensitivity?

A

Samter’s Triad

This triad is significant in understanding aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease.

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22
Q

What is a risk factor for aspiration pneumonia?

A

Alcoholism

Alcoholics are at higher risk for aspiration due to impaired consciousness and reflexes.

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23
Q

What type of sputum is characteristic of Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Red jelly sputum

This appearance is due to the presence of necrotic tissue and blood.

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24
Q

What type of sputum is associated with Chlamydia psittaci infection?

A

Mucoid sputum

This sputum type is indicative of certain atypical pneumonia pathogens.

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25
Q

What does rusty sputum indicate?

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

Rusty sputum is a classic sign of this bacterial infection.

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26
Q

What condition is indicated by cannonball metastases?

A

Classically from primary renal cell carcinoma

This pattern of metastasis is often seen in cases of renal cancer.

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27
Q

What does a morning headache suggest?

A

Hypercapnia or side effects of organic nitrates

Morning headaches can be a sign of sleep apnea or other respiratory issues.

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28
Q

What type of tumor secretes ACTH

A

Small cell carcinoma

This cancer is neuroendocrine and can lead to ectopic hormone syndromes.

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29
Q

What type of tumor secretes PTH?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

This type of lung cancer can lead to hypercalcemia.

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of small-cell carcinoma? (3)

A
  • Neuroendocrine
  • Highly malignant
  • May be associated with ectopic endocrine syndromes

This cancer type is aggressive and often diagnosed at an advanced stage.

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31
Q

What laboratory findings are increased in sarcoidosis?

A
  • Serum ACE
  • Calcium (Ca2+)

These markers are often checked in suspected cases of sarcoidosis.

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32
Q

What does eggshell calcification at the hilar region indicate?

A

Silicosis

This finding is characteristic of chronic silica exposure.

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33
Q

What are ‘heart-failure cells’?

A

Macrophages that have absorbed haemosiderin

These cells are seen in chronic pulmonary edema associated with heart failure.

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34
Q

What is a Ghon Focus?

A

An area of infection and caseous necrosis at the periphery of the lung

This is a classic finding in tuberculosis.

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35
Q

What occurs if a Ghon Focus ruptures into the pleural cavity?

A

Tuberculous pleurisy

This can lead to pleural effusion and pleuritic pain.

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36
Q

What is an Assmann Focus?

A

Apical lesion of secondary tuberculous infection

This is specific to reactivation TB.

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37
Q

What is a ‘coin lesion’ on chest radiographs?

A

A rounded solitary lesion

Common lesions include primary lung carcinoma, metastatic tumors, and granulomatous inflammation.

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38
Q

What is Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Signs include ptosis, enophthalmos, miosis, and lack of sweating

This syndrome can occur with local cancer spread or Pancoast tumors affecting sympathetic nerves.

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39
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer in smokers?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma secretes parathyroid hormone and can cause hypercalcemia.

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40
Q

What are the common metastatic sites for squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • Lymph nodes
  • Liver
  • Bones
  • Adrenal glands
  • Brain

These sites are commonly affected by metastases from squamous cell carcinoma.

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41
Q

What symptoms can hypercalcemia cause?

A

Bones, stones, groans, and moans

This phrase summarizes the symptoms associated with hypercalcemia.

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42
Q

What characterizes large cell carcinoma?

A

Poorly differentiated and sex hormone releasing

Large cell carcinoma can cause gynecomastia due to its hormone-releasing properties.

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43
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Adenocarcinoma is derived from glandular cells and often leads to peripheral tumors.

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44
Q

What staining characteristic is associated with adenocarcinoma?

A

Mucus stains blue

This staining helps in identifying adenocarcinoma histologically.

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45
Q

What condition can adenocarcinoma lead to?

A

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

This condition is characterized by finger clubbing and periosteal inflammation.

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46
Q

Which lung cancer type has the worst prognosis?

A

Small cell carcinoma

Small cell carcinoma is known for its aggressive nature and poor survival rates.

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47
Q

What is unique about small cell carcinoma in terms of treatment?

A

It is the only lung cancer that is chemo sensitive

This means small cell carcinoma responds to chemotherapy more effectively than other lung cancer types.

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48
Q

What condition is indicated by fever and pleuritic chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward?

A

Pericarditis

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49
Q

What does an irregularly irregular pulse indicate?

A

Atrial Fibrillation

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50
Q

What ECG finding is characterized by a saw tooth baseline and a heart rate of 150 bpm?

A

Atrial Flutter

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51
Q

What are the signs of pulmonary oedema? (5)

A

Alveolar bat’s wings,
Kerley B lines,
cardiomegaly, dilated prominent upper lobe vessels, pleural effusion

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52
Q

What does raised JVP/hepatojugular indicate?

