Telegram Group Recalls Flashcards

Question

Regarding COPD to reduce complication we should give A. Theophylline B. Pneumococcal Vaccine C. Smoking Cessation

Answer 1

C. Smoking Cessation

Answer 2

A. Breastfeed Jaundice

Answer 3

C. Indirect Inguinal Hernia They develop when a portion of the intestine or other abdominal tissue protrudes through the inguinal canal, which is a passageway from the abdomen to the genitals.. In males, the hernia can extend into the scrotum, resulting in a palpable bulge.. The bulge is typically reducible, meaning it can be pushed back into the abdomen. The bulge may become more prominent during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, straining, or the Valsalva maneuver 6

Answer 4

C. Acyclovir or Antivirals The presence of a vesicular rash, along with the location on the forehead, suggests a possible diagnosis of herpes zoster, also known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which remains dormant in the body after a previous infection with chickenpox. Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir, are effective in reducing the severity and duration of symptoms when initiated within 72 hours of symptom onset. Acyclovir, which is an antiviral medication, is commonly used in the treatment of this condition

Answer 5

A. Blood loss

Answer 6

A. Female enter puberty 1-2 year before male

Answer 7

A. Fluoride

Answer 8

A. Vesicovaginal Fistula It is an abnormal connection between the bladder and vagina, resulting in continuous urine leakage through the vagina, and can occur after a hysterectomy

Answer 9

A. Warm compress and continue breastfeeding

Answer 10

B. Sarcoidosis The symptoms of fever, malaise, joint pain, raised ESR, bilateral hilar adenopathy, and pulmonary infiltrates, especially in the upper and mid zones, are characteristic of sarcoidosis.

Answer 11

D. Somatisation Disorder Somatization disorder is a type of somatic symptom disorder characterized by multiple, recurrent, and medically unexplained physical symptoms that cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning

Answer 12

C. Pemphigoid Gestationis Pemphigoid Gestationis, also known as gestational pemphigoid, is a rare autoimmune skin disorder that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by the formation of pruritic pustules or itchy blisters on the skin, particularly the abdomen, arms, and legs. The condition develops when the body produces antibodies against its skin cells that can cause inflammation and blistering. Pemphigoid Gestationis typically develops in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, but can also occur immediately after childbirth. It is treated with topical and/or systemic corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and control symptoms.

Answer 13

C. Mosquito Lymphatic filariasis, caused by infection with nematodes of the family Filariodidea, is transmitted to humans through mosquito bites. Mosquitoes of various genera, including Culex, Anopheles, Aedes, Mansonia, and Coquillettidia, can serve as vectors for filariasis, depending on the geographical location. The nematodes invade the skin through mosquito bites and then travel to the lymphatic system, where they form nests and multiply.

Answer 14

E. Left Anterior Descending Artery The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is the most common site of the culprit lesion in cases of acute coronary syndrome. It supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle, the interventricular septum, and the apex. The blockage of LAD can lead to a significant reduction in coronary blood flow, resulting in myocardial ischemia or infarction. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of intermittent chest pain at rest, combined with coronary artery disease, increase the likelihood of acute coronary syndrome. The ECG obtained on arrival can help identify any changes in the heart's electrical activity and suggest the site of the coronary artery lesion. ECG - Wellen's Syndrome - biphasic or deep precordial T wave inversions particularly in leads V2 and V3.

Answer 15

D. Pulmonary artery dissection

Answer 16

A. Acral Lentiginous melanoma The clinical and dermoscopic findings of a slow-growing, asymptomatic, dark spot with pigmented spicules on the palm, along with non-scaling, non-palpable brown patch, are highly suspicious for Acral Lentiginous melanoma (ALM), which is a distinct subtype of melanoma. ALM is a rare but aggressive melanoma subtype that typically occurs on the palms, soles, or nail beds. It is characterized by the presence of pigmented spicules on the dermoscopy exam and is commonly misdiagnosed, leading to delays in diagnosis and treatment. other answered D

Answer 17

E. Tay Sach-s Disease Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that results from the deficiency of an essential enzyme called hexosaminidase A. As a result, there is an accumulation of a substance called GM2-ganglioside in the nervous system, leading to the widespread destruction of neurons. The clinical features of the disease can depend on the age of onset and the severity of the condition. In the infantile form of Tay-Sachs disease, symptoms typically appear between 3 and 6 months of age and usually include deficits in motor function, developmental delays, and progressive microcephaly. Fundus examination may reveal a cherry-red spot. The cherry red spot of the macula is a characteristic finding of this disease, caused by abnormally whitened, lipid-laden neurons surrounding and accentuating the color of the fovea.

Answer 18

A. Delay in surgical intervention > 24 hrs

Answer 19

A. Antiphospholipid Syndrome

Answer 20

Kawasaki Diseease Kawasaki disease, a condition that primarily affects children and involves inflammation in the walls of medium-sized arteries throughout the body. The diagnostic criteria include fever for 5 or more days, plus at least 4 of the following: rash, conjunctivitis, changes in the lips or oral cavity, changes in the extremities, and cervical lymphadenopathy, a red throat, and a strawberry tongue. Laboratory findings may include an elevated white blood cell count with predominant neutrophils and increased platelets, as well as positive urine analysis for proteinuria and RBC cast. 1. Management typically involves high-dose aspirin and intravenous immunoglobulin to reduce inflammation and prevent coronary artery abnormalities

Answer 21

A. Check IgG now or IgG? Yes, giving immunoglobulin straight away (B) is also an option for prophylaxis in pregnant women who are not immune to varicella and have been exposed to the virus. The decision to give immunoglobulin or check IgG status depends on the timing of the exposure and the availability of the IgG assay. If the exposure occurred within the past 96 hours, VZIG or immunoglobulin should be given immediately. If the exposure occurred more than 96 hours ago, checking IgG status is appropriate. If the IgG assay is negative, prophylaxis with VZIG or immunoglobulin should be given. The pregnant woman should be tested for varicella IgG to determine her immune status as a preliminary step towards management. If IgG is positive, the woman is immune to varicella and does not require any further action. If IgG is negative, then the woman is susceptible to varicella and should be closely monitored for any signs of the disease. If the woman develops chickenpox during pregnancy, she should be referred for further management and treatment as appropriate depending on the stage of her pregnancy.

Answer 22

B. O2 with face mask The patient's symptoms suggest a severe allergic reaction, possibly anaphylaxis, which can cause airway swelling and difficulty breathing. Immediate treatment should include administration of oxygen. However, the most critical initial treatment is the administration of intramuscular epinephrine. Nebulization with Salbutamol can be considered as it helps to relieve bronchospasm, a common feature in anaphylaxis. It's important to note that this is a medical emergency and the patient should be closely monitored and further treated based on response and clinical guidelines

Answer 23

B. Perforated Duodenal Ulcer The sudden onset of severe epigastric pain, which occurred shortly after dinner, suggests an acute upper gastrointestinal event, such as a perforated peptic ulcer. The presence of marked rigidity on abdominal examination may indicate peritonitis, which can occur as a result of a perforated ulcer. Additionally, the patient's vital signs are concerning for hypovolemic shock. Often located in the epigastric region and may be constant and not radiate anywhere

Answer 24

E. Conservative

Answer 25

D. Reduce Prevalence Primary prevention aims to prevent the development of disease in healthy individuals by addressing risk factors and promoting healthy behavior. It includes measures such as providing education to promote healthy lifestyles, vaccination, and early identification of risk factors. Reducing prevalence (Option D) is a measure of secondary prevention that focuses on reducing the impact of the disease once it has occurred. It involves early diagnosis and prompt treatment to slow the progression of the disease and prevent complications. Reducing incidence (Option A) is a primary prevention measure that aims to reduce the number of new cases of a disease. It may involve measures such as vaccination, education, and behavior change. Improving lifestyle (Option B) is a primary prevention measure that focuses on promoting healthy behaviors that can help prevent the development of diseases. Lifestyle changes such as diet modification, exercise, and smoking cessation can help reduce the risk of developing many chronic diseases. Giving vaccination (Option C) is a primary prevention measure that protects individuals from developing infectious diseases such as measles, mumps, rubella, and influenza. Identifying predisposing factors early (Option E) is a primary prevention measure that aims to identify individuals who may be at risk of developing a disease based on their genetics, family history, or other risk factors. Early identification can help individuals take steps to prevent the development of the disease or manage it more effectively if it does occur.

Answer 26

A. Do a CT Scan The patient has a significant head injury with loss of consciousness followed by headache, indicating the need for further evaluation for traumatic brain injury. A computed tomography (CT) scan is the initial diagnostic imaging test of choice for suspected head injury as it can quickly identify the presence of a life-threatening or treatable injury.

Answer 27

Infraspinatus The infraspinatus muscle is one of the rotator cuff muscles that is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, and it is commonly injured in overhead athletes such as baseball players The Supraspinatus muscle is involved in the initial 15 degrees of arm elevation, while the Infraspinatus muscle is primarily responsible for external rotation of the shoulder. Given that the patient's pain is reproduced when the shoulder is externally rotated against resistance, it is more likely to be an injury to the Infraspinatus tendon rather than the Supraspinatus tendon. While the supraspinatus tendon (C) is the most frequently injured tendon of the rotator cuff, it is less likely in this case as the pain is reproduced with external rotation against resistance, which is more indicative of an infraspinatus injury

Answer 28

E. Paget's disease of the breast This condition often presents as a rash on the nipple and areola, which can progress to ulceration and discharge. It can be misdiagnosed as eczema or dermatitis, but the persistence of symptoms and lack of response to topical treatments should raise suspicion for Paget's disease. It is often associated with an underlying in situ or invasive breast carcinoma Paget's disease of the breast is a rare form of breast cancer that affects the nipple and areola and typically presents with symptoms such as itching, redness, flaky or scaly skin on the nipple, and a yellow or bloody discharge . The disease may start as a small lesion on the nipple and spread to the areola and other areas of the breast. Inflammatory breast cancer (A), mastitis (B), breast abscess (C), and breast fibroadenoma (D) are less likely diagnoses in this case, as they do not typically present with the characteristic symptoms of Paget's disease of the breast.

Answer 29

B. Amiloride. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and reduces the loss of potassium in the urine. This medication is often used in the treatment of hypertension and edema. However, amiloride can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) in some patients, particularly those with impaired renal function or those taking other medications that increase potassium levels. Enalapril (Option A) and Amlodipine (Option E) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Simvastatin (Option C) is a cholesterol-lowering medication and is not expected to cause muscle weakness or hyperkalemia. Thiazide diuretics (Option D) may cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) but not hyperkalemia.

Answer 30

C. Lumbar puncture. The presence of fever, decreased appetite, excessive crying, sleepiness, and bulging anterior fontanelle in this 8-month-old infant can be suggestive of meningitis. Therefore, performing a lumbar puncture is necessary to diagnose or rule out meningitis.

Answer 31

B. Sodium Valproate Sodium valproate is a broad-spectrum anticonvulsant medication with efficacy against generalized tonic-clonic seizures. It is also often used for patients with a history of stroke or cardiovascular disease, as it does not have significant cardiovascular effects or interact with warfarin metabolism.

Answer 32

A. Amlodipine + Amiodarone. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension, whereas Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. Both medications have the potential to cause hypotension or bradycardia, which can lead to syncope in susceptible individuals. Furosemide (Option B and D) is a diuretic used to treat congestive heart failure, whereas aspirin (Option C) is an antiplatelet medication used to treat and prevent heart attacks and strokes. Although these medications can cause side effects, they are generally not associated with syncope.

Answer 33

A. Continue Fluoxetine and Add methylphenidate. The patient is presenting with persistent fatigue, weight gain, and depression, which can be symptoms of major depressive disorder. As he has already been diagnosed with major depressive disorder and has been receiving fluoxetine therapy for 2 months, the first step would be to continue Fluoxetine and add methylphenidate to manage his fatigue. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy, but it can also be useful in managing fatigue and cognitive dysfunction associated with depression. Discontinuing fluoxetine (Option B) is not recommended since depression is a chronic condition that requires appropriate maintenance therapy. Discontinuing fluoxetine may result in relapse of depressive symptoms and cause more harm. Ibuprofen (Option B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used for pain relief and is not effective in managing depressive symptoms associated with major depressive disorder.

Answer 34

E. Gout Previous episodes of painful urination, and bilateral conjunctivitis with mucopurulent discharge is much more suggestive of gout, as these are classic features associated with acute gouty arthritis.

Answer 35

Neither social avoidance nor childhood sexual abuse is directly linked to HD as a cause. Genetics play a role.

Answer 36

A. Daily tenofovir and Emtricitabine Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is a medication that people at risk of HIV take to prevent getting HIV from sex or injection drug use. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are two antiretroviral medications that are used for PrEP and have been shown to be highly effective in preventing HIV when taken as prescribed

Answer 37

B. Fetal HR

Answer 38

C. Cease Warfarin

Answer 39

D) CT Head. Temporal lobe epilepsy is a seizure disorder characterized by recurrent seizures that originate from the temporal lobe of the brain, and blinking of eyes and lips can be one of the common symptoms of partial seizures. CT head or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain is the preferred first-line diagnostic imaging modality to evaluate for structural lesions in the brain, such as tumors, infarctions, hematomas, or cysts, which are some of the most common causes of focal seizures. These imaging modalities can also provide detailed information on the size, location, and characteristics of the lesion that could aid in further management. Urine R/E (Option A), or urine routine and microscopic examination, is used to diagnose various renal and urinary tract infections, but it is not the most appropriate investigation for this patient's presenting symptoms of episodic blinking of eyes and unresponsiveness. EMG (Option B), or electromyography, is a diagnostic tool used to diagnose muscular or peripheral neuropathic disorders and would not be helpful in diagnosing temporal lobe epilepsy. Blood sugar (Option C) can be an essential parameter to measure when investigating for seizures; however, it is less likely to cause this kind of presentation, so should not be the first test requested.

Answer 40

A) Fluticasone. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that is the first-line preventer therapy for asthma in children and adults, as it is effective in reducing inflammation in the airways and preventing asthma symptoms in the long term. Sodium cromoglycate (Option B) is a mast cell stabilizer that can be used as a preventive therapy for children with mild-to-moderate asthma, but it is less effective than inhaled corticosteroids and may not be suitable for all patients. It is typically used as an alternative to inhaled corticosteroids in those with mild intermittent asthma and can be combined with a short-acting bronchodilator, such as salbutamol. LABA (Option C), or long-acting beta-agonists, are usually not recommended initially as monotherapy but can be added to inhaled corticosteroids to control asthma symptoms in those with moderate-to-severe disease. Therefore, LABA is not the initial preventer option for this child. Montelukast (Option D) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that can be used as an alternative or addition to inhaled corticosteroids to prevent asthma symptoms, particularly in those with mild-to-moderate persistent asthma. However, the effectiveness of montelukast as a monotherapy is limited and it is not the most effective option for most people with asthma.

Answer 41

D. Ductogram A ductogram is a specialized imaging test that involves injecting a contrast agent into the affected duct and then taking X-rays to visualize the ductal system. This test can help identify the location and extent of the lesion causing the nipple discharge and can also help guide further diagnostic and therapeutic intervention

Answer 42

D. Ductogram A ductogram is a specialized imaging test that involves injecting a contrast agent into the affected duct and then taking X-rays to visualize the ductal system. This test can help identify the location and extent of the lesion causing the nipple discharge and can also help guide further diagnostic and therapeutic intervention

Answer 43

D. Inform the Senior Medical

Answer 44

D. Chemo Side effect The diagnosis is likely D. Chemo Side effect. The symptoms described, such as neck pain and unusual sensations in the hands, could be due to chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN). This is a common side effect of chemotherapy, affecting about 30 to 40 percent of patients, and can cause symptoms like tingling, numbness, and pain

Answer 45

B. Indwelling Urethral catheter The immediate treatment for acute urinary retention (AUR) is bladder decompression using urethral or suprapubic catheterization. An indwelling urethral catheter (Option B) is commonly used. However, it's important to note that surgical treatment carries a higher rate of morbidity and mortality in men presenting with AUR, and urgent prostatic surgery after AUR are associated with greater morbidity and mortality than delayed prostatectomy (Option C). Therefore, Option B, an indwelling urethral catheter, is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient. Acute urinary retention is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to relieve the bladder and prevent complications such as bladder damage, kidney damage, and sepsis . Indwelling urethral catheterization is the most common and effective method of relieving acute urinary retention . The catheter is inserted through the urethra into the bladder to drain the urine and relieve the pressure on the bladder

Answer 46

C. Cease Antihypertensive

Answer 47

A. Document

Answer 48

D. Talk to your colleague

Answer 49

A. Lithotripsy Laser: is a less invasive procedure that involves using a laser or ultrasound waves to break and remove the kidney stone. It is typically used for stones less than 2 cm in size. B. ESWL (Extracorporeal Shockwave Lithotripsy): ESWL uses shock waves to break the stone into smaller pieces that can be passed out of the body naturally. It may be an option for small to medium-sized stones that are causing symptoms. D. Basket extraction: This procedure is a minimally invasive technique to remove stones from the ureter or kidney. It involves using a small basket-like device to scoop out the stone.

Answer 50

Current pregnancy: A new pregnancy could be the cause of the elevated B hCG levels. However, it is important to rule out other possible causes, such as persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN), which can occur after a hydatidiform mole Persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN): GTN is a rare complication that can occur after a hydatidiform mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated B hCG levels and can lead to invasive mole or choriocarcinoma if left untreated In summary, the possible cause of the new presentation of B hCG of 900 seven weeks after the first pregnancy with a hydatidiform mole and D&C could be a current pregnancy or persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)

Answer 51

B. Jaw thrust and head tilt position The patient's symptoms and behavior suggest agitation, which can be caused by various underlying medical or psychiatric conditions The initial approach should focus on ensuring the patient's safety and addressing any potential life-threatening conditions . The jaw thrust and head tilt position can be used to open the patient's airway and ensure proper breathing This maneuver can be performed by gently lifting the patient's jaw forward while maintaining the head in a neutral position It is important to maintain a calm and non-confrontational approach when dealing with an agitated patient to minimize the risk of escalation

Answer 52

D. Rubeola Rubeola (Measles) is a highly contagious viral infection that is characterized by fever, coryza, conjunctivitis, and a maculopapular rash that starts on the head and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities The rash is typically preceded by a prodrome of malaise, fever, and other symptoms, which can last for several days. Koplik spots, which are pinpoint white lesions on the buccal mucosa, are a classic feature of rubeola and can help differentiate it from other viral infections Other possible causes of a maculopapular rash in children include rubella, parvovirus, and other viral and bacterial infections

Answer 53

A. Multiple Sclerosis

Answer 54

C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease is a group of inherited disorders that affect the peripheral nerves, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy, as well as sensory loss in the limbs CMT can cause foot deformities, including pes cavus (high arches), pes planus (flat feet), and hindfoot valgus (outward turning of the heel) Plantar flexed ankle, always abducted lower limb, and wide base gait can be indicative of foot deformities associated with CMT

Answer 55

A. Resolving paralytic ileus Paralytic ileus is a condition characterized by the temporary paralysis or decreased function of the intestines, leading to a disruption in normal bowel movements. It can occur as a result of surgery, including appendectomy After surgery, the intestines may temporarily slow down or stop functioning properly, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea The empty rectum suggests that there is a delay in the passage of stool through the intestines, which is consistent with paralytic ileus Paralytic ileus is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves on its own within a few days to a week after surgery

Answer 56

C. Immunodeficiency

Answer 57

C. Transfer patient for PCI

Answer 58

C. hemodialysis The given lab investigations suggest that the patient is suffering from acute kidney injury (AKI) with hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and respiratory failure The initial management of hyperkalemia includes the administration of medications such as insulin, glucose, calcium, and sodium bicarbonate to stabilize the patient's condition However, in severe cases of hyperkalemia with AKI, hemodialysis is the most effective and rapid method of removing excess potassium from the body and correcting the underlying cause of the condition Hemodialysis can also help correct other electrolyte imbalances and remove uremic toxins from the body, which can improve the patient's overall condition

Answer 59

C. Lumbar Puncture A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a medical procedure in which a needle is inserted into the spinal canal to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic testing Lumbar puncture is commonly used to help diagnose diseases of the central nervous system, including the brain and spine, such as meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage . In this case, the patient's symptoms of confusion and dizziness, along with the abnormal lab findings, may suggest the possibility of an underlying neurological condition that requires further evaluation through a lumbar puncture The analysis of CSF obtained from a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information about the presence of infectious, inflammatory, or neoplastic diseases affecting the central nervous system Lumbar puncture can also be used therapeutically in some conditions, such as the

Answer 60

B. Cease Metoprolol and Add Verapamil. The soft-blowing precordial murmur at the left sternal border suggests aortic stenosis, which may be causing ventricular ectopics in the patient. Metoprolol should be ceased as it is contraindicated in aortic stenosis. Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can be added as it is better tolerated with aortic stenosis and can also help to manage the ventricular ectopics. Warfarin is not indicated at this time.

Answer 61

A. Retained products of conception . Retained products of conception is the most likely cause of light, bright red vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping in a 5-day postpartum mother. Despite the fact that there was a complete placenta delivery and no need for suturing, there still might be a possibility that some placental tissue remains in the uterus that could be causing postpartum bleeding. As the lochia has been decreasing for the past few days, the sudden onset of bleeding suggests retained products of conception. It is recommended to do an ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis and appropriate treatment should be given accordingly.

Answer 62

C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay Serum parathyroid hormone assay. The patient's laboratory findings indicate hypercalcemia, which can be caused by several conditions, including hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, sarcoidosis, among others. A serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) assay can help determine if primary hyperparathyroidism is the cause of hypercalcemia.

Answer 63

B.Lamotrigine Lamotrigine is known to cause rashes as a side effect, and this can range from mild to severe. In some cases, the rash can be a sign of a more serious condition, such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. The fact that the girl recently started taking lamotrigine and developed a rash and fever suggests that this could be a drug reaction. The development of a maculopapular rash and fever after starting treatment with lamotrigine is a known adverse drug reaction, which may indicate an allergic reaction or Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The recent history of UTI and amoxicillin use was several weeks ago, so it is less likely to be the cause of the current presentation. Valproate is not typically associated with a maculopapular rash. Sepsis may cause a fever and rash, but Lamotrigine-induced rash should be considered first.

Answer 64

1. Diabetic neuropathy Diabetic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes that affects the nerves in the feet and legs. It can cause a loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel pain or discomfort. This can lead to the development of foot ulcers, which can become infected and lead to serious complications. Other contributing factors to foot ulcerations in diabetic patients include peripheral vascular disease, biomechanical structural deformities, and soft tissue changes

Answer 65

c/ Renal ultrasound The patient's current symptoms of flank pain, fever, and chills combined with a history of acute pyelonephritis suggest a possible renal abscess, which can be diagnosed through a renal ultrasound. An abscess should be suspected in patients with ongoing symptoms or clinical deterioration despite appropriate antibiotic therapy for pyelonephritis. Therefore, a renal ultrasound is the next appropriate step in this situation.

Answer 66

2) there's no need for anticoagulants In a healthy patient, without any specific risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)/pulmonary embolism (PE) undergoing an elective cholecystectomy, the risks of anticoagulation (such as bleeding) will likely outweigh the benefits. Therefore, there's generally no need for anticoagulants unless the patient has additional risk for thrombotic events.

Answer 67

B. Gout Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. The joints most commonly affected by gout are the big toe, ankle, and knee, but it can also affect other joints, including those in the foot. The presence of pain in the first and second metatarsal joint, along with knee joint pain, is consistent with gout. Gout is caused by the build-up of uric acid crystals inside the joints. It typically affects one joint at a time, often the big toe, but could also affect other joints. Its symptoms may also include redness, swelling, and severe pain that comes on suddenly, often at night. An episode of gout usually resolves within 1-2 weeks with treatment and can show elevated uric acid levels in the blood. Reactive arthritis, on the other hand, is typically caused by an infection in another part of the body (genital, urinary, or gastrointestinal system). It usually manifests as joint pain and swelling (often in the lower extremities), but may also involve the eyes (conjunctivitis or uveitis), skin (rash or ulcers), and urogenital tract (urethritis, cervicitis). This condition usually occurs within 1-4 weeks after the infection and is often self-limiting. It doesn't commonly involve the big toe or the metatarsals, like gout tends to.

Answer 68

D. Registrar who's doing the surgery

Answer 69

Electrolyte disturbance. Electrolyte disturbances, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) or hypernatremia (high sodium levels), can occur as a side effect of venlafaxine use. These imbalances can lead to neurological symptoms, including confusion and agitation It is important to monitor electrolyte levels regularly in individuals taking venlafaxine, especially if they are experiencing new symptoms. While it is possible that other factors, such as drug interactions or underlying brain pathology, could contribute to the symptoms, the given information does not provide enough evidence to support those causes. Electrolyte disturbance is a known side effect of venlafaxine and should be considered as a potential cause in this case.

Answer 70

a) Vaginal swab

Answer 71

D. No treatment No treatment is required for infectious mononucleosis as it is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which does not respond to antiviral medications such as Acyclovir. Antibiotics are also not effective against viral infections. Prednisolone may provide some symptom relief but is not necessary for all patients. The primary treatment for infectious mononucleosis is supportive care and management of symptoms.

Answer 72

5) prophylactic LMWH now & upto 6wks postpartum Prophylactic LMWH now and up to 6 weeks postpartum is also a recommended treatment for pregnant women with a history of DVT and hereditary prothrombin G20210A gene mutation. This option is considered in cases where the individual has no ongoing additional risk factors for thrombosis. However, if the individual has a high risk of recurrent DVT or there are additional risk factors, option 2) therapeutic LMWH now and up to 6 weeks postpartum may be preferred.

Answer 73

C. Cholecystectomy

Answer 74

Malunion: When the broken bones do not heal in the correct position leading to deformity and limited function. 2. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Pressure on the median nerve, which crosses the wrist can result in carpal tunnel syndrome, causing tingling, numbness, or weakness in the hand. 3. Complex Regional Pain Syndrome: It is a rare but serious complication and characterized by severe pain, swelling, and changes in the skin and nails of the affected limb. 4. Arthritis: A Colles fracture may lead to arthritis, which can cause pain, swelling, stiffness, and limited mobility in the wrist joint. 5. Tendon injuries: Tendons connecting the muscles to the bones, as well as the ligaments that surround the wrist joint, may be damaged due to the fracture, leading to decreased strength and mobility. 6. Infection: Although rare, a Colles fracture can result in infection if there is an open wound or a break in the skin.

Answer 75

D. Somatisation disorder D. Somatization disorder (also known as somatic symptom disorder) is a condition in which an individual experiences a variety of unexplained physical symptoms for an extended period of time, typically several years or more, for which no organic basis can be found despite extensive medical investigations. These symptoms can include chronic pain, gastrointestinal distress, fatigue, and neurological complaints. Patients with this disorder may become preoccupied with their symptoms and may seek medical attention repeatedly, possibly from multiple providers in multiple settings. Hypochondrial disorder involves excessive preoccupation with the fear of having a serious medical illness despite medical evaluation and reassurance to the contrary. Dissociative disorders and conversion disorders are dissociative states that can cause physical manifestations and neurological symptoms, but they are usually of a more sudden onset and have identifiable triggers. Munchausen's syndrome is a rare disorder in which an individual deliberately falsifies symptoms or causes self-harm in order to gain attention or sympathy from medical professionals.

Answer 76

B. SARCOIDOSIS Based on the provided information and the search results, the most likely diagnosis for the 50-year-old male with fever, malaise, pain in the knees and ankles, raised ESR, and findings of bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones on chest x-ray is B. Sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by the formation of granulomas in various organs, most commonly the lungs and lymph nodes . It can present with a wide range of symptoms, including fever, fatigue, joint pain, and respiratory symptoms. The raised ESR and the findings of bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray are consistent with sarcoidosis Berylliosis, also known as chronic beryllium disease (CBD), is a granulomatous disease caused by exposure to beryllium. Symptoms of berylliosis include cough, fever, night sweats, and fatigue. A definitive diagnosis of berylliosis is based on occupational history, positive blood or bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT), and granulomatous inflammation on lung biopsy. While the symptoms and findings of the 50-year-old male are consistent with berylliosis, the provided search results do not mention any history of beryllium exposure or any other specific features that would suggest berylliosis as the most likely diagnosis. In contrast, sarcoidosis is a more common condition that can present with similar symptoms and findings, including fever, joint pain, raised ESR, and bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray 4 . The negative Mantoux test also makes TB less likely as a diagnosis. However, a definitive diagnosis of sarcoidosis requires further evaluation, such as a biopsy of affected tissues, to confirm the presence of non-caseating granulomas. It is important to note that a definitive diagnosis for the 50-year-old male cannot be made without further evaluation and consultation with a healthcare professional.

Answer 77

a. Ask the podiatrist to review. This patient has a diabetic foot ulcer that requires specialized care from a podiatrist. It is important to involve a podiatrist early in the management of diabetic foot ulcers to facilitate healing and prevent complications. The yellow-colored discharge may indicate infection, which would require treatment with antibiotics. The podiatrist can assess the wound and determine if antibiotic therapy is needed, as well as provide recommendations for wound dressings and offloading to promote healing. MRI or intravenous antibiotics may be used in more severe cases, but this is not indicated at this point in the management of this patient. A podiatrist is a medical professional who specializes in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of foot and ankle conditions. They are trained to manage a wide range of foot and ankle problems, including diabetic foot ulcers, ingrown toenails, plantar fasciitis, and fractures. Podiatrists may use medical, surgical, and orthotic interventions to treat their patients, depending on the specific case. They may also provide advice on footwear, foot hygiene, and foot-related exercises. The goal of podiatric care is to help patients maintain healthy feet and ankles, alleviate pain and discomfort, and improve mobility and quality of life.

Answer 78

B aspirin and clopidogrel The initial management for a patient with STEMI when the time to reach the nearest tertiary care hospital is 4 hours would be to administer aspirin and clopidogrel to inhibit platelet aggregation and prevent further clot formation. If PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes, thrombolytic therapy (TPA) should be considered. However, the decision between these options should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors and contraindications Aspirin and clopidogrel antiplatelet therapy is indicated as the initial management for a patient with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) while they are awaiting transfer to a tertiary care hospital for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The benefit of administering thrombolytic therapy, like TPA, diminishes significantly after 3-4 hours of symptom onset and therefore, the patient is not an ideal candidate for TPA, given the time taken to reach the hospital. Heparin can be initiated upon arrival at the tertiary care hospital. Transfer for PCI as soon as possible is also necessary to reduce the damage done to the myocardium. However, administration of aspirin and clopidogrel within the first hour of presentation can improve survival rates and help prevent further clotting and occlusion of the coronary artery until PCI can be performed. In the given scenario, aspirin and clopidogrel antiplatelet therapy is recommended as the initial management while the patient is being transferred to a tertiary care hospital for PCI, and heparin can be initiated upon arrival at the hospital. Regarding the use of TPA (A), it can be considered as a treatment option for patients with STEMI who arrive within 3 to 4.5 hours of symptom onset, especially in cases where timely transfer for PCI is not possible. However, in this case, the patient has taken 4 hours to reach the tertiary care hospital, which is beyond the recommended time limit for administration of TPA. Regarding transfer for PCI (C), it is a definitive treatment for STEMI and is necessary for the patient, as it helps restore blood flow to the heart and minimizes damage to the myocardium. However, as the patient is currently presenting with chest pain and is not stable for transfer, antiplatelet therapy is the initial step in management until the patient can be transferred to the hospital. Therefore, the initial management for this patient with STEMI presenting after 4 hours from symptom onset would be B. aspirin and clopidogrel. Primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion therapy for patients with STEMI if it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact. However, if this time frame is not possible, then fibrinolytic therapy is preferred for those without contraindications. Therefore, the patient should be transferred to the nearest tertiary care hospital with the capability to perform primary PCI as soon as possible. In the meantime, the patient should receive aspirin and clopidogrel and heparin to reduce the risk of further thrombotic events. Morphine sulfate can be given for chest discomfort refractory to nitrates and other anti-ischemic therapies It is important to note that the management of STEMI is time-sensitive, and delays in reperfusion therapy can lead to worse outcomes

Answer 79

A toxic multinodular goitre T3-secreting adenoma is a type of thyroid nodular disease marked by a solitary thyroid nodule that produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormone in the form of T3. This can lead to the development of hyperthyroidism, which is characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, tremor, sweating, palpitations, and anxiety. Patients with T3-secreting adenomas will typically have a low TSH level, an elevated T3 level, and a mildly elevated T4 level. Due to the significantly elevated T3 levels, serum T3 forms the main diagnostic laboratory test for T3-secreting adenomas. Toxic multinodular goitre is a type of thyroid nodular disease marked by the presence of multiple nodules within the thyroid gland that become overactive and produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormone. Patients with toxic multinodular goitre will present with a large goitre and symptoms of hyperthyroidism such as weight loss, tremors, sweating, palpitations, and anxiety. They may also present with features of Graves' disease such as exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, and thyroid acropachy. Patients with toxic multinodular goitre will typically have a low TSH level and an elevated T3 and T4 level. There may be a greater increase in T4 relative to T3 in toxic multinodular goitre when compared to T3-secreting adenomas. T3 levels are usually elevated, but not to the degree seen in T3-secreting adenomas. In summary, while both conditions can lead to hyperthyroidism, T3-secreting adenomas involve a solitary thyroid nodule that overproduces T3, leading to elevated T3 levels and only mild elevation of T4 levels. In contrast, toxic multinodular goitre involves the presence of multiple nodules that overproduce both thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to a significant elevation of both hormones in the blood. Serum T3 levels are usually elevated but not to the degree seen in T3-secreting adenomas. You are correct, my previous response made an assumption about multiple nodules based on the terminology of toxic multinodular goitre. However, given that the case only mentions a large non-tender goitre without specifying multiple nodules, it would indeed be more appropriate to consider this as a solitary thyroid nodule rather than toxic multinodular goitre. With a solitary thyroid nodule and a low TSH level along with elevated T4 and T3 levels, the most likely diagnosis in this case would be a T3-secreting adenoma rather than toxic multinodular goitre. T3-secreting adenoma is characterized by the presence of a single autonomous nodule that produces excessive amounts of T3. I apologize for the earlier confusion and any misinformation caused by my previous responses. Based on the information provided in the case, a T3-secreting adenoma is the more likely diagnosis.

Answer 80

Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that leads to chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland. Over time, the inflammation can lead to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue and a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. The clinical manifestations of Hashimoto's thyroiditis include fatigue, weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance, as well as depression and poor memory. Physical examination typically reveals a diffusely enlarged goitre that feels firm or rubbery to the touch. Laboratory findings in Hashimoto's thyroiditis reveal elevated levels of serum TSH and decreased levels of serum T4 and T3. Patients with Hashimoto's thyroiditis will typically have thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and thyroglobulin (TG) antibodies present in their serum. De Quervain's thyroiditis is a self-limiting viral infection that affects the thyroid gland. It is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms such as thyroid pain, swelling, tenderness, fever, and malaise. The thyroid gland may be diffusely enlarged and tender, and the patient may experience pain in the neck and jaw area that may worsen with swallowing. Laboratory findings in de Quervain's thyroiditis reveal a temporary increase in serum T4 and T3 levels. In addition, patients may have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) levels may be elevated. In summary, Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that leads to chronic inflammation and hypothyroidism, while de Quervain's thyroiditis is a self-limiting viral infection that causes transient thyroid gland inflammation and transient hyperthyroidism. While both diseases may be associated with enlarged thyroid glands and neck pain, Hashimoto's thyroiditis causes destruction of thyroid tissue and leads to hypothyroidism, while de Quervain's thyroiditis is usually self-limited and characterized by transient episodes of hyperthyroidism.

Answer 81

5. Folic Acid Based on the given information and the search results, the treatment of choice for the 33-year-old woman with active RA on methotrexate, who feels tired and lethargic, and has low hemoglobin, low normal MCH, decreased serum iron, and decreased TIBC, is option 5: Folic Acid. Folic acid supplementation is recommended for patients with RA who are taking methotrexate, as methotrexate can interfere with folate metabolism and lead to anemia. Folic acid supplementation has been shown to reduce the incidence of methotrexate-induced anemia and improve hemoglobin levels. Therefore, folic acid supplementation should be initiated in this patient to address the anemia. Other treatment options, such as packed RBC, IV iron, low dose CTs, and erythropoietin injection, may be considered in severe cases of anemia, but are not the initial treatment of choice Folate supplements can help improve anemia, fatigue, and other adverse effects associated with methotrexate treatment. Methotrexate works by inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which can lead to folate deficiency.

Answer 82

B.breast cyst You are correct that fibroadenomas are typically painless, and the given information suggests that the lump is painful. Therefore, based on the given information and the search results, the most likely cause of the 3mm regular lump that is painful inferiorly and hyperechoic in a 30-year-old female is option B: breast cyst. Breast cysts are a common cause of breast lumps in women between 35 and 50 years of age, and are characterized by a well-defined, round or oval, anechoic structure with a thin wall. Breast cysts can be painful, and tenderness may increase before menstruation On ultrasound, fibroadenomas can appear as a well-circumscribed solid mass with variable echogenicity. Therefore, fibroadenoma is a possibility (option A), but other clinical features can help to differentiate between fibroadenoma and breast cysts. In the given scenario, the fact that the lump is painful and inferiorly located, along with a hyperechoic appearance on ultrasound favors the diagnosis of a breast cyst (Option B). Breast cysts are fluid-filled sacs that can cause a palpable mass or lump, and they are typically non-cancerous. The cyst may be painful or tender, especially if it is located near the surface of the breast. Hyperechoic appearance on ultrasound is also a common finding with breast cysts. Fibroadenomas (Option A) are another common benign breast lump, but they are usually not painful and may have a different appearance on ultrasound. Breast cancer (Option C) is less likely in a young patient with a small, painful, and diffuse lump,

Answer 83

B. Sle SLE is often associated with positive ANA, anti-dsDNA, and ENA tests. Sjögren's Syndrome is typically associated with positive ANA and anti-Ro tests. The presence of positive ANA and ENA along with anti-dsDNA and anti-Ro antibodies is suggestive of SLE. A negative anti-CCP result would argue against Rheumatoid Arthritis (option A). Sjogren's Syndrome (Option C) is another autoimmune disorder that can cause joint pain in addition to dry eyes and mouth, but the presented lab results are not entirely consistent with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no mention of dry eyes or mouth in the case description. Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder (Option D) is also a possibility since it overlaps with features of SLE, scleroderma, and polymyositis/dermatomyositis, but more information and additional tests would be needed to make an accurate diagnosis.

Answer 84

C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay Given the patient's clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most appropriate investigation would be option C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay. The results show that the patient's total calcium and ionized calcium levels are both elevated, which can be suggestive of hyperparathyroidism. The parathyroid hormone (PTH) assay can measure the levels of PTH in the blood, which can help to confirm the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. A high serum PTH level in the presence of elevated calcium would confirm primary hyperparathyroidism as the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. This test can help determine if the patient has hyperparathyroidism, a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone, leading to elevated levels of calcium in the blood Options A, B, D, and E are not typically indicated in the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. A 24-hour urinary calcium (Option A) may be ordered to help assess calcium excretion, but it is not a primary test for hyperparathyroidism. Glucose tolerance test (Option B) may be ordered to test for diabetes, but it is not relevant in this case. A bone scan (Option D) or a serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (Option E) may be helpful in diagnosing other conditions, such as osteoporosis or sarcoidosis, respectively, but would not be specific in diagnosing hyperparathyroidism.

Answer 85

e) Parvovirus

Answer 86

A. Stop POP and use condoms Yes, I'm sure. Doubling the dose of the progestin-only pill (POP) is not recommended because carbamazepine, an enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drug, can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives like POPs. Even with higher doses, contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed due to the drug interaction A. Stop POP and use condoms. Carbamazepine is known to interact with hormonal contraceptives and decrease their effectiveness. Therefore, it is recommended to stop using the POP and switch to a non-hormonal method of contraception such as condoms.

Answer 87

D) VENOUS Doppler Doppler ultrasound is considered the initial imaging modality to assess arterial and venous blood flow and to exclude peripheral arterial disease in patients with foot ulcers. The non-healing ulcer in a diabetic patient with non-palpable foot pulses suggests the possibility of peripheral vascular disease. A venous Doppler can help to assess blood flow to the foot and the presence of any blockages in the veins. This information is crucial in determining the appropriate management plan for the patient, which may include treatment of the underlying vascular disease, debridement of the ulcer, antibiotic therapy, and offloading to reduce pressure on the foot. Blood culture, white cell scan, and swab from ulcer may be indicated to help guide antibiotic therapy, but these tests do not provide information about vascular status. An MRI is not typically used as a first-line diagnostic test for non-healing foot ulcers.

Answer 88

4, Add metoprolol

Answer 89

2.program of rest n minimal walking Graded resistance exercise (option 5) is a reasonable management option for knee osteoarthritis, especially when the patient has mild symptoms and good function. Resistance training can help to improve muscle strength, joint stability, and overall function. In the scenario provided, the patient has mild swelling and warmth, which suggests there may be active inflammation present, and as such, a period of rest and minimal walking is indicated to allow for the inflammation to settle before initiating graded resistance exercise. Therefore, depending on the severity of the patient's symptoms and their functional capacity, both options 2 (program of rest and minimal walking) and 5 (graded resistance exercise) could be considered as appropriate management strategies. 2. Program of rest and minimal walking. The patient's symptoms suggest the presence of knee osteoarthritis, and rest along with the application of heat or cold therapy is usually the first line non-pharmacological management.

Answer 90

4. Monitor antibody titer levels An Rh-negative mother with Rh alloimmunization requires close monitoring throughout the pregnancy to ensure timely identification of any possible complications. A titre of 1:32 indicates that the mother's immune system has produced antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells, which could cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) in the next pregnancy. However, the risk of HDN depends on several factors, including gestational age, titre levels, and other maternal and fetal factors. Therefore, the next step would be to monitor the antibody titre levels throughout the pregnancy to assess the risk of HDN and determine the appropriate management. The exact frequency and timing of the titres will depend on the individual case and should be determined by a healthcare provider. Checking the partner's blood group (option 1) is important for determining the risk of Rh alloimmunization but is not necessary at this stage since the mother is already Rh negative. Rhogam is not indicated at this point since it is a prophylactic medication given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh alloimmunization during and after pregnancy. It does not typically reduce the antibody titre that is already present in the mother's bloodstream.

Answer 91

3. Unable to extend neck The sudden onset of neck pain, limited range of motion, and inability to extend the neck after a motor vehicular accident require further evaluation to rule out any serious injuries such as a cervical spine fracture. In this case, an imaging study, such as a cervical spine X-ray or CT scan, is indicated to assess for any fractures or other structural damage. While the patient's history of osteoporosis (option 1) is relevant and may increase the risk of a fracture, it is not the main indication for a radiologic examination in this scenario. Similarly, limited range of motion (option 2) can be a symptom of a cervical spine injury, but it is not the main reason for imaging. The inability to extend the neck, on the other hand, is a red flag symptom that should prompt immediate imaging to rule out any serious cervical spine injury.

