Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine year 1 > Vascular and ischaemic disease > Flashcards

Vascular and ischaemic disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of peripheral vascular disease

A

Intermittent claudication
Chronic limb-threatening ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does intermittent claudication occur

A

When there is not sufficient blood flow to exercising muscle due to atherosclerosis in arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the features of intermittent claudication (2)

A

Cramp-like pain on exercise
Pain relieved by rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does chronic limb threatening ischaemia occur

A

When there is insufficient blood supply to a limb to maintain viability of that limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic limb threatening ischaemia (8)

A

Pain at rest
Ulcers
Gangrene
Limb cold to touch
Absence of peripheral pulses
Colour changes
Poor tissue nutrition
Venous guttering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What investigations are used for peripheral vascular disease (4)

A

Pulse
Ankle-brachial pressure index
Duplex
Angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What types of secondary prevention are used for peripheral vascular disease (6)

A

Weight loss
Blood pressure control
Diabetes control
Exercise
Smoking cessation
Antiplatelet and statin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is assessed before arterial reconstruction is used to manage peripheral vascular disease (2)

A

For inflow surgery: If there is adequate blood flow to the affected segment
For outflow surgery: If arteries open up beyond the blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the determinants of blood pressure (3)

A

Cardiac output
Peripheral vascular resistance
Blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the determinants of hypertension (3)

A

Changes in cardiovascular control mechanisms
Genetics
Lifestyle
Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two types of hypertension

A

Primary and secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe primary hypertension (3)

A

No single cause
Due to a complex interaction of genetic and environmental factors
Most common form of hypertension in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe secondary hypertension (3)

A

Single cause
Removal/reversal of cause leads to normalisation of blood pressure
Most common form of hypertension in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are risk factors for primary hypertension (6)

A

Obesity
Age
Smoking
Genetics
High alcohol intake
High salt intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two sub-types of hypertension

A

Benign
Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe benign hypertension (2)

A

Stable, long-term elevation of blood pressure
Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe malignant hypertension

A

Acute and severe elevation of blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the symptoms of hypertension (5)

A

Headaches
Blurred vision
Nausea /vomiting
Chest pain
Altered mental state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What consequences can arise from hypertension (3)

A

Cerebral oedema
Haemorrhage
Organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is white coat hypertension

A

Hypertension that only exists when blood pressure is measured during medical consultations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can hypertension be classified

A

In order of increasing severity
Stage one to three
Stage one 140/90
Stage three 180/110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What tests are offered to patients with hypertension (4)

A

Urine testing (protein)
Blood testing
12 lead ECG
Examination of fundi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is analysed in the blood for a patient with hypertension (5)

A

Glucose
Cholesterol
Electrolytes
Creatinine
Glomerular filtration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why are fundi examined in patients with hypertension

A

For hypertensive retinopathy

25
Q

What hypertension-mediated organ damage can occur (4)

A

Left ventricular Hypertrophy
Raised creatinine
Albuminuria
Retinopathy

26
Q

What is the target blood pressure for patients under 80 (clinic and daytime)

A

140/90 mmHg
135/85 mmHg

27
Q

What is the target blood pressure for patients 80 years and over (clinic and daytime)

A

150/90 mmHg
145/85 mmHg

28
Q

What lifestyle interventions are used to manage hypertension (3)

A

Smoking cessation
Exercise
Dietary modifications

29
Q

What dietary modifications are made to manage hypertension (3)

A

Limiting intake of alcohol, caffeine, and salt

30
Q

What is the first step of medical interventions for hypertension

A

If under 55 or diabetic: ACE inhibitor
If over 55 or of African/Caribbean ethnicity: DHP-calcium channel blocker

31
Q

When would ARB be used to treat hypertension

A

if the patient is unable to tolerate an ACE inhibitor

32
Q

What is step 2 of medical intervention for hypertension + when would it be used

A

If maximal dose of step 1 has failed/not been tolerated
A combination of a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor/ARB should be used

33
Q

What is step 3 of medical intervention for hypertension and when should it be used

A

when maximal dose of step two has failed/not been tolerated
Addition of thiazide like diuretics

34
Q

What is step four of medical intervention for hypertension if blood potassium is lower than 4.5 mol/L

A

Adding spironolactone

35
Q

What is step four of medical intervention for hypertension if blood potassium is greater than 4.5 mol/L

A

Increasing thiazide-like diuretic dose
(Or alpha blockers/beta blockers)

36
Q

When are statins used in primary prevention of hypertension

A

if ten-year cardiovascular risk is greater than 20%

37
Q

What could an uncontrolled drop in blood pressure lead to

A

Ischaemic stroke due to poor cerebral auto-regulation and perfusion

38
Q

What is the first line of treatment for malign hypertension

A

calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine

39
Q

What is deep venous thrombosis

A

When a thrombus is formed in deep venous circulation

40
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism

A

When a thrombus becomes embolism and lodges in pulmonary circulation

41
Q

What is venous thromboembolic disease

A

a term that includes both deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism

42
Q

What are the two types of deep vein thrombosis

A

distal DVT (calves)
Proximal DVT (popliteal/femoral veins)

43
Q

How is the severity of DVT judged

A

by clinical assessment

44
Q

Where at DVTs likely to occur (2)

A

In venous valve pockets
Sites of stasis

45
Q

Describe the clots formed in DVT

A

Rich in fibrin

46
Q

What are the symptoms of DVT (6)

A

limb pain
Swollen limb
Redness
Heat
Tenderness along vein
Distension of superficial veins

47
Q

How is DVT treated

A

anticoagulants (direct, vitamin K antagonists, or low molecular weight heparin injections)

48
Q

How is the severity of a pulmonary embolism assessed (2)

A

PESI score
Patient’s characteristics

49
Q

What are the symptoms of pulmonary embolism (4)

A

shortness of breath
Pleuritic pain
Collapse
Haemoptysis
Hypoxia
Tachycardia
Low blood pressure

50
Q

How are pulmonary embolism managed (2)

A

high risk - thrombolysis then oral anticoagulant
Medium/low risk - oral anticoagulant

51
Q

What complication can arise from pulmonary embolism + what is this associated with (2)

A

Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
Associated with dyspnoea and hypoxaemia

52
Q

What risk is associated with chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH)

A

heart failure

53
Q

what is D-dimer

A

A product of cross-linked fibrin breakdown

54
Q

Why is d-dimer valuable as a first line screening test for VTE (2)

A

It has a high negative predictive value for VTE
It has a low positive predictive value for VTE

55
Q

What is the duration of treatment for provoked VTE (2)

A

with reversible factor: 3-6 months
With irreversible factor: could be lifetime

56
Q

When can post-thrombotic syndrome occur

A

after idiopathic DVT

57
Q

What are the symptoms of post-thrombotic syndrome (3)

A

pain
Oedema
Hyperpigmentation
Eczema
Varicose collateral veins
Venous ulceration

58
Q

What is Virchow’s triad

A

hypercoagulation
Endothelial injury
Abnormal blood flow (Stasis)

59
Q
A

Medicine year 1 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions