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Test 1 - Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Superficial back muscles (trap, levator, rhomboids, lat, serratus anterior) are innervated by what (in general)?

A

Ventral rami

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2
Q

In general, the deep back muscles, or the intrinsic/epaxial/paraspinal muscles, are all innervated by what?

A

Dorsal rami

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3
Q

Which 2 deep back muscles touch the occipital bone?

A

Splenius capitis

Splenius cervicis

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4
Q

What are the 3 erector spinae mm.?

A

Spinalis

Longissimus

Iliocostalis

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5
Q

Where are the transversospinalis mm and what 3 do you need to know?

A

Underneath splenius

Multifidus

Rotatores

Semispinalis

Going up the spine: MRS

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6
Q

What are the 4 suboccipital mm, where are they, and what do they do, and what innervates them?

A

*All are innervated by suboccipital n (C1 - dorsal ramus)

Rectus capitis posterior minor - Diagonal just medial to rectus capitis posterior major - rotate head to same side

Rectus capitis posterior major - Diagonal just lateral to rectus capitis posterior minor - rotate head to same side

Obliquus capitis inferior - most inferior muscle runs diagonal - rotate head to same side

Obliquus capitits superior - Most lateral muscle - Tilt to same side, rotates to opposite side

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7
Q

Synarthroses are what type of joints?

A

Immovable joints

EX

  • Sutures
  • Gomphoses
  • Hy Syn (Hyaline, synchondroses)
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8
Q

Sympheses have what type of cartilage?

A

Fibrocartilage

-Fib symph

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9
Q

Diarthroses are what type fo joints?

A

Freely movable

-Synovial

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10
Q

Levator scapulae and both rhomboids are innervated by what?

A

Dorsal scapular n. - C5

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11
Q

Serratus anterior is innervated by what nerve?

A

Long thoracic n. - C5, C6, C7

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12
Q

Nerve to subclavius goes to what muscle?

A

Subclavius - C5, C6

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13
Q

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus are innervated by what nerve?

A

Suprascapular - C4, C5, C6

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14
Q

Latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve - C6, C7, C8

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15
Q

Upper and lower subscapular nn innervate what muscle?

A

Subscapularis

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16
Q

The CNS is composed of what?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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17
Q

The PNS is composed of what?

A

CNs and spinal nerves

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18
Q

The somatic system controls what?

A

Voluntary, conscious movement

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19
Q

The ANS controls what and what are the 2 divisions?

A

Subconscious movements

Parasympathetic
—Rest and digest

Sympathetic
—Fight or flight

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20
Q

Where does the spinal cord end (cauda equina)? What vertebral position?

A

L1-L2

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21
Q

What is the vertebral column formula?

A

C7-T12-L5-S5

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22
Q

Nervous vertebral column formula?

A

C8-T12-L5-S5

Nerves C1-C7 emerge above cervical vertebrae

C8 and nerves below emerge below corresponding vertebral level

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23
Q

What are the 2 layers of the dura mater?

A

Periosteal

Meningeal

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24
Q

Dentate ligaments are what meningeal layer?

A

Pia

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25
What are housed in the gray matter of the spinal cord?
Cell bodies White matter is enriched for axons
26
What is the tree analogy for spinal nerves?
Roots Trunk Branches
27
What is the DAVE mnemonic?
Dorsal afferent | Ventral efferent
28
Nerve two way traffic happens where?
Trunks and rami
29
Ventral rami serves what?
Body wall and limbs
30
Dorsal rami serves what?
Deep back mm, skin on back
31
Dermatomes: - C2 - C4 - C5 - C6 - C7 - C8 - T1 - T4 - T7 - T10 - L1
``` Occipital Collar (Rhymes...but not) Lat shoulder Thumb Middle finger (no heaven) Little finger Medial elbow Nipple Xiphoid Umbilicus Inguinal ```
32
Myotomes: - C5 - C6 - C7 - C8 - T1
``` Shoulder abduction Elbow flexion, wrist extension Elbow extension Wrist flexion, thumb abduction Finger abduction/adduction ```
33
Sympathetic pathways have a ________ pre-gang neuron and a _________ post-gang neuron, while parasympathetic pathways have a _________ pre-gang neuron and a __________ post-gang neuron.
Short, long Long, short
34
Sympathetics come from what levels of the spinal cord?
T1-L2
35
Parasympathetics come from where?
Brain stem and S2-S4
36
DRGs are formed from what embryonic tissues?
Neural crest cells
37
Preaortic ganglia are found in what system?
Sympathetic
38
Parasympathetic ganglia directly on the effector organ are called what?
Intramural ganglion
39
What is in the superior mediastinum?
``` SVC Brachiocephalics Aortic arch Brachiocephalic artery Left common carotid Left subclavian Esophagus Trachea ```
40
What is in the inferior mediastinum?
Thymus
41
What is in the posterior mediastinum?
``` D desc aorta A azygos veins T thoracic duct E esophagus S sympathetic trunk ```
42
The hemiazygos and accessory hemiazygos are on what side of the body and what levels?
Left Accessory - T4-T7 Hemi - T8-T12 Feed into azygos vein -> SVC
43
Sympathetic splanchnic levels? Greater Lesser Least Where do they synapse?
Greater - T5-T9 Lesser - T10-T11 Least - T12 Pre-aortic ganglion
44
The layers of the pericardium are what from deep to superficial?
Serous visceral pericardium Serous parietal pericardium Fibrous parietal pericardium
45
The lub is from what? The dub is from what?
Lub - S1, contracting ventricles caused the AV valves to snap shut Dub - S2, relaxing ventricles caused semilunar valves to snap shut
46
All physicians take money auscultations and S1 and S2 auscultations.
Aortic valve - Right of sternum - 2nd intercostal space Pulmonary valve - Left of sternum - 2nd intercostal space Tricuspid valve - Left of sternum - 4th intercostal space Mitral (bicuspid) valve - Left midclavicular - 5th intercostal space
47
Coronary circulation.
Aortic arch -LCA - Left coronary a —LCXA - Left circumflex a —LAD (AIA - Ant interventricular a) -RCA - Right coronary a (If RCA supplies PDA, then its a right dominant heart 67% of population) —RMA - Right marginal a —PDA (PIA - Posterior interventricular a) Great cardiac vein->Coronary sinus->RA Middle cardiac vein (post)->Coronary sinus->RA
48
Sympathetic innervation to the heart from what?
Thoracic sympathetic cardiac nerve OR cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve T1-T4/T5 Symp chain Cervical and thoracic symp nn Increase heart rate and contraction
49
Parasympathetic innvervation of the heart?
Vagus | Intramural gang
50
Electrical progression of heart beat.
SA->AV->Bundle of His
51
Name the 4 regions of parietal pleura.
Cervical Costal Diaphragmatic Mediastinal
52
What is the space b/t diaphragm and the body wall?
Costodiaphragmatic recess
53
What is the only somatic nerve that refers pain?
Phrenic nerve
54
The parietal pleura has what innervation?
Somatic
55
C3, 4, and 5 keep what alive?
Diaphragm
56
_______ nerve innervates the diaphragm.
PHRENIC
57
Visceral pleura has what innervation?
Autonomic, stretch receptors only
58
Right lung has what fissures?
Oblique (So does left) Horizontal
59