Answer 92

A ADT The T3 NOM1 classification in prostate cancer staging refers to the extent of the local (T) tumor and regional nodal (N) metastasis, as well as the presence of distant metastasis (M). "T3" indicates that the prostate cancer has advanced beyond the outer layer of the prostate gland and may have extended into nearby tissues, such as the seminal vesicles. "N0" indicates no regional lymph node involvement, while "M1" indicates the presence of distant metastasis, in this case, to the lumbar vertebrae. Therefore, T3 NOM1 prostate cancer in the lumbar vertebrae indicates that the cancer has spread beyond the prostate gland and regional lymph nodes and has metastasized to the lumbar vertebrae, which are bones in the lower back. This is considered advanced stage prostate cancer with distant metastasis, which requires systemic therapy with both hormonal and radiation treatments. If I were to choose only one treatment option for this patient, it would be A) ADT (Androgen Deprivation Therapy), which is typically the first-line treatment for metastatic prostate cancer and can help to reduce the size of the tumor and reduce symptoms such as bone pain. However, it is important to note that combination therapy with both ADT and EBRT is considered the standard of care for patients with metastatic castration-sensitive prostate cancer like this patient. Therefore, if possible, a combination of ADT and EBRT should be considered to provide the best outcomes. A) ADT (Androgen Deprivation Therapy) is typically the first-line treatment in patients with metastatic prostate cancer. It involves the use of medications that reduce or block the production of testosterone, which is the main hormone that drives the growth of prostate cancer. D) EBRT (External Beam Radiation Therapy) can help to relieve pain and shrink tumors in the lumbar vertebrae in patients with metastatic prostate cancer. Other treatment options mentioned in the search results include: Radical prostatectomy (option 2): Radical prostatectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the prostate gland. However, in the case of metastatic prostate cancer involving the lumbar vertebrae, surgery may not be the primary treatment approach B/l orchidectomy (option 3): Bilateral orchidectomy, or surgical removal of the testicles, is another method to reduce androgen levels in the body. However, it is less commonly performed compared to ADT with medications

Answer 93

D) Oral Fluconazole Fluconazole is an antifungal medication that is effective against candidiasis and is the recommended first-line treatment for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis. Oral fluconazole is usually given as a single-dose regimen and has been shown to have a high efficacy rate. Oral Nystatin (option A) and Vaginal Nystatin (option E) are not usually recommended for vulvovaginal candidiasis as they are less effective than fluconazole, especially in cases of recurrent candidiasis. Oral Grisofulvin (option B) is not a recommended treatment for candidiasis, as it is primarily indicated for the treatment of fungal infections of the skin and nails. Oral Ketoconazole (option C) is an antifungal medication that can be effective against candidiasis, but it is no longer recommended as a first-line therapy for recurrent candidiasis due to its potential for serious liver toxicity.

Answer 94

d) Refer for colposcopy Helen Jones' symptoms and clinical examination suggest cervical ectropion, a benign condition where the soft cells lining the inside of the cervical canal spread to the outer surface of the cervix. This condition can cause symptoms such as painless post-coital bleeding and is common in women of reproductive age, especially those using estrogen-containing contraceptives like Helen. The Pap smear result of "inflammatory" is also consistent with this condition. Colposcopy is a procedure that allows for a closer examination of the cervix, which can help identify any abnormalities and guide further management Changing the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) to a more progestogenic balance (option E) is not supported by the available information. While hormonal imbalances can contribute to certain gynecological issues, such as irregular bleeding, it is important to first investigate the cause of post-coital bleeding before considering changes to contraceptive methods. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate management plan.

Answer 95

b. Reactive arthritis Reactive arthritis, also known as Reiter's syndrome, is a type of inflammatory arthritis that typically occurs following an infection, often involving the genitourinary or gastrointestinal tract.. It commonly presents with joint inflammation, especially in the lower extremities, along with other symptoms such as fever, rash, and swollen lymph nodes. The presence of a febrile illness, joint swelling, maculopapular rash, and palpable cervical lymph nodes align with the clinical features of reactive arthritis.. Additionally, there is no history of relevant travel outside Australia, which makes infectious causes less likely.

Answer 96

3. Emergency dialysis Hyperkalemia is a medical emergency that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and requires prompt treatment. In this scenario, the patient has multiple risk factors for hyperkalemia, including the use of medications like ARBs, thiazide, and digoxin. The high urea and creatinine levels also suggest impaired kidney function, which can exacerbate hyperkalemia by reducing the kidney's ability to excrete potassium. In such a situation, emergency dialysis is the best option to remove excess potassium and improve kidney function. Dialysis can quickly and effectively remove potassium and other harmful substances from the bloodstream, alleviate symptoms, and prevent further complications. IV glucose (option 1) and insulin and glucose (option 2) are useful adjuncts to manage hyperkalemia, but they are not effective as monotherapy for acute hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels. These treatments help shift potassium into cells, but can also exacerbate hypoglycemia and worsen acidemia. You are correct that IV insulin and glucose (option 2) can be used as a treatment for hyperkalemia. Insulin stimulates the movement of potassium inside the cells, while glucose helps to prevent hypoglycemia as insulin can cause blood sugar levels to drop. However, it is important to note that this treatment is usually a temporizing measure to stabilize hyperkalemia and is not sufficient for patients with severe hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels. Dialysis is indicated in these scenarios as it can remove potassium as well as other toxins from the bloodstream. In the provided scenario of a patient with multiple medications and hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels, dialysis is the most appropriate treatment option. It can provide rapid and effective removal of excess potassium and improve renal function by removing other accumulated toxins. Once stable, insulin and glucose infusion can be initiated to prevent reoccurrence of hyperkalemia.

Answer 97

1. Fibroadenoma. Fibroadenomas are benign breast masses that can present as a hypoechoic or, more often, a hyperechoic mass with a characteristic whorled appearance on ultrasound. They are well-circumscribed and tend to be mobile and smooth. Fibroadenomas typically occur in those under the age of 30 and are more common in women in their teenage years and early twenties. While a breast cyst (option 3) can also present as a hypoechoic mass and is a common cause of breast lumps, a hyperechoic appearance is usually seen in fibroadenomas. Fibroadenomas are benign breast tumors that commonly occur in women under 30 years of age. They are estrogen-induced tumors that form in adolescence and usually present as a firm, smooth, oval-shaped, freely movable mass. Fibroadenomas are typically well-defined and appear as a hypoechoic lesion on ultrasound In general, fibroadenomas are more commonly hyperechoic on an ultrasound and have a whorled appearance, but a fibroadenoma's echogenicity can depend on several factors. For example, an early-stage fibroadenoma may be less well-circumscribed and appear more hypoechoic, while a later-stage fibroadenoma may have a more heterogeneous appearance due to the development of cystic areas within the solid fibrous tissue. While fibroadenomas are often hyperechoic, it is possible for them to appear hypoechoic, and further evaluation may be required to fully characterize the lesion.

Answer 98

3. Karyotype In a child with mildly enlarged breasts (gynecomastia), small testes, and sparse pubic and axillary hair, it is important to consider disorders of sex development (DSD) or intersex conditions. Therefore, a karyotype analysis would be an appropriate initial test to evaluate for any chromosomal abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) or other DSDs. Additionally, a testosterone level can also be helpful in assessing androgen production and to help confirm the diagnosis.

Answer 99

A. Umbilical hernia Without cough impulses being assessed, it is difficult to definitively diagnose the cause of the abdominal swelling. However, based on the location described (just above the umbilicus), the most likely diagnosis would be an umbilical hernia. how about epigastric are u sure it is not epigastric? Epigastric hernias typically occur in the upper abdominal region, between the navel and the lower part of the ribcage. They usually cause a small bulge or swelling in that area and can cause discomfort or pain. The location described in the question is just above the umbilicus, which is more consistent with an umbilical hernia. However, it is important to note that the exact cause of the abdominal swelling cannot be accurately determined based on the information provided alone and a proper physical examination and assessment would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

Answer 100

D. Breast cancer?

Answer 101

B. Ectopic During pregnancy, BHCG levels typically increase rapidly and can be detected in a blood or urine test as early as 10 days after a missed menstrual period. In general, BHCG levels double every 48-72 hours in the early stages of pregnancy, peaking at around 8-10 weeks and then gradually declining. The BHCG level can vary among different women based on the duration of pregnancy, individual embryonic growth rates, and individual variations. However, a BHCG level that is lower than expected for the stage of pregnancy (based on the last menstrual period or other factors) could indicate a potential problem with the pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a miscarriage. Therefore, during pregnancy, BHCG levels are expected to be high and to increase over time. However, the specific values can vary widely between individuals and between pregnancies. However, if the patient presented with a BHCG level of 800 after having previously experienced high BHCG levels followed by normalization, the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy should be considered. As mentioned earlier, ectopic pregnancy is a potential complication in which the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tubes, rather than in the uterus.

Answer 102

C. Renal ultrasound (USG) The presence of RBCs, leukocytes, and traces of protein in the urine analysis of a 7-year-old girl with a history of nocturnal enuresis suggests the need for further evaluation. In this case, the persistence of abnormalities in urine analysis even after resolution of the upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) raises concerns about a possible underlying renal pathology or structural issue. The most appropriate next investigation in this scenario would be a renal ultrasound (USG). This imaging modality can help assess the structure of the kidneys and identify any abnormalities, such as kidney stones, urinary tract obstruction, or congenital anomalies. The finding of non-glomerular RBCs in the urine suggests a potential non-glomerular source of bleeding, which could be related to a structural issue in the urinary tract. Urine culture (A) and blood culture (D) may be considered in cases of suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) or systemic infection, but they are less specific in evaluating structural issues or identifying the cause of persistent urine abnormalities. DM5A (B) is not a recognized medical term, so it is unclear what this refers to and its relevance to the case.

Answer 103

2. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 104

D. Limited lateral neck movement (C spine rule 3 limited lateral 30° rotation). The Canadian C-spine rule is a set of criteria used to decide whether cervical spine imaging (e.g., X-ray) is indicated in patients who have suffered neck trauma. According to the C-spine rule 3, cervical spine imaging is recommended if the patient complains of any of the following: limited neck rotation (less than 45°), age greater than 65 years, dangerous mechanism of injury, or paresthesias (e.g., numbness or tingling) in the extremities. In this case, the patient has limited lateral neck movement and therefore satisfies the indication for cervical spine imaging. While osteoporosis and alendronate use may increase the risk of vertebral fractures, they are not specific indicators for obtaining a neck X-ray. Pain at the lateral side of the neck and radiation of pain to the upper arm are common symptoms of cervical spine injuries but by themselves are not sufficient indications for cervical spine imaging.

Answer 105

B. Jaw thrust and head tilt position

Answer 106

1. Electrolyte disturbance You are correct. An electrolyte imbalance can indeed cause confusion and agitation, and it should be considered as a potential cause in this case. Medications like venlafaxine can sometimes affect electrolyte levels, especially sodium, leading to hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms. Hyponatremia, characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood, can cause confusion, agitation, disorientation, and other cognitive symptoms. It is important to assess the patient's electrolyte levels, particularly sodium, through blood tests to confirm if an electrolyte imbalance is the cause of their symptoms.

