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HFF > Test 1 - Cards > Flashcards

Test 1 - Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Superficial back muscles (trap, levator, rhomboids, lat, serratus anterior) are innervated by what (in general)?

A

Ventral rami

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2
Q

In general, the deep back muscles, or the intrinsic/epaxial/paraspinal muscles, are all innervated by what?

A

Dorsal rami

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3
Q

Which 2 deep back muscles touch the occipital bone?

A

Splenius capitis

Splenius cervicis

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4
Q

What are the 3 erector spinae mm.?

A

Spinalis

Longissimus

Iliocostalis

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5
Q

Where are the transversospinalis mm and what 3 do you need to know?

A

Underneath splenius

Multifidus

Rotatores

Semispinalis

Going up the spine: MRS

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6
Q

What are the 4 suboccipital mm, where are they, and what do they do, and what innervates them?

A

*All are innervated by suboccipital n (C1 - dorsal ramus)

Rectus capitis posterior minor - Diagonal just medial to rectus capitis posterior major - rotate head to same side

Rectus capitis posterior major - Diagonal just lateral to rectus capitis posterior minor - rotate head to same side

Obliquus capitis inferior - most inferior muscle runs diagonal - rotate head to same side

Obliquus capitits superior - Most lateral muscle - Tilt to same side, rotates to opposite side

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7
Q

Synarthroses are what type of joints?

A

Immovable joints

EX

  • Sutures
  • Gomphoses
  • Hy Syn (Hyaline, synchondroses)
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8
Q

Sympheses have what type of cartilage?

A

Fibrocartilage

-Fib symph

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9
Q

Diarthroses are what type fo joints?

A

Freely movable

-Synovial

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10
Q

Levator scapulae and both rhomboids are innervated by what?

A

Dorsal scapular n. - C5

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11
Q

Serratus anterior is innervated by what nerve?

A

Long thoracic n. - C5, C6, C7

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12
Q

Nerve to subclavius goes to what muscle?

A

Subclavius - C5, C6

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13
Q

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus are innervated by what nerve?

A

Suprascapular - C4, C5, C6

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14
Q

Latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve - C6, C7, C8

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15
Q

Upper and lower subscapular nn innervate what muscle?

A

Subscapularis

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16
Q

The CNS is composed of what?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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17
Q

The PNS is composed of what?

A

CNs and spinal nerves

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18
Q

The somatic system controls what?

A

Voluntary, conscious movement

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19
Q

The ANS controls what and what are the 2 divisions?

A

Subconscious movements

Parasympathetic
—Rest and digest

Sympathetic
—Fight or flight

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20
Q

Where does the spinal cord end (cauda equina)? What vertebral position?

A

L1-L2

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21
Q

What is the vertebral column formula?

A

C7-T12-L5-S5

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22
Q

Nervous vertebral column formula?

A

C8-T12-L5-S5

Nerves C1-C7 emerge above cervical vertebrae

C8 and nerves below emerge below corresponding vertebral level

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23
Q

What are the 2 layers of the dura mater?

A

Periosteal

Meningeal

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24
Q

Dentate ligaments are what meningeal layer?

A

Pia

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25
Q

What are housed in the gray matter of the spinal cord?

A

Cell bodies

White matter is enriched for axons

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26
Q

What is the tree analogy for spinal nerves?

A

Roots

Trunk

Branches

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27
Q

What is the DAVE mnemonic?

A

Dorsal afferent

Ventral efferent

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28
Q

Nerve two way traffic happens where?

A

Trunks and rami

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29
Q

Ventral rami serves what?

A

Body wall and limbs

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30
Q

Dorsal rami serves what?

A

Deep back mm, skin on back

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31
Q

Dermatomes:

  • C2
  • C4
  • C5
  • C6
  • C7
  • C8
  • T1
  • T4
  • T7
  • T10
  • L1
A 
Occipital
Collar (Rhymes...but not)
Lat shoulder
Thumb
Middle finger (no heaven)
Little finger
Medial elbow
Nipple
Xiphoid
Umbilicus
Inguinal
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32
Q

Myotomes:

  • C5
  • C6
  • C7
  • C8
  • T1
A 
Shoulder abduction
Elbow flexion, wrist extension
Elbow extension
Wrist flexion, thumb abduction
Finger abduction/adduction
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33
Q

Sympathetic pathways have a ________ pre-gang neuron and a _________ post-gang neuron, while parasympathetic pathways have a _________ pre-gang neuron and a __________ post-gang neuron.

