Test 1 - Cards Flashcards
Superficial back muscles (trap, levator, rhomboids, lat, serratus anterior) are innervated by what (in general)?
Ventral rami
In general, the deep back muscles, or the intrinsic/epaxial/paraspinal muscles, are all innervated by what?
Dorsal rami
Which 2 deep back muscles touch the occipital bone?
Splenius capitis
Splenius cervicis
What are the 3 erector spinae mm.?
Spinalis
Longissimus
Iliocostalis
Where are the transversospinalis mm and what 3 do you need to know?
Underneath splenius
Multifidus
Rotatores
Semispinalis
Going up the spine: MRS
What are the 4 suboccipital mm, where are they, and what do they do, and what innervates them?
*All are innervated by suboccipital n (C1 - dorsal ramus)
Rectus capitis posterior minor - Diagonal just medial to rectus capitis posterior major - rotate head to same side
Rectus capitis posterior major - Diagonal just lateral to rectus capitis posterior minor - rotate head to same side
Obliquus capitis inferior - most inferior muscle runs diagonal - rotate head to same side
Obliquus capitits superior - Most lateral muscle - Tilt to same side, rotates to opposite side
Synarthroses are what type of joints?
Immovable joints
EX
- Sutures
- Gomphoses
- Hy Syn (Hyaline, synchondroses)
Sympheses have what type of cartilage?
Fibrocartilage
-Fib symph
Diarthroses are what type fo joints?
Freely movable
-Synovial
Levator scapulae and both rhomboids are innervated by what?
Dorsal scapular n. - C5
Serratus anterior is innervated by what nerve?
Long thoracic n. - C5, C6, C7
Nerve to subclavius goes to what muscle?
Subclavius - C5, C6
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus are innervated by what nerve?
Suprascapular - C4, C5, C6
Latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve?
Thoracodorsal nerve - C6, C7, C8
Upper and lower subscapular nn innervate what muscle?
Subscapularis
The CNS is composed of what?
Brain and spinal cord
The PNS is composed of what?
CNs and spinal nerves
The somatic system controls what?
Voluntary, conscious movement
The ANS controls what and what are the 2 divisions?
Subconscious movements
Parasympathetic
—Rest and digest
Sympathetic
—Fight or flight
Where does the spinal cord end (cauda equina)? What vertebral position?
L1-L2
What is the vertebral column formula?
C7-T12-L5-S5
Nervous vertebral column formula?
C8-T12-L5-S5
Nerves C1-C7 emerge above cervical vertebrae
C8 and nerves below emerge below corresponding vertebral level
What are the 2 layers of the dura mater?
Periosteal
Meningeal
Dentate ligaments are what meningeal layer?
Pia
What are housed in the gray matter of the spinal cord?
Cell bodies
White matter is enriched for axons
What is the tree analogy for spinal nerves?
Roots
Trunk
Branches
What is the DAVE mnemonic?
Dorsal afferent
Ventral efferent
Nerve two way traffic happens where?
Trunks and rami
Ventral rami serves what?
Body wall and limbs
Dorsal rami serves what?
Deep back mm, skin on back
Dermatomes:
- C2
- C4
- C5
- C6
- C7
- C8
- T1
- T4
- T7
- T10
- L1
Occipital Collar (Rhymes...but not) Lat shoulder Thumb Middle finger (no heaven) Little finger Medial elbow Nipple Xiphoid Umbilicus Inguinal
Myotomes:
- C5
- C6
- C7
- C8
- T1
Shoulder abduction Elbow flexion, wrist extension Elbow extension Wrist flexion, thumb abduction Finger abduction/adduction
Sympathetic pathways have a ________ pre-gang neuron and a _________ post-gang neuron, while parasympathetic pathways have a _________ pre-gang neuron and a __________ post-gang neuron.
Short, long
Long, short
Sympathetics come from what levels of the spinal cord?
T1-L2
Parasympathetics come from where?
Brain stem and S2-S4
DRGs are formed from what embryonic tissues?
Neural crest cells
Preaortic ganglia are found in what system?
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic ganglia directly on the effector organ are called what?
Intramural ganglion
What is in the superior mediastinum?
SVC Brachiocephalics Aortic arch Brachiocephalic artery Left common carotid Left subclavian Esophagus Trachea
What is in the inferior mediastinum?
Thymus
What is in the posterior mediastinum?