______ nerve does parasympathetic for bronchoconstriction of the bronchus and lungs?
VAGUS
60
What is the primary muscle of respiration?
Diaphragm
61
What are the accessory mm of breathing?
Intercostals Serratus anterior Scalenes SCM
62
Which type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium?
Fibrocartilage
63
Proteoglycans are made of what?
Chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronic acid
64
Collagen type I Collagen type II Collagen type III
I - Most abundant; skin, tendons, ligaments, bone II - Least abundant; articular and hyaline cartilages, eyes III - Middle abundant; intestinal walls, mm, blood vessels, with collagen type I
65
Hyaline cartilage - collagen type?
Type II only
66
Fibrocartilage - collagen type?
Type I and II
67
Elastic cartilage - collagen type?
Elastic fibers and type II **Elastin
68
Loss of ________ ________ in cartilage contributes to pathogenesis of osteoarthritis.
Chondroitin sulfate
69
What is the most widespread cartilage?
Hyaline *Weakest of the 3
70
What cartilage has the ability to calcify into bone?
Hyaline -It is the precursor to endochondral ossification
71
What is the strongest kind of cartilage?
Fibrocartilage *Highly compressible
72
Where is elastic cartilage found?
Ext ear Eustachian tube Epiglottis
73
Cartilage is ________, while bone is highly ___________.
Avascular Vascularized
74
Osteoclasts attach to bone via what?
Integrity in areas called sealing zones
75
Osteoclasts are activated indirectly by what?
PTH - Osteoblasts fuse with osteoclasts precursors and express RANK - PTH binding up-regs osteoblast expression of the ligand for RANK, RANKL.
76
What determines the extent of bone resorption?
Ratio of osteoprotegerin:RANKL produced by osteoblasts
77
What does PTH do?
Secreted by CHIEF cells - Mobilizes Ca2+ from bone - Increases urinary PO4+ excretion
78
Activated VitD does what?
Increases CA2+ absorption from intestine Increases Ca2+ in bone
79
What does calcitonin do?
Released by PARAFOLLICULAR CELLS (C cells) Inhibits bone resorption Bone protector
80
In general, Vit D does what for Ca2+?
Increases Ca2+ reuptake in gut
81
90% of body’s vit D is obtained by what?
Sunlight activation of Vit D precursors in the skin
82
What is the active form of vitamin D?
Calcitriol
83
Good or bad for bones: Glucocorticoids Growth hormone Estrogens Insulin
Glucocorticoids - Bad GH - Good Estrogens - Good Insulin - Good
84
Defective bone matrix calcification due to vitamin D and/or Ca2+ deficiency is called _________ in children or ___________ in adults.
Rickets Osteomalacia
85
Osteopetrosis is what? Osteoporosis is what?
Osteopetrosis - Defective osteoclasts, so osteoblasts operate unhindered Osteoporosis - Excess osteoclast activity
86
Skeletal muscle contraction steps.
AP thru motor neuron ACh release at neuromuscular junction Local depolarization occurs (End plate potential) EPP triggers AP into t-tubules AP triggers Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ binds troponin which shifts tropomyosin and exposes the binding site on actin Myosin binds and contraction occurs ATP recocks the myosin. Cytoplasmic Ca2+ pumped back into SR - dependent upon ATP
87
Besides cytosolic ATP, there are 3 sources of energy for muscle contraction. Name and describe them.
Creatine phosphate - 1 ATP per CP molecule, provides 15 seconds of energy, no O2 req’d Glycogenolysis/Anaerobic respiration - 2 ATP per glucose, 30-60 seconds of energy, no O2 req’d Aerobic respiration - 38 ATP per glucose, hours of energy, O2 req’d
88
What is a twitch?
Muscle to a single AP on its motor neuron
89
What is the threshold?
Minimum voltage necessary to produce contraction
90
Phases of twitch. Name and describe them.
Latent - delay b/t stimulus and onset of twitch Contraction - tension develops and muscle shortens Relaxation - loss of tension and return to resting length Refractory - muscle will not respond to new stimulus
91
What is recruitment?