A

Right-sided heart failure

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53
Q

What symptom is described as a sense of impending doom?

54
Q

What type of ST elevation is saddle shaped?

A

Pericarditis

55
Q

What does broad complex tachycardia indicate?

A

Ventricular problem

56
Q

What is indicated by a mid-diastolic murmur with a tapping, undisplaced apex?

A

Mitral Stenosis

57
Q

What is the significance of a PMHx of rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral stenosis

58
Q

What does a broad QRS with a slurred upstroke on the R wave (delta wave) indicate?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

59
Q

What ECG finding is characterized by tall, tented T waves?

A

Hyperkalaemia (and wide QRS complexes)

60
Q

What is the condition when a patient gets pericarditis 4-6 weeks post MI?

A

Dressler’s syndrome

Relieved by sitting forward and characterized by diffuse saddle-shaped ST elevation.

61
Q

What is a common symptom of Digoxin toxicity?

A

‘Blurred yellowing vision headache’

Indicates potential digoxin overdose or toxicity.

62
Q

What lesions are associated with subacute bacterial infective endocarditis?

A

Janeway Lesions and Osler’s Nodes

These lesions are indicative of infective endocarditis.

63
Q

What type of heart murmur is described as continuous and machine-like?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

This murmur is characteristic of a patent ductus arteriosus.

64
Q

What does rib notching on chest X-ray indicate?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

Rib notching occurs due to erosion from collateral circulation.

65
Q

What type of murmur is associated with aortic stenosis?

A

Crescendo-decrescendo murmur

This is a characteristic sound in aortic stenosis.

66
Q

What pulse characteristic is associated with aortic stenosis?

A

Slow rising pulse

This pulse pattern is indicative of aortic stenosis.

67
Q

What is the relationship between alcohol and dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Alcohol/dilated cardiomyopathy leads to pan-systolic murmur (mitral regurgitation)

Alcohol use can contribute to the development of dilated cardiomyopathy.

68
Q

What type of murmur is indicative of aortic regurgitation?

A

Early diastolic murmur

This murmur occurs during the early phase of diastole.

69
Q

What is indicated by diminished or absent lower limb pulses?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

This finding suggests reduced blood flow due to coarctation.

70
Q

What does radio-femoral delay suggest?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

This delay is a classic sign of aortic coarctation.

71
Q

What does radio-radial delay indicate?

A

Coarctation or aortic dissection

This finding requires further investigation for diagnosis.

72
Q

What does MRS ASS stand for?

A

Mitral Regurgitation Systolic, Aortic Stenosis Systolic

These are types of systolic murmurs.

73
Q

What type of murmur radiates to the neck?

A

Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis

This radiating pattern is characteristic of aortic stenosis.

74
Q

What should be done if endocarditis is suspected with a positive blood culture for bovis?

A

Colonoscopy

This is necessary as colon cancer is the most likely cause of infective endocarditis in such cases.

75
Q

What is a symptom of aortic dissection?

A

Sudden tearing/ripping chest pain, radiates to back

This type of pain is characteristic of an aortic dissection.

76
Q

What does a soft S1 indicate?

A

Mitral regurgitation

This finding suggests a problem with mitral valve closure.

77
Q

What does a soft S2 indicate?

A

Aortic stenosis

This finding may suggest a problem with aortic valve closure.

78
Q

What are the symptoms of mitral stenosis?

A

Malar flush, atrial fibrillation

These symptoms are associated with mitral stenosis.

79
Q

What are the Jones criteria for rheumatic heart disease?

A

Migratory polyarthritis, carditis, subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum

These criteria are used for diagnosis of rheumatic fever.

80
Q

What do X and Y descents in JVP indicate?

A

Signs of heart failure; constrictive pericarditis

These descents are observed in the jugular venous pressure waveform.

81
Q

What causes mitral stenosis?

A

CRAP: congenital, rheumatic, and prosthetic valve

These are common causes of mitral stenosis.

82
Q

What type of murmur is associated with mitral stenosis?

A

Mid-diastolic rumbling murmur

This murmur occurs during diastole.

83
Q

What does a large ‘y’ wave and raised JVP indicate?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

This finding is indicative of tricuspid valve dysfunction.

84
Q

What is the tetralogy of Fallot characterized by?

A

RVH, ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta

It is the commonest cause of congenital cyanotic heart disease.

85
Q

What is a side effect of ACE inhibitors?

A

Dry cough

This is a common side effect that may necessitate discontinuation.

86
Q

What is contraindicated in renal artery stenosis?

A

ACE inhibitors

Use of ACE inhibitors can worsen renal function in this condition.

87
Q

What does a collapsing pulse indicate?