Answer 107

B. Serum cu and seruloplasmin Based on the given information, the most appropriate investigation to diagnose this condition would be to check serum copper and serum ceruloplasmin levels. Wilson's disease is a genetic condition characterized by abnormal copper metabolism, leading to copper accumulation in various organs, particularly the liver and brain. Symptoms of Wilson's disease can include wide-based gait, tremors, forgetfulness, slurred speech, and other neurological symptoms. The diagnosis of Wilson's disease can be made by measuring serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels, as well as performing genetic testing, liver biopsy, or other imaging studies. In Wilson's disease, copper levels in serum and urine are increased, while serum ceruloplasmin levels are decreased.

Answer 108

1.nothing to do Gilbert syndrome is a benign condition in which there is reduced hepatic uptake and conjugation of bilirubin, leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin levels in the blood. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require any specific treatment. Hence in a patient with Gilbert Syndrome with no physical signs and increased bilirubin, no additional therapeutic or diagnostic interventions are necessary. However, patients with Gilbert syndrome may experience transient episodes of jaundice or mild gastrointestinal discomfort during times of stress, fasting, or illness. In such cases, supportive measures such as avoiding fasting, increasing hydration, and treating any underlying illness may be helpful in managing symptoms. In summary, patients with Gilbert syndrome do not require a specific management plan, but they should be counseled about the benign nature of the condition and informed about symptom management during episodes of stress or illness.

Answer 109

2. Explore her preferred sources The most appropriate next step would be to explore her preferred sources. Given that the doctor has a pre-existing social relationship with the couple and also treats them, it is important to maintain professionalism and establish appropriate boundaries in this situation. It would not be appropriate for the doctor to directly involve themselves in the marital issues of their patients. Instead, the doctor should encourage the wife to seek professional help from a qualified therapist, counselor, or psychologist who specializes in couples therapy or marital counseling. Exploring her preferred sources would involve discussing different options and potentially providing her with referrals to trusted professionals who can provide the appropriate support for her and her husband.

Answer 110

A. FNAC Option A, fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC), is the appropriate next step for the evaluation of a parotid gland mass with CT evidence of superficial lobe involvement without facial nerve palsy. FNAC, which involves using a small needle to obtain a sample of the mass for cytological examination and analysis, can help differentiate between benign and malignant lesions. USS (option B) is still useful as it can help identify the size and location of the parotid gland mass and assess surrounding structures, including the facial nerve. However, it is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluation of a parotid mass that requires tissue sampling. Surgical management options for parotid gland masses, such as superficial or total parotidectomy (options C and D), would depend on the cytological findings and the overall management strategy. Therefore, option A, FNAC, would be the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of a parotid gland mass with CT evidence of superficial lobe involvement without facial nerve palsy.

Answer 111

A. Autistic spectrum disorder < 39 Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for this child's behavioral and developmental symptoms is option A, Autistic Spectrum Disorder (ASD) with associated social communication difficulties and repetitive behaviors. The child presents with social communication and interaction difficulties such as leaving class earlier or staying alone in his room, odd behavior such as placing toys in parallel and shouting out loud, and restricted and repetitive interests such as not talking much or having no friends at school. These symptoms are consistent with the diagnostic criteria of ASD. Eye contact is reported to be present, which could indicate that it is not severe autism. However, further evaluation would be necessary to determine the severity of the ASD and to rule out other possible diagnoses.

Answer 112

B. Avascular necrosis Avascular necrosis is a condition where the blood supply to the bone is disrupted, leading to bone death and collapse. It commonly affects the hip joint and can cause pain, stiffness, and difficulty walking . The multiple bruises may be due to the patient's age and increased fragility of the skin. The low MMSE score may indicate cognitive impairment, which can be associated with avascular necrosis. Therefore, the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient would be avascular necrosis. It is important to note that a comprehensive evaluation by a healthcare professional, such as an orthopedic surgeon or rheumatologist, is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and develop an appropriate management plan. The evaluation may involve a thorough assessment of the patient's medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies, such as X-rays or MRI. The management of avascular necrosis may involve conservative measures, such as pain management and physical therapy, or surgical intervention, depending on the severity and location of the disease

Answer 113

B. Atorvastatin Atorvastatin therapy is associated with mild, asymptomatic, and usually transient serum aminotransferase elevations in 1% to 3% of patients

Answer 114

C. Charcot marie tooth Friedrich Ataxia typically presents with symptoms such as difficulty with balance and coordination, slurred speech, and heart disease, which were not mentioned in the query. While it can cause gait abnormalities, the specific symptoms of a plantar flexed ankle, abducted lower limb, and wide-based gait are more characteristic of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

Answer 115

C-night time sedation Weight gain is another potential side effect of Risperidone, particularly in children, and it can occur quickly. However, weight gain is not typically an initial side effect and may take longer to develop

Answer 116

A Ultrasound of the lump. An ultrasound of the lump is the best investigation to consider in this patient as it can help to confirm the presence of an inguinal hernia, which can present with constipation and abdominal distension, and also to exclude other possible causes of the lump, such as an abscess or a tumor.

Answer 117

f. Angioplasty Angioplasty is a procedure used to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels, particularly in the context of acute coronary syndrome (ACS). . The presence of chest pain, EKG changes, and the potential for a cardiac cause of the symptoms warrant urgent evaluation and intervention

Answer 118

C. Tension headache Based on the description of the patient's symptoms, the most likely cause of her headache is tension headache. Tension headaches are the most common type of headache and are characterized by dull, non-pulsating pressure or aching pain around the forehead, temples, or back of the head and neck. These types of headaches can be caused by different factors including stress, fatigue, poor posture, and lack of sleep. In this case, the woman works part-time as an office cleaner, and this may involve long hours on her feet, which may lead to fatigue and muscle tension in the neck and shoulders, contributing to her headache. Additionally, her use of paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms suggests that she is experiencing recurrent or chronic headaches. Drug rebound headache may occur with frequent or overuse of pain medications and can cause headaches that worsen with medication withdrawal. Migraine is characterized by recurrent headaches, often with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound, and is less likely in this case due to the absence of these accompanying symptoms. Cerebral tumor is a rare cause of headache and is usually associated with other neurological symptoms. Pre-menstrual headache is another possible cause of headache, but it is usually predictable in relation to menstrual cycle and is typically associated with other pre-menstrual symptoms.

Answer 119

A. Iv fluid The patient with asplenia and anemia who experiences chills and rigors during blood transfusion should be suspected of having a transfusion reaction. In this case, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should be examined for any signs of anaphylaxis, acute hemolytic reaction, febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction, or other potential transfusion reactions. Since anaphylaxis cannot be ruled out, the patient should be closely monitored and given supportive care such as supplemental oxygen, intravenous fluids, and medications, as appropriate, while the cause and severity of the transfusion reaction are determined. Therefore, the most appropriate next step in this scenario would be to give the patient supportive care, including IV fluids, and closely monitor for signs of anaphylaxis or other transfusion reactions. Reassuring the patient and resuming the transfusion would not be appropriate until it is confirmed that the transfusion reaction has been resolved and it is safe to resume transfusion. Neither Epipen nor paracetamol would be appropriate as the first-line management of a transfusion reaction.

Answer 120

a. Parkinsonism The clinical feature that is helpful in differentiating Lewy body dementia from Alzheimer's disease is Parkinsonism. While both conditions may share similar symptoms, such as memory loss and cognitive decline, the presence of Parkinsonism, which includes symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and impaired movement, is more commonly associated with Lewy body dementia

Answer 121

b. ABO incompatibility The most likely cause of the anemia in this scenario is ABO incompatibility. ABO incompatibility occurs when a mother with blood type O gives birth to a baby with blood type A, B, or AB. In this case, the baby has blood type O, which is compatible with the mother's blood type. However, if the baby's blood type is A or B, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies against the baby's blood cells, leading to hemolysis and anemia. Laboratory findings in ABO incompatibility may include: - Low hematocrit and hemoglobin levels - High reticulocyte count, indicating increased red blood cell production - Elevated bilirubin levels, indicating breakdown of red blood cells - Presence of hemoglobinuria or hemoglobinemia - Positive direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test, indicating the presence of antibodies on the surface of the baby's red blood cells. Feto-maternal transfusion, sickle-cell anemia, and iron-deficiency anemia are less likely causes of anemia in this scenario. Physiologic anemia of the newborn is a common condition seen in the first few months of life and is due to the normal decrease in fetal hemoglobin and increase in red blood cell mass after birth. However, it usually does not lead to significant anemia at birth.

Answer 122

A. Mammary duct ectasia. Mammary duct ectasia is a benign condition that occurs when the milk ducts under the nipple become inflamed and dilated. It can result in a thick, greenish-yellow discharge from the nipple, as well as breast pain and swelling. The condition is more common in women over 50 years of age and can occur in both breasts. In this case, the bilateral mastalgia and bilateral greenish-yellow nipple discharge are consistent with mammary duct ectasia. On examination, multiple ducts are seen to be involved, further supporting the diagnosis. Additionally, the imaging findings of dilated main ducts and absence of a focal mass or asymmetry also support the diagnosis of mammary duct ectasia.

Answer 123

2.Dysmenorrhea Dysmenorrhea is a medical term for painful menstrual periods or menstrual cramps. The woman has a regular 4-6 week cycle and no mass on abdominal palpitation and clear adnexal. Her cervical Os is closed, and there is no fever. The pain on the first day of menstruation since long ago, but this time, the pain becomes more severe, which is consistent with dysmenorrhea.

Answer 124

b. 02 with face mask

Answer 125

B. Gout Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to severe pain, swelling, and redness. It commonly affects the big toe joint, but can also affect other joints such as the knee and foot. Gout can also be associated with other conditions such as kidney stones and impotence. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is another type of arthritis that can cause joint pain, but it typically involves multiple joints and is associated with other symptoms such as morning stiffness and swelling. Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis caused by an infection, typically in the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract, and is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and inflammation.

Answer 126

C. Incision and drainage. An abscess is a localized collection of pus that typically requires drainage to promote healing and resolution of the infection. In this scenario, the abscess is clearly visible as a reddened, swollen area with whitish-yellow pus. Incision and drainage would involve making a small incision in the abscess to release the accumulated pus and promote drainage. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms, reduce swelling, and facilitate healing. Oral antibiotics such as Amoxicillin or IV antibiotics like Flucloxacillin may be considered as an adjunctive treatment to help control the infection. However, antibiotics alone may not be sufficient to resolve the abscess completely. Topical chloramphenicol or topical steroids are not appropriate in this scenario. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic ointment typically used for bacterial conjunctivitis, not abscesses. Topical steroids should be used with caution in the eye area due to the risk of worsening infection or other potential complications

Answer 127

The most likely diagnosis in this scenario is D. Birth asphyxia. Birth asphyxia refers to a lack of oxygen to the baby's brain during the birth process. This can occur due to a variety of reasons, including a prolonged labor, umbilical cord prolapse, placental abruption, or other complications during delivery. The prolonged labor (36 hours) in this case is a risk factor for birth asphyxia. The low APGAR score in the first minute and even at 5 minutes indicates that the baby was not getting sufficient oxygen during birth, which can lead to metabolic acidosis as seen in the blood investigations. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, chest infection, and hypoglycemia are also possible causes of a low APGAR score and metabolic acidosis in a newborn. However, based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis is birth asphyxia.