A

Short, long

Long, short

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34
Q

Sympathetics come from what levels of the spinal cord?

A

T1-L2

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35
Q

Parasympathetics come from where?

A

Brain stem and S2-S4

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36
Q

DRGs are formed from what embryonic tissues?

A

Neural crest cells

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37
Q

Preaortic ganglia are found in what system?

A

Sympathetic

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38
Q

Parasympathetic ganglia directly on the effector organ are called what?

A

Intramural ganglion

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39
Q

What is in the superior mediastinum?

A 
SVC
Brachiocephalics
Aortic arch
Brachiocephalic artery
Left common carotid
Left subclavian
Esophagus
Trachea
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40
Q

What is in the inferior mediastinum?

A

Thymus

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41
Q

What is in the posterior mediastinum?

A 
D desc aorta
A azygos veins
T thoracic duct
E esophagus
S sympathetic trunk
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42
Q

The hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos are on what side of the body and what levels?

A

Left

Accessory - T4-T7

Hemi - T8-T12

Feed into azygos vein -> SVC

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43
Q

Sympathetic splanchnic levels?

Greater

Lesser

Least

Where do they synapse?

A

Greater - T5-T9

Lesser - T10-T11

Least - T12

Pre-aortic ganglion

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44
Q

The layers of the pericardium are what from deep to superficial?

A

Serous visceral pericardium

Serous parietal pericardium

Fibrous parietal pericardium

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45
Q

The lub is from what?

The dub is from what?

A

Lub - S1, contracting ventricles caused the AV valves to snap shut

Dub - S2, relaxing ventricles caused semilunar valves to snap shut

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46
Q

All physicians take money auscultations and S1 and S2 auscultations.

A

Aortic valve - Right of sternum - 2nd intercostal space

Pulmonary valve - Left of sternum - 2nd intercostal space

Tricuspid valve - Left of sternum - 4th intercostal space

Mitral (bicuspid) valve - Left midclavicular - 5th intercostal space

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47
Q

Coronary circulation.

A

Aortic arch
-LCA - Left coronary a
—LCXA - Left circumflex a
—LAD (AIA - Ant interventricular a)

-RCA - Right coronary a (If RCA supplies PDA, then its a right dominant heart 67% of population)
—RMA - Right marginal a
—PDA (PIA - Posterior interventricular a)

Great cardiac vein->Coronary sinus->RA

Middle cardiac vein (post)->Coronary sinus->RA

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48
Q

Sympathetic innervation to the heart from what?

A

Thoracic sympathetic cardiac nerve OR cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve

T1-T4/T5
Symp chain
Cervical and thoracic symp nn
Increase heart rate and contraction

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49
Q

Parasympathetic innvervation of the heart?

A

Vagus

Intramural gang

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50
Q

Electrical progression of heart beat.

A

SA->AV->Bundle of His

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51
Q

Name the 4 regions of parietal pleura.

A

Cervical

Costal

Diaphragmatic

Mediastinal

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52
Q

What is the space b/t diaphragm and the body wall?

A

Costodiaphragmatic recess

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53
Q

What is the only somatic nerve that refers pain?

A

Phrenic nerve

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54
Q

The parietal pleura has what innervation?

A

Somatic

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55
Q

C3, 4, and 5 keep what alive?

A

Diaphragm

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56
Q

_______ nerve innervates the diaphragm.

A

PHRENIC

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57
Q

Visceral pleura has what innervation?

A

Autonomic, stretch receptors only

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58
Q

Right lung has what fissures?

A

Oblique (So does left)

Horizontal

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59
Q

______ nerve does parasympathetic for bronchoconstriction of the bronchus and lungs?

A

VAGUS

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60
Q

What is the primary muscle of respiration?

A

Diaphragm

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61
Q

What are the accessory mm of breathing?

A

Intercostals

Serratus anterior

Scalenes

SCM

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62
Q

Which type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium?

A

Fibrocartilage

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63
Q

Proteoglycans are made of what?

A

Chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronic acid

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64
Q

Collagen type I

Collagen type II

Collagen type III

A

I - Most abundant; skin, tendons, ligaments, bone

II - Least abundant; articular and hyaline cartilages, eyes

III - Middle abundant; intestinal walls, mm, blood vessels, with collagen type I

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65
Q

Hyaline cartilage - collagen type?

A

Type II only

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66
Q

Fibrocartilage - collagen type?

A

Type I and II

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67
Q

Elastic cartilage - collagen type?

A

Elastic fibers and type II

**Elastin

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68
Q

Loss of ________ ________ in cartilage contributes to pathogenesis of osteoarthritis.

A

Chondroitin sulfate

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69
Q

What is the most widespread cartilage?

A

Hyaline

*Weakest of the 3

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70
Q

What cartilage has the ability to calcify into bone?

A

Hyaline

-It is the precursor to endochondral ossification

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71
Q

What is the strongest kind of cartilage?

A

Fibrocartilage

*Highly compressible

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72
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

Ext ear

Eustachian tube

Epiglottis

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73
Q

Cartilage is ________, while bone is highly ___________.

A

Avascular

Vascularized

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74
Q

Osteoclasts attach to bone via what?

A

Integrity in areas called sealing zones

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75
Q

Osteoclasts are activated indirectly by what?

A

PTH

  • Osteoblasts fuse with osteoclasts precursors and express RANK
  • PTH binding up-regs osteoblast expression of the ligand for RANK, RANKL.
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76
Q

What determines the extent of bone resorption?

A

Ratio of osteoprotegerin:RANKL produced by osteoblasts

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77
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Secreted by CHIEF cells

  • Mobilizes Ca2+ from bone
  • Increases urinary PO4+ excretion
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78
Q

Activated VitD does what?

A

Increases CA2+ absorption from intestine

Increases Ca2+ in bone

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79
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Released by PARAFOLLICULAR CELLS (C cells)

Inhibits bone resorption

Bone protector

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80
Q

In general, Vit D does what for Ca2+?

A

Increases Ca2+ reuptake in gut

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81
Q

90% of body’s vit D is obtained by what?

A

Sunlight activation of Vit D precursors in the skin

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82
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D?

A

Calcitriol

83
Q

Good or bad for bones:

Glucocorticoids

Growth hormone

Estrogens

Insulin

A

Glucocorticoids - Bad

GH - Good

Estrogens - Good

Insulin - Good

84
Q

Defective bone matrix calcification due to vitamin D and/or Ca2+ deficiency is called _________ in children or ___________ in adults.

A

Rickets

Osteomalacia

85
Q

Osteopetrosis is what?

Osteoporosis is what?

A

Osteopetrosis - Defective osteoclasts, so osteoblasts operate unhindered

Osteoporosis - Excess osteoclast activity

86
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction steps.

A

AP thru motor neuron

ACh release at neuromuscular junction

Local depolarization occurs (End plate potential)

EPP triggers AP into t-tubules

AP triggers Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

Ca2+ binds troponin which shifts tropomyosin and exposes the binding site on actin

Myosin binds and contraction occurs

ATP recocks the myosin. Cytoplasmic Ca2+ pumped back into SR - dependent upon ATP

87
Q

Besides cytosolic ATP, there are 3 sources of energy for muscle contraction. Name and describe them.

A

Creatine phosphate - 1 ATP per CP molecule, provides 15 seconds of energy, no O2 req’d

Glycogenolysis/Anaerobic respiration - 2 ATP per glucose, 30-60 seconds of energy, no O2 req’d

Aerobic respiration - 38 ATP per glucose, hours of energy, O2 req’d

88
Q

What is a twitch?

A

Muscle to a single AP on its motor neuron

89
Q

What is the threshold?

A

Minimum voltage necessary to produce contraction

90
Q

Phases of twitch. Name and describe them.

A

Latent - delay b/t stimulus and onset of twitch

Contraction - tension develops and muscle shortens

Relaxation - loss of tension and return to resting length

Refractory - muscle will not respond to new stimulus

91
Q

What is recruitment?

A

Increasing the strength of the stimulus at a constant frequency to recruit add’l motor units which increases the tension developed

92
Q

What is wave summation?

A

Increasing the frequency of a stimulus held at a constant intensity

93
Q

What is treppe?