A

Aortic regurgitation

This pulse characteristic is often seen in aortic regurgitation.

88
Q

What does a machine-like murmur indicate?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

This murmur occurs when the ductus arteriosus fails to close.

89
Q

What is another symptom of aortic stenosis?

A

Slow rising pulse

This is a repeated characteristic indicating severe aortic stenosis.

90
Q

What are splinter hemorrhages associated with?

A

Infective endocarditis

These are small, linear streaks found under the nails.

91
Q

What is the main cause of infective endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

This organism is a common pathogen in infective endocarditis.

92
Q

What organism is associated with infective endocarditis after dental surgery?

A

Streptococcus viridans

This organism is part of the normal flora of the mouth.

93
Q

What is an atrial myxoma?

A

A noncancerous tumor in the heart

It most often grows on the wall that separates the two sides of the heart.

94
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Collection of blood/fluid/pus/clots/gas around the heart

This condition prevents heart contractions and is a medical emergency.

95
Q

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

A

Pain relief; NSAIDs

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are commonly used.

96
Q

What is found on examination in cases of left-sided heart failure (6)

A

Mitral regurgitation
Displaced apex
Tachycardia
Bilateral and basal crackles
3rd heart sound
Tachypnoea

97
Q

What conduction is associated with a triphasic systolic and diastolic murmur

A

acute pericarditis

98
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade (3)

A

Distended heart sounds
Distended JVP
Low blood pressure

99
Q

Which side of murmurs are loud on expiration/inspiration

A

left sided - expiration
Right sided - inspiration

100
Q

What condition is likely if there is a positive Murphy’s sign

A

Cholecystitis

101
Q

What are pale stools, jaundice, and abdominal pain signs of

A

Biliary obstruction

102
Q

What are the signs of portal hypertension and ascites (3)

A

abdominal distension
Capet medusae
Shifting dullness

103
Q

What do tinkling bowel sounds indicate

A

Bowel obstruction

104
Q

What are vesicular rashes and weight loss signs of

A

Coeliac disease

105
Q

Rice water like stools are signs of what infection

A

vibrio cholera

106
Q

What is present in cases of primary biliary cirrhosis

A

anti-mitochondrial antibodies

107
Q

What is present in autoimmune hepatitis

A

anti smooth muscle antibodies

108
Q

In what condition is cobblestone mucosa found in

A

Crohn’s disease (deep fissuring ulceration of mucosa)

109
Q

What diuretic can be used to treat ascites

A

spironolactone

110
Q

What does a corkscrew oesophagus on barium swallow suggest

A

diffuse oesophageal spasm

111
Q

Conditions are Mallory’s hyaline bodies present in (2)

A

alcoholic liver disease
Chronic active hepatitis

112
Q

What are crypt abscesses and cryptitis a sign of

113
Q

What are onion skinning fibrosis and beading of bile ducts signs of

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

114
Q

Thumb-printing on X ray suggests what

A

ischaemic colitis

115
Q

What are the signs of acute cholangitis (3)

A

fever
Jaundice
Abdominal pain

116
Q

What is Virchow’s node

A

a lymph node in the left supra-clavicular fossa
Suggests gastric malignancy

117
Q

What is a side effect of spironolactone

A

gynaecomastia

118
Q

What time of mouth disease to patients with Crohn’s have

A

Stomatitis gangrenosum

119
Q

Which bacteria produce endotoxins/endotoxins

A

Negative - endotoxin
Positive - exotoxin

120
Q

What receptors do IgE bind to in order to initiate a response

121
Q

Where is the trachea palpated

A

Jugular notch

122
Q

Which nerve supplies the rectum

A

Pudendal (s2,3, and 4)

123
Q

Which antibiotic is used for gram positive cover

A

Vancomycin

124
Q

What pattern of inheritance does the CF gene follow

A

Autosomal recessive

125
Q

Which bone has no articulations in the body

A

hyoid bone

126
Q

What is the role of 2,3-DPG

A

An acid that helps bind oxygen
Reduced amounts of this acid results in more dissociation

127
Q

What are the cranial foraminae

A

Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
Optical canal
Superior orbital fissure
Foramen rotundum
Foramen ovale
Internal acoustic meatus
Jugular foramen
Hypoglossal foramen

128
Q

What are the spirometry readings in asthma

A

FVC normal
FEV1 reduced
ratio reduced

129
Q

What are the spirometry readings in COPD

A

FVC reduced
FEV1 reduced
Ratio normal

130
Q

What are the spirometry readings in restrictive airway diseases

A

FVC reduced
FEV1 reduced
Ratio normal

131
Q

What is type II respiratory failure

A

low oxygen levels with high carbon dioxide levels