D desc aorta A azygos veins T thoracic duct E esophagus S sympathetic trunk
The hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos are on what side of the body and what levels?
Left
Accessory - T4-T7
Hemi - T8-T12
Feed into azygos vein -> SVC
Sympathetic splanchnic levels?
Greater
Lesser
Least
Where do they synapse?
Greater - T5-T9
Lesser - T10-T11
Least - T12
Pre-aortic ganglion
The layers of the pericardium are what from deep to superficial?
Serous visceral pericardium
Serous parietal pericardium
Fibrous parietal pericardium
The lub is from what?
The dub is from what?
Lub - S1, contracting ventricles caused the AV valves to snap shut
Dub - S2, relaxing ventricles caused semilunar valves to snap shut
All physicians take money auscultations and S1 and S2 auscultations.
Aortic valve - Right of sternum - 2nd intercostal space
Pulmonary valve - Left of sternum - 2nd intercostal space
Tricuspid valve - Left of sternum - 4th intercostal space
Mitral (bicuspid) valve - Left midclavicular - 5th intercostal space
Coronary circulation.
Aortic arch
-LCA - Left coronary a
—LCXA - Left circumflex a
—LAD (AIA - Ant interventricular a)
-RCA - Right coronary a (If RCA supplies PDA, then its a right dominant heart 67% of population)
—RMA - Right marginal a
—PDA (PIA - Posterior interventricular a)
Great cardiac vein->Coronary sinus->RA
Middle cardiac vein (post)->Coronary sinus->RA
Sympathetic innervation to the heart from what?
Thoracic sympathetic cardiac nerve OR cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve
T1-T4/T5
Symp chain
Cervical and thoracic symp nn
Increase heart rate and contraction
Parasympathetic innvervation of the heart?
Vagus
Intramural gang
Electrical progression of heart beat.
SA->AV->Bundle of His
Name the 4 regions of parietal pleura.
Cervical
Costal
Diaphragmatic
Mediastinal
What is the space b/t diaphragm and the body wall?
Costodiaphragmatic recess
What is the only somatic nerve that refers pain?
Phrenic nerve
The parietal pleura has what innervation?
Somatic
C3, 4, and 5 keep what alive?
Diaphragm
_______ nerve innervates the diaphragm.
PHRENIC
Visceral pleura has what innervation?
Autonomic, stretch receptors only
Right lung has what fissures?
Oblique (So does left)
Horizontal
______ nerve does parasympathetic for bronchoconstriction of the bronchus and lungs?
VAGUS
What is the primary muscle of respiration?
Diaphragm
What are the accessory mm of breathing?
Intercostals
Serratus anterior
Scalenes
SCM
Which type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium?
Fibrocartilage
Proteoglycans are made of what?
Chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronic acid
Collagen type I
Collagen type II
Collagen type III
I - Most abundant; skin, tendons, ligaments, bone
II - Least abundant; articular and hyaline cartilages, eyes
III - Middle abundant; intestinal walls, mm, blood vessels, with collagen type I
Hyaline cartilage - collagen type?
Type II only
Fibrocartilage - collagen type?
Type I and II
Elastic cartilage - collagen type?
Elastic fibers and type II
**Elastin
Loss of ________ ________ in cartilage contributes to pathogenesis of osteoarthritis.
Chondroitin sulfate
What is the most widespread cartilage?
Hyaline
*Weakest of the 3
What cartilage has the ability to calcify into bone?
Hyaline
-It is the precursor to endochondral ossification
What is the strongest kind of cartilage?
Fibrocartilage
*Highly compressible
Where is elastic cartilage found?
Ext ear
Eustachian tube
Epiglottis
Cartilage is ________, while bone is highly ___________.
Avascular
Vascularized
Osteoclasts attach to bone via what?
Integrity in areas called sealing zones
Osteoclasts are activated indirectly by what?
PTH
- Osteoblasts fuse with osteoclasts precursors and express RANK
- PTH binding up-regs osteoblast expression of the ligand for RANK, RANKL.
What determines the extent of bone resorption?
Ratio of osteoprotegerin:RANKL produced by osteoblasts
What does PTH do?
Secreted by CHIEF cells
- Mobilizes Ca2+ from bone
- Increases urinary PO4+ excretion
Activated VitD does what?
Increases CA2+ absorption from intestine
Increases Ca2+ in bone
What does calcitonin do?
Released by PARAFOLLICULAR CELLS (C cells)
Inhibits bone resorption
Bone protector
In general, Vit D does what for Ca2+?
Increases Ca2+ reuptake in gut
90% of body’s vit D is obtained by what?
Sunlight activation of Vit D precursors in the skin
What is the active form of vitamin D?
Calcitriol
Good or bad for bones:
Glucocorticoids
Growth hormone
Estrogens
Insulin
Glucocorticoids - Bad
GH - Good
Estrogens - Good
Insulin - Good
Defective bone matrix calcification due to vitamin D and/or Ca2+ deficiency is called _________ in children or ___________ in adults.
Rickets
Osteomalacia
Osteopetrosis is what?
Osteoporosis is what?
Osteopetrosis - Defective osteoclasts, so osteoblasts operate unhindered
Osteoporosis - Excess osteoclast activity
Skeletal muscle contraction steps.
AP thru motor neuron
ACh release at neuromuscular junction
Local depolarization occurs (End plate potential)
EPP triggers AP into t-tubules
AP triggers Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum
Ca2+ binds troponin which shifts tropomyosin and exposes the binding site on actin
Myosin binds and contraction occurs
ATP recocks the myosin. Cytoplasmic Ca2+ pumped back into SR - dependent upon ATP
Besides cytosolic ATP, there are 3 sources of energy for muscle contraction. Name and describe them.
Creatine phosphate - 1 ATP per CP molecule, provides 15 seconds of energy, no O2 req’d
Glycogenolysis/Anaerobic respiration - 2 ATP per glucose, 30-60 seconds of energy, no O2 req’d
Aerobic respiration - 38 ATP per glucose, hours of energy, O2 req’d
What is a twitch?
Muscle to a single AP on its motor neuron
What is the threshold?
Minimum voltage necessary to produce contraction
Phases of twitch. Name and describe them.
Latent - delay b/t stimulus and onset of twitch
Contraction - tension develops and muscle shortens
Relaxation - loss of tension and return to resting length
Refractory - muscle will not respond to new stimulus
What is recruitment?
Increasing the strength of the stimulus at a constant frequency to recruit add’l motor units which increases the tension developed
What is wave summation?
Increasing the frequency of a stimulus held at a constant intensity
What is treppe?
Prepping the muscle for tetanus. Increased CA2+ ions in cytosol and incomplete time to recapture the ions
What is tetanus?
Prolonged contraction w/o relaxation from repeated stimulations so fast that the muscle can’t relax
Isotonic vs isometric?
Isotonic - force generated by muscle is greater than the load - muscle shortens
Isometric - load exceeds the tension - muscle doesn’t shorten
What are type I motor units?
Slow twitch - used in prolonged activity
What are type IIa fibers?
Fast twitch - recruited to supplement type I fibers - sprinting
What are type IIb fibers?
Further supplement types I and II
Reflexes have 6 basic components
Sensory receptor
Afferent neuron
CNS
Interneuron
Efferent (motor) neuron
Effector (muscle)
What is the stretch reflex?
Initiate at muscle spindles - sensitive to length of muscle as it is stretched
Extrafusal muscle fibers are fibers of what?
Muscle fibers of actual muscle
-Innervated by alpha-motor neurons
Intrafusal fibers are what?
Intrafusal muscle fibers are muscle fibers of the muscle spindle
-Innervated by gamma-motor neurons
What are the 2 subtypes of intrafusal fibers?
Nuclear bag fibers
-Detect fast, dynamic changes in muscle length
—Innervated by type Ia afferents (fast)
Nuclear chain fibers
-Detect static changes in length and tension
—Innervated by type II afferents and type Ia afferents
GTOs depolarize in response to the tendon being stretched, but _______ the alpha motor neuron.
INHIBIT
*GTO reflex is a protective feedback mech to prevent tendon damage
The finer movement req’d, the _________ the number of muscle spindles in a muscle.
Greater
Stretch reflex is __-synaptic, what is the stimulus, what fibers, what response?
Mono
Muscle stretched
Ia
Contraction of muscle
Golgi tendon reflex
__-synaptic, what stimulus, what fibers, what response.
Di
Muscle contracts
Ib
Relaxation of muscle
What happens during systole?
What happens during diastole?
Ventricles contract
Ventricles fill with blood
What is heart sound 1 (S1)?
What is heart sound 2 (S2)?
Lub - Closure of AV valves (tri and mi/bi) - beginning of ventricular contraction
Dub - Closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) - beginning of ventricular diastole
Tri before you Bi/Mi
What is the pathway for electric conduction of the heartbeat?
SA node -> AV node -> His bundle -> Bundle branches -> Purkinje fibers -> Ventricles
*These are the pacemaker cells. There are other cells, called working myocardial cells that are the majority of the heart muscle mass and help with contraction and relaxation
In pacemakers cells, there is not fast inward _______ current, but rather a slower ______ inward current (depol).
Na+
Ca2+
What is cardiac output?
Stroke volume X Heart rate
SV - End diastolic volume - End systolic volume (~70-80 mL)
HR - Heart rate in beats per minute (60-100 bpm)
What is TPR?
Sum of resistance of all peripheral vasculature in the circulatory system
What is blood pressure?
CO X TPR
What is the Bainbridge reflex?
Atrial reflex
-Stretch receptors in atria respond to increases in blood volume by INCREASING heart rate
*If right atrial BP is high, then the bainbridge reflex is dominant
What is the baroreceptor reflex?
Corrects for increase in blood pressure by DECREASING heart rate as needed.
*If arterial BP is high, then baroreceptor reflex is dominant
Tachycardia vs bradycardia?
Tachycardia - HR >100 bpm
Bradycardia - HR <60 bpm
What is a lead?
Electrical potential difference b/t 2 electrodes
Explain the ECG.
P - Atrial depol
PR - Time for signal to move from atria to ventricles (slight delay in AV node so that ventricles can fill
QRS - Vent depol; atrial repol is drowned out
ST - Ventricular AP plateau
T - Vent repol
PR interval?
QT interval?
ST segment?
QRS wave?
RR interval?
PR - AP conduction for atria to ventricles
QT - Average AP duration in ventricles
ST - Myocardial infarction from an elevation or depression
QRS - Time for AP to propagate thru ventricles
RR - Faster HR, shorter RR interval
T wave inversion means what?
ST elevation means what?
Exaggerated Q waves mean what?
ST depression means what?
Ischemia
Leads directly over area of acute infarction
Infarction that develops with time
Ischemia
What is the equation for Einthoven’s law?
Lead I + Lead III = Lead II
1st degree AV block - do what?
Just watch and see
Typically benign
2nd degree AV block (type I) - do what?
If symptomatic, treated with atropine (inhibits parasympathetic signals)
2nd degree AV block (Type II) - do what?
Pacemaker and cardiac monitoring
3rd degree (Complete) AV block - do what?
Neds PACEMAKER IMMEDIATELY
What is bulk flow?
Movement of protein-free, fluids, electrolytes, and WATER soluble substances (ions, glucose, AAs) thru pores/holes
Does vesicular transport require ATP?
YES.
*Transcytosis
—Enocytosis -> vesicular transport -> exocytosis
Tell me the 3 types of capillaries.
Continuous
-Tight structure, reduces bulk flow
Fenestrated
-Middle amount of flow
Discontinuous
-Largest amt of flow
Starling forces
What two favor filtration? What is filtration?
What two favor resorption? Wha this resorption?
Filtration - from blood into interstitium - F BHP IFOP
—Blood hydrostatic pressure
—Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure
Resorption - from interstitium into blood - R BOP IFHP(Osmotic)
—Blood oncotic pressure
—Interstitial fluid hydrostatic (osmotic) pressure
Starling’s Law Equation
Net force = (HPc + OPif) - (HPif + OPc)
HPc - Cap hydrostatic pressure
OPif - interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
HPif - interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
OPc - capillary oncotic pressure
Arteriolar end of capillary is what?
Net filtration - OUT
Venous end of capillary is what?
Net resorption - IN
What are 4 potential causes of edema?
Increased capillary blood pressure
Decreased plasma colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure
Increased capillary permeability
Obstruction/Disruption of lymphatics (lymphedema)
Excess lymph fluid leads to what?
Lymphedema leads to CT proliferation and fibrosis - scarring
3 types of cytoskeleton components. Name them and tell me what makes them up and functions.
Microfilaments - Actin - Form tracks for myosin
Intermediate filaments - protein fibers (cytokeratin) woven like a rope - anchor, structure
Microtubules - Tubulin - Kinesins (monorail system); Dynein (cilia and flagella)
What are tight junctions?
Zonal occludens
BIND TO ACTIN MICROFILAMENTS
What are adhesive junctions?
Zonula adherens
—Cadherins (outside) and Catinins (inside)
What are focal adhesions?
Hold cells to ECM
—Integrins
What are desmosomes?
Cell-Cell adhesion
-Attach to INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS
What are hemidesmosomes?
Cell-ECM/BSMT Membrane
—Attach to intermediate filaments
What is the most abundant protein in the body?
COLLAGEN
—Proline and lysine rich
Elastin does what?
Gives elasticity
In sheets or fibers
Ground substance is made of what?
Proteoglycans and glycoproteins
—Highly hydrated
Proteoglycans are made by what?
Fibroblasts
—Protein core with GAG chains
—Strong negative charge and are hydrophilic
What are glycoproteins?
Proteins with carb side chains attached
What is the most abundant CT?
Loose CT
—More cells and ground substance; fewer fibers
What does dense irregular CT do?
Multi-directional structure
Dense regular CT makes up what?
Tendons and ligaments
What is the definition of partial pressure?
Pressure of an individual gas in a given volume at a constant temp
—Summative force exerted by the collision of gas molecules at the alveolar surface at any given time
Respiratory gases are highly soluble in lipids, thus _________ diffusion is the limiting factor.
Aqueous
How does the body detect changes in pH?
Detects an increase in CO2 in the blood, no O2 receptors in the body
The amount of O2 in the alveoli at a given time is controlled by 2 factors.
1 - ventilation from breathing
2 - rate of absorption from the blood
Ventilation/Perfusion Ratio
What is normal?
When does it approach 1?
When does it approach 0?
When does it approach infinity?
0.8
Exercise
No ventilation - No breathing/death - when approaching 0 it is called physiologic shunt (blood there, but not enough air to perfuse)
No blood perfusion - pulmonary embolism - when moving away from 0 it is called physiologic dead space (air there, but can’t do much b/c perfusion is so low)
How does gravity play a role in the ventilation perfusion ratio?
The apex of the lung will have more physiologic dead space, while the base of the lung will have a physiologic shunt.
*Exercise minimizes these however
Delivery of O2 to tissues is dependent on what 2 things?
Cardiac output X arterial O2 content
RBCs bind more O2 molecules when the partial pressure of O2 is ________.
HIGH
**Greater O2 = more affinity for hb binding of O2
Low partial pressures of O2 favor the _________ of O2.
DISASSOCIATION
*When one has plenty of O2, RBCs tend to load O2, but when one needs O2, it is unloaded and diffuses into tissues
**Low O2 = hb unloads
A right shift in the O2 disassociation curve means what?
A left shift in the curve means what?
Decreased affinity - hb is getting rid of O2
Increased affinity - hb is hoovering O2
What is the Haldane effect?
What is the Bohr effect?
Haldane - Deoxy blood has an increased ability to carry CO2
Bohr - how pH and CO2 affect the blood capacity for carrying O2
*High CO2 = increased CO2 affinity (deoxy hb)
**High CO2 = low pH, decreased O2 affinity
What is physiological pH?
- 4
7. 35-7.45
Strong acids _______ disassociate in soln.
Completely
Weak acids ________ a few of their H+/OH- ions.
Donate
*They act as buffers.
Lungs can take care of what type of acids?
Volatile - Carbonic acid
Kidneys can take care of what types of acid?
All non-volatile, some volatile
The kidneys can produce a “new” HCO3- by metabolizing ________ , which breaks down into ammonium and HCO3-.
GLUTAMINE
Henderson-Hasselbach equation
pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]
If ratio of A- to HA is equal, then pH is equal to pKa
Buffers don’t change pH per se, b/c why?
They don’t dispose of H+ or OH- ions, they just soften the blow
*Buffers are most effective when pH-pKa
What buffers the ECF?
What buffers the ICF?
What buffers the proteins?
ECF - Bicarb
ICF - PO4 (also the tubules of the kidneys
Proteins - (-) charged and absorb free H+ ions, maintaining pH
Respiratory acidosis/alkalosis. Explain it and responses to it.
Increases in blood CO2 (hypoventilation, pneumonia) - Acidosis - Response: Increased renal excretion of H+, increased respiration
Decreases in blood CO2 (hyperventilation) - Alkalosis - Response: Decreased renal excretion, decreased respiration
Metabolic acidosis/alkalosis.