A

Prepping the muscle for tetanus. Increased CA2+ ions in cytosol and incomplete time to recapture the ions

94
Q

What is tetanus?

A

Prolonged contraction w/o relaxation from repeated stimulations so fast that the muscle can’t relax

95
Q

Isotonic vs isometric?

A

Isotonic - force generated by muscle is greater than the load - muscle shortens

Isometric - load exceeds the tension - muscle doesn’t shorten

96
Q

What are type I motor units?

A

Slow twitch - used in prolonged activity

97
Q

What are type IIa fibers?

A

Fast twitch - recruited to supplement type I fibers - sprinting

98
Q

What are type IIb fibers?

A

Further supplement types I and II

99
Q

Reflexes have 6 basic components

A

Sensory receptor

Afferent neuron

CNS

Interneuron

Efferent (motor) neuron

Effector (muscle)

100
Q

What is the stretch reflex?

A

Initiate at muscle spindles - sensitive to length of muscle as it is stretched

101
Q

Extrafusal muscle fibers are fibers of what?

A

Muscle fibers of actual muscle

-Innervated by alpha-motor neurons

102
Q

Intrafusal fibers are what?

A

Intrafusal muscle fibers are muscle fibers of the muscle spindle
-Innervated by gamma-motor neurons

103
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of intrafusal fibers?

A

Nuclear bag fibers
-Detect fast, dynamic changes in muscle length
—Innervated by type Ia afferents (fast)

Nuclear chain fibers
-Detect static changes in length and tension
—Innervated by type II afferents and type Ia afferents

104
Q

GTOs depolarize in response to the tendon being stretched, but _______ the alpha motor neuron.

A

INHIBIT

*GTO reflex is a protective feedback mech to prevent tendon damage

105
Q

The finer movement req’d, the _________ the number of muscle spindles in a muscle.

A

Greater

106
Q

Stretch reflex is __-synaptic, what is the stimulus, what fibers, what response?

A

Mono

Muscle stretched

Ia

Contraction of muscle

107
Q

Golgi tendon reflex

__-synaptic, what stimulus, what fibers, what response.

A

Di

Muscle contracts

Ib

Relaxation of muscle

108
Q

What happens during systole?

What happens during diastole?

A

Ventricles contract

Ventricles fill with blood

109
Q

What is heart sound 1 (S1)?

What is heart sound 2 (S2)?

A

Lub - Closure of AV valves (tri and mi/bi) - beginning of ventricular contraction

Dub - Closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) - beginning of ventricular diastole

Tri before you Bi/Mi

110
Q

What is the pathway for electric conduction of the heartbeat?

A

SA node -> AV node -> His bundle -> Bundle branches -> Purkinje fibers -> Ventricles

*These are the pacemaker cells. There are other cells, called working myocardial cells that are the majority of the heart muscle mass and help with contraction and relaxation

111
Q

In pacemakers cells, there is not fast inward _______ current, but rather a slower ______ inward current (depol).

A

Na+

Ca2+

112
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Stroke volume X Heart rate

SV - End diastolic volume - End systolic volume (~70-80 mL)

HR - Heart rate in beats per minute (60-100 bpm)

113
Q

What is TPR?

A

Sum of resistance of all peripheral vasculature in the circulatory system

114
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

CO X TPR

115
Q

What is the Bainbridge reflex?

A

Atrial reflex
-Stretch receptors in atria respond to increases in blood volume by INCREASING heart rate

*If right atrial BP is high, then the bainbridge reflex is dominant

116
Q

What is the baroreceptor reflex?

A

Corrects for increase in blood pressure by DECREASING heart rate as needed.

*If arterial BP is high, then baroreceptor reflex is dominant

117
Q

Tachycardia vs bradycardia?

A

Tachycardia - HR >100 bpm

Bradycardia - HR <60 bpm

118
Q

What is a lead?

A

Electrical potential difference b/t 2 electrodes

119
Q

Explain the ECG.

A

P - Atrial depol

PR - Time for signal to move from atria to ventricles (slight delay in AV node so that ventricles can fill

QRS - Vent depol; atrial repol is drowned out

ST - Ventricular AP plateau

T - Vent repol

120
Q

PR interval?

QT interval?

ST segment?

QRS wave?