Increasing the strength of the stimulus at a constant frequency to recruit add’l motor units which increases the tension developed
92
What is wave summation?
Increasing the frequency of a stimulus held at a constant intensity
93
What is treppe?
Prepping the muscle for tetanus. Increased CA2+ ions in cytosol and incomplete time to recapture the ions
94
What is tetanus?
Prolonged contraction w/o relaxation from repeated stimulations so fast that the muscle can’t relax
95
Isotonic vs isometric?
Isotonic - force generated by muscle is greater than the load - muscle shortens Isometric - load exceeds the tension - muscle doesn’t shorten
96
What are type I motor units?
Slow twitch - used in prolonged activity
97
What are type IIa fibers?
Fast twitch - recruited to supplement type I fibers - sprinting
98
What are type IIb fibers?
Further supplement types I and II
99
Reflexes have 6 basic components
Sensory receptor Afferent neuron CNS Interneuron Efferent (motor) neuron Effector (muscle)
100
What is the stretch reflex?
Initiate at muscle spindles - sensitive to length of muscle as it is stretched
101
Extrafusal muscle fibers are fibers of what?
Muscle fibers of actual muscle -Innervated by alpha-motor neurons
102
Intrafusal fibers are what?
Intrafusal muscle fibers are muscle fibers of the muscle spindle -Innervated by gamma-motor neurons
103
What are the 2 subtypes of intrafusal fibers?
Nuclear bag fibers -Detect fast, dynamic changes in muscle length —Innervated by type Ia afferents (fast) Nuclear chain fibers -Detect static changes in length and tension —Innervated by type II afferents and type Ia afferents
104
GTOs depolarize in response to the tendon being stretched, but _______ the alpha motor neuron.
INHIBIT *GTO reflex is a protective feedback mech to prevent tendon damage
105
The finer movement req’d, the _________ the number of muscle spindles in a muscle.
Greater
106
Stretch reflex is __-synaptic, what is the stimulus, what fibers, what response?
Mono Muscle stretched Ia Contraction of muscle
107
Golgi tendon reflex __-synaptic, what stimulus, what fibers, what response.
Di Muscle contracts Ib Relaxation of muscle
108
What happens during systole? What happens during diastole?
Ventricles contract Ventricles fill with blood
109
What is heart sound 1 (S1)? What is heart sound 2 (S2)?
Lub - Closure of AV valves (tri and mi/bi) - beginning of ventricular contraction Dub - Closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) - beginning of ventricular diastole Tri before you Bi/Mi
110
What is the pathway for electric conduction of the heartbeat?
SA node -> AV node -> His bundle -> Bundle branches -> Purkinje fibers -> Ventricles *These are the pacemaker cells. There are other cells, called working myocardial cells that are the majority of the heart muscle mass and help with contraction and relaxation
111
In pacemakers cells, there is not fast inward _______ current, but rather a slower ______ inward current (depol).
Na+ Ca2+
112
What is cardiac output?
Stroke volume X Heart rate SV - End diastolic volume - End systolic volume (~70-80 mL) HR - Heart rate in beats per minute (60-100 bpm)
113
What is TPR?
Sum of resistance of all peripheral vasculature in the circulatory system
114
What is blood pressure?
CO X TPR
115
What is the Bainbridge reflex?
Atrial reflex -Stretch receptors in atria respond to increases in blood volume by INCREASING heart rate *If right atrial BP is high, then the bainbridge reflex is dominant
116
What is the baroreceptor reflex?
Corrects for increase in blood pressure by DECREASING heart rate as needed. *If arterial BP is high, then baroreceptor reflex is dominant
117
Tachycardia vs bradycardia?
Tachycardia - HR >100 bpm Bradycardia - HR <60 bpm
118
What is a lead?
Electrical potential difference b/t 2 electrodes
119
Explain the ECG.