Answer 128

D. Cervical spondylitis The presence of UMN signs such as spasticity and hyperactive tendon reflexes favors a diagnosis of cervical spondylitis. On the other hand, a diagnosis of MND would require a combination of both upper and lower motor neuron involvement.

Answer 129

©) Arrange for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray The most appropriate next step in management in this scenario is (c) arrange for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray. A generalized seizure occurring in a child with a fever can be an indication of a febrile seizure. While febrile seizures are usually benign and do not cause any long-term harm, the fever may indicate an underlying infection. Therefore, blood tests such as a full blood examination (FBE) and blood cultures, as well as a chest X-ray should be arranged to identify if there is an underlying infection that may require further treatment. Performing a lumbar puncture may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not the first-line investigation in this case. Likewise, commencing valproate prophylactically is not recommended in a child who has had a single febrile seizure as it may not be required and has risks related to the medication. While arranging an outpatient neurological review with EEG may be necessary, it is not the immediate next step. If the underlying cause of the seizure is identified and treated promptly, further investigations and review may be unnecessary. Therefore, arranging for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray is the most appropriate next step in management to identify any potential underlying infection or risk factors that may require further management.

Answer 130

A. Multiple sclerosis MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, including the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves. The symptoms of MS can vary widely and may include vision problems, muscle weakness, difficulty with coordination and balance, and cognitive impairment. The diagnosis of MS is usually made based on a combination of clinical symptoms, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The acute loss of vision and pain in the eye, along with the subsequent improvement in acuity, is consistent with optic neuritis, which is a common presenting symptom in multiple sclerosis. The presence of slurred speech, poor rapid alternating movement, and ocular dysmetria are also consistent with other neurological signs that can present in multiple sclerosis.

Answer 131

C) Carotid endarterectomy Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves removing the plaque buildup from the carotid artery to improve blood flow and reduce the risk of stroke. In this case, the patient's symptoms of right-sided weakness suggest a potential transient ischemic attack (TIA) or a small infarct, which may warrant surgical intervention. Adding warfarin (option A) or clopidogrel (option B) may be considered in certain cases, but the initial management for symptomatic carotid artery stenosis is typically carotid endarterectomy 1 . Continuing the same dose of aspirin (option D) is not sufficient for managing the underlying stenosis, and increasing the dose of aspirin (option E) may not provide adequate protection against stroke in this situation.

Answer 132

D. Rubeola (Measles)

Answer 133

D. Clostridium difficile infection. After an appendectomy, the use of antibiotics can disrupt the natural gut microbiota and allow for the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile bacteria. This can cause diarrhea, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to get a proper diagnosis and treatment for this infection, as it can be very serious if left untreated. Paralytic ileus can occur after surgery such as appendectomy and can cause abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. It is characterized by the temporary loss of function of the muscles in the intestines, which leads to a buildup of gas and stool in the intestines. This can cause discomfort and difficulty passing stool. However, diarrhea is not typically a symptom of paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case would be diarrhea and abdominal pain due to Clostridium difficile infection rather than resolving paralytic ileus.

Answer 134

D-spinal MRI The presented signs and symptoms suggest malignancy, especially considering the tenderness over L4-L5 vertebra and the weight loss. The spinal MRI is more accurate than X-ray and CT scan in detecting spinal cord compression, assessing the extent of spinal involvement, and identifying metastasis. Additionally, it can help identify if the back pain is arising from the intervertebral discs, spinal cord or nerves, or any other surrounding soft tissue structures. PSA, PET scan, and ultrasound may help with the diagnosis, but spinal MRI is the most appropriate test in this cas

Answer 135

A. placental insufficiency

Answer 136

A. maxillary sinusitis. Sinusitis is an inflammation or infection of the sinuses, which are air-filled spaces located in the bones of the face around the nose and eyes. Maxillary sinusitis refers to inflammation or infection of the maxillary sinuses, which are located on either side of the nose in the cheeks. The continuous burning pain in the maxillary region and redness over the area of the projection of the maxillary sinus could be indicative of maxillary sinusitis. However, a definitive diagnosis would require further evaluation by a healthcare provider, which may include imaging studies or other diagnostic tests.

Answer 137

D. Application of heat and gentle massage. The presentation of a painful lump in the upper eyelid of a relatively healthy individual with intact visual acuity and normal eye movements may suggest a chalazion. A chalazion is a small, round, non-tender nodule in the eyelid that develops as a result of an obstruction to the oil glands in the eyelid causing accumulation of secretions and inflammation. Application of heat and gentle massage is usually sufficient to treat a chalazion. The heat can help to soften the oil that is blocking the gland and promote drainage while the gentle massage with a clean finger can help to express the contents of the gland. This can provide relief from the inflammation and pain, as well as promote healing of the affected area. Further intervention, such as incision and curettage under local anesthesia, may be required if the symptoms persist or become severe. The use of antibiotics may not be indicated unless there is clinical evidence of infection. CT scan of the orbit is not necessary in the absence of other symptoms or signs suggestive of an orbital complication. Topical chloramphenicol could be used to prevent secondary bacterial infection but it is unlikely to resolve the chalazion.

Answer 138

Giardiasis Giardiasis is an intestinal infection caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia. It is often associated with contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. The symptoms of giardiasis include diarrhea, abdominal cramps, bloating, flatulence, and nausea. In some cases, fever and/or perianal abscess may also be present.

Answer 139

A. Continue CTG monitoring

Answer 140

C. CT pulmonary angiogram CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is a diagnostic imaging test that uses computed tomography (CT) angiography to . It is the preferred choice for diagnosing pulmonary embolism (PE), which is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by blood clots in the pulmonary arteries. In this case, the patient's symptoms, history of renal failure, and elevated D-dimers raise suspicion for PE, and a CTPA can help confirm or rule out this diagnosis

Answer 141

A. Rest Rest: Resting and avoiding activities that may exacerbate pain or further injury is often recommended initially

Answer 142

D. Verapamil Verapamil is the first-line prophylactic therapy for the prevention of cluster headache attacks. Cluster headache is an uncommon type of headache that is characterized by severe, one-sided head pain. It often involves tearing of the eyes, a droopy eyelid, and a stuffy nose. The pain is typically described as "boring," burning, or piercing and can come on very quickly, often without warning. Cluster headaches occur in cyclical patterns or cluster periods, where attacks last from 15 minutes to 3 hours and can occur daily or almost daily for weeks or months

Answer 143

D. HIV screening with consent yearly Under the Sex Work Act 1994 and the Sex Work Regulations 2016 in Victoria, Australia, it is an offence for a sex worker to work if they are aware they have a sexually transmitted infection (STI) including HIV. By law, sex workers working in Victoria are required to have mandatory HIV and STI screening every three months However, the frequency of sexual health assessments should be determined by the individual sex worker and their doctor

Answer 144

A. BPH Symptoms related to BPH may include straining during urination, decreased urinary stream, dribbling, feeling that the bladder is not completely empty, and frequent urination, among others. In the provided scenario, the absence of nocturnal voiding indicates that the bladder capacity and storage capacity are adequate. the most likely cause of a man with difficulty in initiating urine and dribbling at the end, but who empties the bladder completely and does not need to wake up at night to void, is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) (option A) BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that can cause urinary symptoms such as hesitancy, weak urine stream, and dribbling at the end of urination BPH is a common condition that affects many men as they age Urethral stricture (option C) is a narrowing of the urethra that can cause difficulty with urination, but it is less common than BPH and is often caused by injury or infection Cancer of the prostate (option B) is a less common cause of urinary symptoms and is typically associated with other symptoms such as blood in the urine, bone pain, or weight loss Cancer of the bladder (option D) is also a less common cause of urinary symptoms and is typically associated with other symptoms such as blood in the urine, pain during urination, or frequent urination

Answer 145

C. Dementia Peripheral neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that affects the nerves responsible for transmitting messages to and from the brain to other parts of the body. It is a common neurological complication of CKD, and it can cause various symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and burning pain in the hands and feet. Dementia, a group of cognitive disorders characterized by memory loss and impairment, is another common neurological complication that can occur with CKD, especially in advanced stages of the condition. The exact cause of dementia in CKD remains unclear, but factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and metabolic disturbances may contribute to its development.

Answer 146

A. Malignancy The most commonly associated condition with a unilateral undescended testis is testicular malignancy. Evidence suggests that boys with an undescended testis are at an increased risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis remains undescended into adulthood. Therefore, regular surveillance and follow-up are essential for early detection and treatment of testicular malignancy in patients with an undescended testis. Varicocele, an indirect inguinal hernia, and hydrocele may also occur in cases of undescended testis but are less common. Torsion, which refers to a twisting of the testis on its own blood vessels, is more likely to occur in an undescended testis than in a normally descended one, but it is still relatively uncommon. Therefore, it is important to monitor for signs of testicular malignancy in individuals with unilateral undescended testis.

Answer 147

D. Catheter flush It is not uncommon for patients who have undergone prostatectomy and/or have been catheterized to have urinary retention and obstruction, which can lead to decreased urine output and potential complications such as urinary tract infections. The patient's low urine output is an indication that the catheter may be obstructed or displaced, and therefore, flushing the catheter should be considered as a first-line intervention to alleviate the obstruction. It is also important to assess the catheter for any kinking, dislodgement, or obstruction to ensure proper placement. A catheter flush involves flushing the catheter with a sterile solution to ensure proper functioning and to clear any potential blockages or obstructions In this case, the low urine output may be due to catheter-related issues, such as catheter blockage or inadequate flow. Performing a catheter flush can help address any potential issues and improve urine flow

Answer 148

B. Hemodialysis. Hyperkalemia refers to a condition in which potassium levels in the blood are abnormally high, and it can be associated with various causes, such as kidney disease, medication side effects, or metabolic disturbances. In this case, the high levels of urea and creatinine suggest a possible underlying kidney disease that may be contributing to the hyperkalemia. While intravenous normal saline (Option A), calcium gluconate (Option C), and Resonium (Option D) may be used to manage hyperkalemia in some cases, they may not be effective in patients with significant renal impairment, as they may further affect renal function and cause complications. Therefore, the most appropriate next step in this case would be hemodialysis, which can help to rapidly eliminate excess potassium and other waste products from the bloodstream, and also improve kidney function in patients with underlying renal disease.