Acidosis - Due to loss of HCO3-, diarrhea, Response: Increased ventilation to remove CO2
Alkalosis - Due to retention of HCO3-, throwing up, Response: Respiratory depression
The upper respiratory tract consists of what?
The lower respiratory tract consists of what?
Nasal cavity to start of larynx
Larynx to lungs
Expanding the lungs makes the pleural cavity ___________ to atmospheric pressure. Shrinking the lungs makes the pleural cavity _________ to atmospheric pressure.
Negative
Positive
What is the order of air conduction items?
Bronchus
Bronchioles
Term bronchioles
-All these are ciliated. Structures below are nonciliated
—————-Gas Exchange—————
Res bronchioles
Alveolar duct
Alveolar sac
Alveolus
Type I pneumocytes does what?
Make the thin membrane for gas exchange
What do type II pneumocytes do?
Make surfactant
What are dust cells?
Macrophages located in the alveoli
Cholesterol is _______ in the plasma membrane, but _________ in mitochondrial membranes.
Abundant
Absent (essentially absent)
Integral proteins in membranes. Types I - VI.
I - Transmembrane with COO- to cytosol
II - Transmembrane with NH3+ to cytosol
III - Multiple transmembranes, but single polypeptide
IV - Multiple transmembranes, but separate polypeptides
V - Poly peptide anchored
VI - Polypeptide transmembrane and anchored
Lat diffusion (lat movement of single lipid molecules on the same side of the lipid bilayer happens _______ and ___________.
Fast; frequent
Flippase does what?
Floppase does what?
Scramblase does what?
Flip - Out to in
Flop - In to out
Scramblase - Either direction, towards EQ
Animals in a cold ocean have a __________ membrane.
FLUID
What are lipid rafts?
Membrane micro domains that compartmentalize cellular processes by organizing signaling molecules, influencing fluidity, etc.
What is the glucose transporter of Glucose in erythrocytes?
GLUT1
What is an uniport?
What is a symport?
What is an antipor?
Uni - 1 substance, one direction (conc gradient)
Sym - 2 substances, same direction (conc gradient)
Anti - 2 substances, opposite directions (ATP)
All AAs are chiral except which one?
GLYCINE
When a protein is denatured, what structure stays?
PRIMARY
What is the site where APs are summated before being transmitted to the axon?
Axon hilock
What are the 4 types of CNS cells?
Ependymal - Lining
Oligodendrocytes - Myelinate
Astrocytes - Reuptake of K and NTs (most abundant)
Microglia- Phagocytize
What are the two types of PNS cells?
Schwann - Myelinate
Satellite - Assist
What are monosaccharides and some examples?
Building blocks of disaccharides (sucrose/lactose) and polysaccharides
*Glucose, fructose, and galactose
What is a triose?
Monosaccharide with 3 carbon atoms
Glyceraldehyde - aldotriose
Dihydroxyacetone - ketotriose
What is the most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the body?
Chondroitin sulfate
What has the highest negative charge density of any known biological molecule (it is used as an injectable anticoagulant)?
Heparin
What are glycoproteins?
What are proteoglycans?
Glycoprotein- Protein with oligosaccharide chains covalently attached to their polypeptide side chains.
Proteoglycan - subclass of glycoproteins - made of a core protein with one or more covalently attached GAG chains
What is a lipid raft?
Islands that move in the membrane
—Cholesterol and sphingolipid rich
—Limited fluidity
—Reg signal transduction and endocytosis
What type of endocytosis does not use a lipid raft?
Clathrin-mediated endocytosis
All endocytosis go to what?
Early endosome
—pH decreases along pathway on the way to late endosome, recycling endosome, and lysosome
What is the primary exocrine organelle of the body?
Golgi network
Enzymes used in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are all the same except for a few. Name the different ones.
Gluconeogenesis
—Pyr to Oxaloacetate - pyruvate carboxylase
—Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate - PEP carboxykinase
—Fru 1,6-BiP to fru 6P - Fructose 1,6-BPtase1
What is necessary for reductive biosynthesis (creating FAs) and free rad protection?
NADPH
Mnemonic for infrahyoids sup to deep.
ShOThSt
E1 is what type?
E2?
E3?
E1 - Estrone - Post menopause
E2- Estradiol - Most predominant in the body
E3 - Estriol - During pregnancy