P - Atrial depol PR - Time for signal to move from atria to ventricles (slight delay in AV node so that ventricles can fill QRS - Vent depol; atrial repol is drowned out ST - Ventricular AP plateau T - Vent repol
120
PR interval? QT interval? ST segment? QRS wave? RR interval?
PR - AP conduction for atria to ventricles QT - Average AP duration in ventricles ST - Myocardial infarction from an elevation or depression QRS - Time for AP to propagate thru ventricles RR - Faster HR, shorter RR interval
121
T wave inversion means what? ST elevation means what? Exaggerated Q waves mean what? ST depression means what?
Ischemia Leads directly over area of acute infarction Infarction that develops with time Ischemia
122
What is the equation for Einthoven’s law?
Lead I + Lead III = Lead II
123
1st degree AV block - do what?
Just watch and see Typically benign
124
2nd degree AV block (type I) - do what?
If symptomatic, treated with atropine (inhibits parasympathetic signals)
125
2nd degree AV block (Type II) - do what?
Pacemaker and cardiac monitoring
126
3rd degree (Complete) AV block - do what?
Neds PACEMAKER IMMEDIATELY
127
What is bulk flow?
Movement of protein-free, fluids, electrolytes, and WATER soluble substances (ions, glucose, AAs) thru pores/holes
128
Does vesicular transport require ATP?
YES. *Transcytosis —Enocytosis -> vesicular transport -> exocytosis
129
Tell me the 3 types of capillaries.
Continuous -Tight structure, reduces bulk flow Fenestrated -Middle amount of flow Discontinuous -Largest amt of flow
130
Starling forces What two favor filtration? What is filtration? What two favor resorption? Wha this resorption?
Filtration - from blood into interstitium - F BHP IFOP —Blood hydrostatic pressure —Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure Resorption - from interstitium into blood - R BOP IFHP(Osmotic) —Blood oncotic pressure —Interstitial fluid hydrostatic (osmotic) pressure
131
Starling’s Law Equation
Net force = (HPc + OPif) - (HPif + OPc) HPc - Cap hydrostatic pressure OPif - interstitial fluid osmotic pressure HPif - interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure OPc - capillary oncotic pressure
132
Arteriolar end of capillary is what?
Net filtration - OUT
133
Venous end of capillary is what?
Net resorption - IN
134
What are 4 potential causes of edema?
Increased capillary blood pressure Decreased plasma colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure Increased capillary permeability Obstruction/Disruption of lymphatics (lymphedema)
135
Excess lymph fluid leads to what?
Lymphedema leads to CT proliferation and fibrosis - scarring
136
3 types of cytoskeleton components. Name them and tell me what makes them up and functions.
Microfilaments - Actin - Form tracks for myosin Intermediate filaments - protein fibers (cytokeratin) woven like a rope - anchor, structure Microtubules - Tubulin - Kinesins (monorail system); Dynein (cilia and flagella)
137
What are tight junctions?
Zonal occludens BIND TO ACTIN MICROFILAMENTS
138
What are adhesive junctions?
Zonula adherens | —Cadherins (outside) and Catinins (inside)
139
What are focal adhesions?
Hold cells to ECM | —Integrins
140
What are desmosomes?
Cell-Cell adhesion | -Attach to INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS
141
What are hemidesmosomes?
Cell-ECM/BSMT Membrane | —Attach to intermediate filaments
142
What is the most abundant protein in the body?
COLLAGEN | —Proline and lysine rich
143
Elastin does what?
Gives elasticity In sheets or fibers
144
Ground substance is made of what?
Proteoglycans and glycoproteins —Highly hydrated
145
Proteoglycans are made by what?
Fibroblasts —Protein core with GAG chains —Strong negative charge and are hydrophilic
146
What are glycoproteins?
Proteins with carb side chains attached
147
What is the most abundant CT?
Loose CT | —More cells and ground substance; fewer fibers
148
What does dense irregular CT do?
Multi-directional structure
149
Dense regular CT makes up what?
Tendons and ligaments
150