RR interval?

A

PR - AP conduction for atria to ventricles

QT - Average AP duration in ventricles

ST - Myocardial infarction from an elevation or depression

QRS - Time for AP to propagate thru ventricles

RR - Faster HR, shorter RR interval

121
Q

T wave inversion means what?

ST elevation means what?

Exaggerated Q waves mean what?

ST depression means what?

A

Ischemia

Leads directly over area of acute infarction

Infarction that develops with time

Ischemia

122
Q

What is the equation for Einthoven’s law?

A

Lead I + Lead III = Lead II

123
Q

1st degree AV block - do what?

A

Just watch and see

Typically benign

124
Q

2nd degree AV block (type I) - do what?

A

If symptomatic, treated with atropine (inhibits parasympathetic signals)

125
Q

2nd degree AV block (Type II) - do what?

A

Pacemaker and cardiac monitoring

126
Q

3rd degree (Complete) AV block - do what?

A

Neds PACEMAKER IMMEDIATELY

127
Q

What is bulk flow?

A

Movement of protein-free, fluids, electrolytes, and WATER soluble substances (ions, glucose, AAs) thru pores/holes

128
Q

Does vesicular transport require ATP?

A

YES.

*Transcytosis
—Enocytosis -> vesicular transport -> exocytosis

129
Q

Tell me the 3 types of capillaries.

A

Continuous
-Tight structure, reduces bulk flow

Fenestrated
-Middle amount of flow

Discontinuous
-Largest amt of flow

130
Q

Starling forces

What two favor filtration? What is filtration?

What two favor resorption? Wha this resorption?

A

Filtration - from blood into interstitium - F BHP IFOP
—Blood hydrostatic pressure
—Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure

Resorption - from interstitium into blood - R BOP IFHP(Osmotic)
—Blood oncotic pressure
—Interstitial fluid hydrostatic (osmotic) pressure

131
Q

Starling’s Law Equation

A

Net force = (HPc + OPif) - (HPif + OPc)

HPc - Cap hydrostatic pressure

OPif - interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

HPif - interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

OPc - capillary oncotic pressure

132
Q

Arteriolar end of capillary is what?

A

Net filtration - OUT

133
Q

Venous end of capillary is what?

A

Net resorption - IN

134
Q

What are 4 potential causes of edema?

A

Increased capillary blood pressure

Decreased plasma colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure

Increased capillary permeability

Obstruction/Disruption of lymphatics (lymphedema)

135
Q

Excess lymph fluid leads to what?

A

Lymphedema leads to CT proliferation and fibrosis - scarring

136
Q

3 types of cytoskeleton components. Name them and tell me what makes them up and functions.

A

Microfilaments - Actin - Form tracks for myosin

Intermediate filaments - protein fibers (cytokeratin) woven like a rope - anchor, structure

Microtubules - Tubulin - Kinesins (monorail system); Dynein (cilia and flagella)

137
Q

What are tight junctions?

A

Zonal occludens

BIND TO ACTIN MICROFILAMENTS

138
Q

What are adhesive junctions?

A

Zonula adherens

—Cadherins (outside) and Catinins (inside)

139
Q

What are focal adhesions?

A

Hold cells to ECM

—Integrins

140
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

Cell-Cell adhesion

-Attach to INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS

141
Q

What are hemidesmosomes?

A

Cell-ECM/BSMT Membrane

—Attach to intermediate filaments

142
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the body?

A

COLLAGEN

—Proline and lysine rich

143
Q

Elastin does what?

A

Gives elasticity

In sheets or fibers

144
Q

Ground substance is made of what?

A

Proteoglycans and glycoproteins

—Highly hydrated

145
Q

Proteoglycans are made by what?

A

Fibroblasts

—Protein core with GAG chains

—Strong negative charge and are hydrophilic

146
Q

What are glycoproteins?

A

Proteins with carb side chains attached

147
Q

What is the most abundant CT?

A

Loose CT

—More cells and ground substance; fewer fibers

148
Q

What does dense irregular CT do?

A

Multi-directional structure

149
Q

Dense regular CT makes up what?

A

Tendons and ligaments

150
Q

What is the definition of partial pressure?