What is the definition of partial pressure?
Pressure of an individual gas in a given volume at a constant temp —Summative force exerted by the collision of gas molecules at the alveolar surface at any given time
151
Respiratory gases are highly soluble in lipids, thus _________ diffusion is the limiting factor.
Aqueous
152
How does the body detect changes in pH?
Detects an increase in CO2 in the blood, no O2 receptors in the body
153
The amount of O2 in the alveoli at a given time is controlled by 2 factors.
1 - ventilation from breathing 2 - rate of absorption from the blood
154
Ventilation/Perfusion Ratio What is normal? When does it approach 1? When does it approach 0? When does it approach infinity?
0.8 Exercise No ventilation - No breathing/death - when approaching 0 it is called physiologic shunt (blood there, but not enough air to perfuse) No blood perfusion - pulmonary embolism - when moving away from 0 it is called physiologic dead space (air there, but can’t do much b/c perfusion is so low)
155
How does gravity play a role in the ventilation perfusion ratio?
The apex of the lung will have more physiologic dead space, while the base of the lung will have a physiologic shunt. *Exercise minimizes these however
156
Delivery of O2 to tissues is dependent on what 2 things?
Cardiac output X arterial O2 content
157
RBCs bind more O2 molecules when the partial pressure of O2 is ________.
HIGH **Greater O2 = more affinity for hb binding of O2
158
Low partial pressures of O2 favor the _________ of O2.
DISASSOCIATION *When one has plenty of O2, RBCs tend to load O2, but when one needs O2, it is unloaded and diffuses into tissues **Low O2 = hb unloads
159
A right shift in the O2 disassociation curve means what? A left shift in the curve means what?
Decreased affinity - hb is getting rid of O2 Increased affinity - hb is hoovering O2
160
What is the Haldane effect? What is the Bohr effect?
Haldane - Deoxy blood has an increased ability to carry CO2 Bohr - how pH and CO2 affect the blood capacity for carrying O2 *High CO2 = increased CO2 affinity (deoxy hb) **High CO2 = low pH, decreased O2 affinity
161
What is physiological pH?
7. 4 | 7. 35-7.45
162
Strong acids _______ disassociate in soln.
Completely
163
Weak acids ________ a few of their H+/OH- ions.
Donate *They act as buffers.
164
Lungs can take care of what type of acids?
Volatile - Carbonic acid
165
Kidneys can take care of what types of acid?
All non-volatile, some volatile
166
The kidneys can produce a “new” HCO3- by metabolizing ________ , which breaks down into ammonium and HCO3-.
GLUTAMINE
167
Henderson-Hasselbach equation
pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA] If ratio of A- to HA is equal, then pH is equal to pKa
168
Buffers don’t change pH per se, b/c why?
They don’t dispose of H+ or OH- ions, they just soften the blow *Buffers are most effective when pH-pKa
169
What buffers the ECF? What buffers the ICF? What buffers the proteins?
ECF - Bicarb ICF - PO4 (also the tubules of the kidneys Proteins - (-) charged and absorb free H+ ions, maintaining pH
170
Respiratory acidosis/alkalosis. Explain it and responses to it.
Increases in blood CO2 (hypoventilation, pneumonia) - Acidosis - Response: Increased renal excretion of H+, increased respiration Decreases in blood CO2 (hyperventilation) - Alkalosis - Response: Decreased renal excretion, decreased respiration
171
Metabolic acidosis/alkalosis.
Acidosis - Due to loss of HCO3-, diarrhea, Response: Increased ventilation to remove CO2 Alkalosis - Due to retention of HCO3-, throwing up, Response: Respiratory depression
172
The upper respiratory tract consists of what? The lower respiratory tract consists of what?
Nasal cavity to start of larynx Larynx to lungs
173
Expanding the lungs makes the pleural cavity ___________ to atmospheric pressure. Shrinking the lungs makes the pleural cavity _________ to atmospheric pressure.
Negative Positive
174
What is the order of air conduction items?
Bronchus Bronchioles Term bronchioles -All these are ciliated. Structures below are nonciliated —————-Gas Exchange————— Res bronchioles Alveolar duct Alveolar sac Alveolus
175
Type I pneumocytes does what?
Make the thin membrane for gas exchange
176
What do type II pneumocytes do?
Make surfactant
177
What are dust cells?
Macrophages located in the alveoli
178
Cholesterol is _______ in the plasma membrane, but _________ in mitochondrial membranes.
Abundant Absent (essentially absent)
179
Integral proteins in membranes. Types I - VI.
I - Transmembrane with COO- to cytosol II - Transmembrane with NH3+ to cytosol III - Multiple transmembranes, but single polypeptide IV - Multiple transmembranes, but separate polypeptides V - Poly peptide anchored VI - Polypeptide transmembrane and anchored
180
Lat diffusion (lat movement of single lipid molecules on the same side of the lipid bilayer happens _______ and ___________.
Fast; frequent
181
Flippase does what? Floppase does what? Scramblase does what?
Flip - Out to in Flop - In to out Scramblase - Either direction, towards EQ
182
Animals in a cold ocean have a __________ membrane.
FLUID
183
What are lipid rafts?
Membrane micro domains that compartmentalize cellular processes by organizing signaling molecules, influencing fluidity, etc.
184
What is the glucose transporter of Glucose in erythrocytes?
GLUT1
185
What is an uniport? What is a symport? What is an antipor?
Uni - 1 substance, one direction (conc gradient) Sym - 2 substances, same direction (conc gradient) Anti - 2 substances, opposite directions (ATP)
186
All AAs are chiral except which one?
GLYCINE
187
When a protein is denatured, what structure stays?
PRIMARY
188
What is the site where APs are summated before being transmitted to the axon?
Axon hilock
189
What are the 4 types of CNS cells?
Ependymal - Lining Oligodendrocytes - Myelinate Astrocytes - Reuptake of K and NTs (most abundant) Microglia- Phagocytize
190
What are the two types of PNS cells?
Schwann - Myelinate Satellite - Assist
191
What are monosaccharides and some examples?
Building blocks of disaccharides (sucrose/lactose) and polysaccharides *Glucose, fructose, and galactose
192
What is a triose?
Monosaccharide with 3 carbon atoms Glyceraldehyde - aldotriose Dihydroxyacetone - ketotriose
193
What is the most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the body?
Chondroitin sulfate
194
What has the highest negative charge density of any known biological molecule (it is used as an injectable anticoagulant)?
Heparin
195
What are glycoproteins? What are proteoglycans?
Glycoprotein- Protein with oligosaccharide chains covalently attached to their polypeptide side chains. Proteoglycan - subclass of glycoproteins - made of a core protein with one or more covalently attached GAG chains
196
What is a lipid raft?
Islands that move in the membrane —Cholesterol and sphingolipid rich —Limited fluidity —Reg signal transduction and endocytosis
197
What type of endocytosis does not use a lipid raft?
Clathrin-mediated endocytosis
198
All endocytosis go to what?
Early endosome | —pH decreases along pathway on the way to late endosome, recycling endosome, and lysosome
199
What is the primary exocrine organelle of the body?
Golgi network
200
Enzymes used in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are all the same except for a few. Name the different ones.
Gluconeogenesis —Pyr to Oxaloacetate - pyruvate carboxylase —Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate - PEP carboxykinase —Fru 1,6-BiP to fru 6P - Fructose 1,6-BPtase1
201
What is necessary for reductive biosynthesis (creating FAs) and free rad protection?
NADPH
202
Mnemonic for infrahyoids sup to deep.
ShOThSt
203
E1 is what type? E2? E3?
E1 - Estrone - Post menopause E2- Estradiol - Most predominant in the body E3 - Estriol - During pregnancy

HFF (14 decks)

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