A

Pressure of an individual gas in a given volume at a constant temp

—Summative force exerted by the collision of gas molecules at the alveolar surface at any given time

151
Q

Respiratory gases are highly soluble in lipids, thus _________ diffusion is the limiting factor.

A

Aqueous

152
Q

How does the body detect changes in pH?

A

Detects an increase in CO2 in the blood, no O2 receptors in the body

153
Q

The amount of O2 in the alveoli at a given time is controlled by 2 factors.

A

1 - ventilation from breathing

2 - rate of absorption from the blood

154
Q

Ventilation/Perfusion Ratio

What is normal?

When does it approach 1?

When does it approach 0?

When does it approach infinity?

A

0.8

Exercise

No ventilation - No breathing/death - when approaching 0 it is called physiologic shunt (blood there, but not enough air to perfuse)

No blood perfusion - pulmonary embolism - when moving away from 0 it is called physiologic dead space (air there, but can’t do much b/c perfusion is so low)

155
Q

How does gravity play a role in the ventilation perfusion ratio?

A

The apex of the lung will have more physiologic dead space, while the base of the lung will have a physiologic shunt.

*Exercise minimizes these however

156
Q

Delivery of O2 to tissues is dependent on what 2 things?

A

Cardiac output X arterial O2 content

157
Q

RBCs bind more O2 molecules when the partial pressure of O2 is ________.

A

HIGH

**Greater O2 = more affinity for hb binding of O2

158
Q

Low partial pressures of O2 favor the _________ of O2.

A

DISASSOCIATION

*When one has plenty of O2, RBCs tend to load O2, but when one needs O2, it is unloaded and diffuses into tissues

**Low O2 = hb unloads

159
Q

A right shift in the O2 disassociation curve means what?

A left shift in the curve means what?

A

Decreased affinity - hb is getting rid of O2

Increased affinity - hb is hoovering O2

160
Q

What is the Haldane effect?

What is the Bohr effect?

A

Haldane - Deoxy blood has an increased ability to carry CO2

Bohr - how pH and CO2 affect the blood capacity for carrying O2

*High CO2 = increased CO2 affinity (deoxy hb)

**High CO2 = low pH, decreased O2 affinity

161
Q

What is physiological pH?

A
  1. 4

7. 35-7.45

162
Q

Strong acids _______ disassociate in soln.

A

Completely

163
Q

Weak acids ________ a few of their H+/OH- ions.

A

Donate

*They act as buffers.

164
Q

Lungs can take care of what type of acids?

A

Volatile - Carbonic acid

165
Q

Kidneys can take care of what types of acid?

A

All non-volatile, some volatile

166
Q

The kidneys can produce a “new” HCO3- by metabolizing ________ , which breaks down into ammonium and HCO3-.

A

GLUTAMINE

167
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach equation

A

pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]

If ratio of A- to HA is equal, then pH is equal to pKa

168
Q

Buffers don’t change pH per se, b/c why?

A

They don’t dispose of H+ or OH- ions, they just soften the blow

*Buffers are most effective when pH-pKa

169
Q

What buffers the ECF?

What buffers the ICF?

What buffers the proteins?

A

ECF - Bicarb

ICF - PO4 (also the tubules of the kidneys

Proteins - (-) charged and absorb free H+ ions, maintaining pH

170
Q

Respiratory acidosis/alkalosis. Explain it and responses to it.

A

Increases in blood CO2 (hypoventilation, pneumonia) - Acidosis - Response: Increased renal excretion of H+, increased respiration

Decreases in blood CO2 (hyperventilation) - Alkalosis - Response: Decreased renal excretion, decreased respiration

171
Q

Metabolic acidosis/alkalosis.

A

Acidosis - Due to loss of HCO3-, diarrhea, Response: Increased ventilation to remove CO2

Alkalosis - Due to retention of HCO3-, throwing up, Response: Respiratory depression

172
Q

The upper respiratory tract consists of what?

The lower respiratory tract consists of what?

A

Nasal cavity to start of larynx

Larynx to lungs

173
Q

Expanding the lungs makes the pleural cavity ___________ to atmospheric pressure. Shrinking the lungs makes the pleural cavity _________ to atmospheric pressure.

A

Negative

Positive

174
Q

What is the order of air conduction items?

A

Bronchus

Bronchioles

Term bronchioles

-All these are ciliated. Structures below are nonciliated

—————-Gas Exchange—————

Res bronchioles

Alveolar duct

Alveolar sac

Alveolus

175
Q

Type I pneumocytes does what?

A

Make the thin membrane for gas exchange

176
Q

What do type II pneumocytes do?

A

Make surfactant

177
Q

What are dust cells?

A

Macrophages located in the alveoli

178
Q

Cholesterol is _______ in the plasma membrane, but _________ in mitochondrial membranes.

A

Abundant

Absent (essentially absent)

179
Q

Integral proteins in membranes. Types I - VI.

A

I - Transmembrane with COO- to cytosol

II - Transmembrane with NH3+ to cytosol

III - Multiple transmembranes, but single polypeptide

IV - Multiple transmembranes, but separate polypeptides

V - Poly peptide anchored

VI - Polypeptide transmembrane and anchored

180
Q

Lat diffusion (lat movement of single lipid molecules on the same side of the lipid bilayer happens _______ and ___________.

A

Fast; frequent

181
Q

Flippase does what?

Floppase does what?

Scramblase does what?

A

Flip - Out to in

Flop - In to out

Scramblase - Either direction, towards EQ

182
Q

Animals in a cold ocean have a __________ membrane.

A

FLUID

183
Q

What are lipid rafts?

A

Membrane micro domains that compartmentalize cellular processes by organizing signaling molecules, influencing fluidity, etc.

184
Q

What is the glucose transporter of Glucose in erythrocytes?

A

GLUT1

185
Q

What is an uniport?

What is a symport?

What is an antipor?

A

Uni - 1 substance, one direction (conc gradient)

Sym - 2 substances, same direction (conc gradient)

Anti - 2 substances, opposite directions (ATP)

186
Q

All AAs are chiral except which one?

A

GLYCINE

187
Q

When a protein is denatured, what structure stays?

A

PRIMARY

188
Q

What is the site where APs are summated before being transmitted to the axon?

A

Axon hilock

189
Q

What are the 4 types of CNS cells?

A

Ependymal - Lining

Oligodendrocytes - Myelinate

Astrocytes - Reuptake of K and NTs (most abundant)

Microglia- Phagocytize

190
Q

What are the two types of PNS cells?

A

Schwann - Myelinate

Satellite - Assist

191
Q

What are monosaccharides and some examples?

A

Building blocks of disaccharides (sucrose/lactose) and polysaccharides

*Glucose, fructose, and galactose

192
Q

What is a triose?

A

Monosaccharide with 3 carbon atoms

Glyceraldehyde - aldotriose

Dihydroxyacetone - ketotriose

193
Q

What is the most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the body?

A

Chondroitin sulfate

194
Q

What has the highest negative charge density of any known biological molecule (it is used as an injectable anticoagulant)?

A

Heparin

195
Q

What are glycoproteins?

What are proteoglycans?

A

Glycoprotein- Protein with oligosaccharide chains covalently attached to their polypeptide side chains.

Proteoglycan - subclass of glycoproteins - made of a core protein with one or more covalently attached GAG chains

196
Q

What is a lipid raft?

A

Islands that move in the membrane
—Cholesterol and sphingolipid rich
—Limited fluidity
—Reg signal transduction and endocytosis

197
Q

What type of endocytosis does not use a lipid raft?

A

Clathrin-mediated endocytosis

198
Q

All endocytosis go to what?

A

Early endosome

—pH decreases along pathway on the way to late endosome, recycling endosome, and lysosome

199
Q

What is the primary exocrine organelle of the body?

A

Golgi network

200
Q

Enzymes used in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are all the same except for a few. Name the different ones.

A

Gluconeogenesis
—Pyr to Oxaloacetate - pyruvate carboxylase

—Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate - PEP carboxykinase

—Fru 1,6-BiP to fru 6P - Fructose 1,6-BPtase1

201
Q

What is necessary for reductive biosynthesis (creating FAs) and free rad protection?

A

NADPH

202
Q

Mnemonic for infrahyoids sup to deep.

A

ShOThSt

203
Q

E1 is what type?

E2?

E3?

A

E1 - Estrone - Post menopause

E2- Estradiol - Most predominant in the body

E3 - Estriol - During pregnancy

HFF (14 decks)

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