Answer 149

C. NA Valproate Based on the symptoms described, the child is likely experiencing an absence seizure, also known as a petit mal seizure. Treatment for absence seizures typically involves anticonvulsant medications, and the most commonly prescribed medications are ethosuximide, valproic acid, and lamotrigine

Answer 150

D. Resonium (Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate) Hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels suggests that the patient may have chronic kidney disease and is not able to excrete potassium effectively. In this case, treatment with Resonium can help to remove potassium from the body by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, reducing the potassium levels in the blood. IV normal saline may be used in acute hyperkalemia to temporarily shift potassium into the cells, but it is not a definitive treatment. Hemodialysis is an option in severe cases of hyperkalemia, but it is invasive and may not be necessary in all cases. Calcium gluconate is given intravenously to stabilize the cardiac membrane during hyperkalemia, but it is not a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia and will not decrease potassium levels. In the case of hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine, treatment options can include intravenous (IV) normal saline, hemodialysis, calcium gluconate, and resins like Resonium (sodium polystyrene sulfonate). The choice depends on the severity of hyperkalemia and kidney function. IV normal saline can help in mild cases, while hemodialysis is used for severe cases or when kidney function is significantly impaired. Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart, and Resonium helps remove potassium from the body

Answer 151

C. Needle Thoracostomy While chest tube placement is the definitive treatment for tension pneumothorax, in the case described where the patient has decreased breath sounds and stony dullness, immediate intervention is necessary to relieve the pressure and restore normal breathing Therefore, the next best step would be to perform a needle thoracostomy, which involves inserting a needle into the chest to release the air that is causing the pressure This is a temporary measure to stabilize the patient until a chest tube can be inserted to fully drain the air and prevent the pneumothorax from recurring In this case, needle thoracostomy is the preferred initial intervention to rapidly decompress the pleural space and stabilize the patient. A chest tube can be considered after the needle thoracostomy if further management is needed.

Answer 152

Conductive deafness right side You are correct that a positive Rinne test is typically associated with a sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL), rather than conductive hearing loss (CHL). A positive Rinne test indicates that air conduction is better than bone conduction, suggesting that the inner ear and auditory nerve are functioning properly. Given the symptoms described (bilateral cerumen impaction, lateralization of the Weber's test to the right), a more accurate diagnosis would be conductive hearing loss on the right side due to the physical obstruction of the ear canal by impacted cerumen. Sensorineural hearing loss would not typically be associated with these symptoms. The presented symptoms of bilateral cerumen impaction, lateralization of Weber's test to the right, and positive Rinne test bilaterally suggest that the patient has conductive deafness, which is affecting the right ear. The impacted cerumen is physically blocking the ear canal, thus decreasing the patient's hearing ability, and is the likely cause of conductive hearing loss. This loss affects the ability of sound waves to pass through the outer and middle ear to reach the inner ear, leading to a muffled sound. Treatment typically involves the removal of the impacted cerumen through irrigation or manual removal by a healthcare professional, which should improve the hearing loss. A positive Rinne test and lateralization of the Weber’s test to the right indicate that the right ear is affected. Conductive hearing loss occurs when there is a problem in the outer or middle ear that prevents sound waves from reaching the inner ear, and cerumen impaction is a common cause of conductive hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by difficulty in hearing faint sounds and a muffled or distorted hearing, results from problems in the inner ear or the auditory nerve. Therefore, the presentation is more consistent with conductive deafness on the right side rather than sensorineural hearing loss.

Answer 153

Conductive hearing loss (CHL) is a type of hearing loss that occurs when there is a physical problem that prevents sound waves from passing through the middle or outer ear effectively. This type of hearing loss is typically characterized by a decrease in the volume or intensity of sound, and patients often report that sounds seem muffled or unclear. Common causes of CHL include ear infections, cerumen (earwax) impaction, fluid buildup in the middle ear, and damage to the eardrum or ossicles of the middle ear. Treatment may involve medical management, surgery, or the use of hearing aids. Sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) involves damage to the inner ear or to the nerve pathways that transmit sound signals from the inner ear to the brain. SNHL is usually characterized by a decrease in the clarity and quality of sound. Patients may experience difficulty hearing faint sounds, and speech may sound muffled or distorted. Common causes of SNHL include aging, exposure to loud noises, trauma, and disease. Treatment for SNHL may include hearing aids or cochlear implants, depending on the extent of the damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve. In some cases, medical management can help to address the underlying cause of SNHL.

Answer 154

2. Mirena insertion Mirena is a long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) that provides contraception for up to 5 years after insertion. It is a good option for women who want long-term contraception with minimal maintenance. As the patient has irregular and light menstrual bleeding, Mirena may be an appropriate choice. Mirena works by releasing a small amount of a hormone called levonorgestrel, which thickens the cervical mucus, making it difficult for sperm to reach the egg. It also thins the lining of the uterus, which helps to prevent implantation.

Answer 155

B) Retinal detachment The most likely cause of the decreased vision in the left eye after being hit by a squash ball is a retinal detachment. This condition can occur when a blunt force trauma, like a squash ball hitting the eye, causes the retina to pull away from its normal position. It's a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. A vitreous hemorrhage can also cause decreased vision, and it is frequently associated with blunt trauma, such as a squash ball injury. However, it would not typically cause different visual acuities between the left and right eyes, as the patient in this scenario presents. Vitreous hemorrhage would normally result in an overall reduction of visual acuity. Therefore, while vitreous hemorrhage is a possibility, retinal detachment remains the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms given the differing visual acuities between the left and right eyes.

Answer 156

D. Antibiotics You are correct. In the case of a basilar skull fracture with CSF leakage, the next best step would be to administer antibiotics (Option D) to reduce the risk of bacterial meningitis. The presence of CSF leakage puts the patient at a high risk of developing an infection, and prompt administration of antibiotics is considered a crucial step in preventing or treating potential infections. Oral gastric/pharyngeal tube (Option B) may also be considered to prevent aspiration of CSF, but immediate administration of antibiotics should be prioritized in this scenario.

Answer 157

B. Apixaban There may not be sufficient evidence to answer exactly. However, an irregularly irregular rhythm with a rapid heart rate could suggest atrial fibrillation. Anticoagulation, such as Apixaban, is often used to prevent stroke in atrial fibrillation. Metoprolol and Verapamil can be used to control heart rate. Adenosine is typically used for supraventricular tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation. It is not clear from the scenario what is causing the M-spike QRS complex in all leads. However, in this case, we can infer that the patient has an irregularly irregular rhythm with a high heart rate of 150 bpm, which could be suggestive of atrial fibrillation (AF). In view of the patient's hypertension and AF, the most appropriate choice of medication from the given options would be B. Apixaban, which is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) used for stroke prevention in patients with non-valvular AF and is considered a first-line therapy. This is because patients with AF are at an increased risk of stroke due to blood clots forming in the heart, and anticoagulation is used to reduce this risk.

Answer 158

The initial treatment for sigmoid volvulus is sigmoidoscopy or flexible endoscopy. The primary objective of the procedure is to untwist the sigmoid loop and decompress the bowel. Therefore, the next best step for this patient would be to perform a flexible sigmoidoscopy. However, given the patient's comorbidities and medications, consultation with the patient's physician or gastroenterologist is warranted to determine the appropriate management plan, since sigmoidoscopy carries a small risk of bowel perforation.

Answer 159

B. continue for another few years Given her age and duration of menopausal hormone therapy (MHT), it may be less favorable to continue due to potential risks such as cardiovascular disease and cognitive impairment. However, her severe hot flushes should be considered. Non-hormonal management approaches or alternative therapies like acupuncture could be explored. It's crucial to discuss this with her doctor to make an informed decision

Answer 160

B. Chlamydia As the patient is sexually active, she should be screened for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), especially since she has a BMI of 31, which increases her risk of comorbidities. Chlamydia is a common STI that can often be asymptomatic and leads to several health complications if left untreated, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, and infertility. Therefore, Chlamydia screening is important for all sexually active individuals aged under 25 years, including those who seek contraceptives.

Answer 161

B. 25 The incidence of diabetes in this community from 2000 to 2010 can be calculated by subtracting the initial number of cases (45) from the final number of cases (50), which gives us 5 new cases. Since the population is 200, the incidence per 1000 would be (5/200)*1000 = 25 per 1000. So, the correct answer is B. 25.

Answer 162

E. Hepatitis E The most likely cause of a person with jaundice who has received Hepatitis A vaccine is hepatitis E. Hepatitis A vaccine provides protection against the Hepatitis A virus, but does not provide protection against other types of hepatitis viruses, including hepatitis E. Hepatitis E virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route, primarily through contaminated water or food. People traveling to countries with poor sanitation are at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis E. Therefore, the answer is E.

Answer 163

The management of hemorrhoids depends on the severity of symptoms and the degree of prolapse. For mild hemorrhoids, conservative measures such as dietary fiber, stool softeners, and topical creams to alleviate itching and inflammation may be recommended. For more severe hemorrhoids, various surgical procedures may be considered. Band ligation, hemorrhoidal artery ligation (HAL), excisional hemorrhoidectomy, or stapled hemorrhoidopexy are among the most common options. Regarding the options provided, cryotherapy (freezing the hemorrhoid to cause tissue death) is not a commonly used treatment for hemorrhoids. Band ligation is a safe and effective intervention and has become the most common method of treating hemorrhoids. In this technique, a rubber band is placed around the base of the hemorrhoid to cut off the blood supply and cause the hemorrhoid to shrink and fall off after a few days. Hemorrhoidal artery ligation (HAL) uses a Doppler device to locate and ligate the blood vessels that supply the hemorrhoidal plexus. The procedure effectively treats both internal and external hemorrhoids. Therefore, either band ligation or hemorrhoidal artery ligation may be effective options for the management of hemorrhoids, depending on the individual patient's preferences and clinical presentation.

Answer 164

Other factors that may increase the risk of developing Dupuytren's contracture include smoking, alcoholism, diabetes, nutritional deficiencies, and certain medications used to treat seizures The condition tends to get worse slowly over time, and it most commonly affects the ring and little fingers There is no cure for Dupuytren's contracture, but treatments can relieve symptoms and slow the progression of the condition. Dupuytren's contracture is a condition that causes one or more fingers to bend towards the palm of the hand It is caused by the thickening and tightening of the tissue under the skin of the palm and fingers The exact cause of Dupuytren's contracture is not known, but it is believed to be hereditary, meaning that family history and ancestry play a role

Answer 165

Estrogen Only pill

Answer 166

Breast Cancer medications eg Tamoxifen

Answer 167

C. Refer to psychiatry for assessment The surgery should be done in the patient's best interest (B) after the patient's mental state has been assessed and treated. Related what is the prognosis for an elderly patient with hip fracture what are the common complications after hip fracture surgery what is the role of physical therapy in hip fracture recovery

Answer 168

2. Take verbal consent The staff could document verbal consent in their records and provide patients with a written summary of information about the vaccine to take home. Verbal consent can be considered a valid form of consent in emergency situations, such as when a printer is not working. However, efforts should be made to obtain written consent as soon as possible once the printer is operational again.

Answer 169

B. Inhaled Fluticasone. Based on the given information, the 8-year-old child has been experiencing asthma attacks frequently over the past 12 months. Therefore, it is likely that the child has persistent asthma, which requires ongoing controller therapy to prevent future attacks. Inhaled fluticasone is a type of corticosteroid medication that is commonly used for the long-term management of asthma. It works by reducing inflammation and swelling of the airways, which can help to prevent asthma attacks.

Answer 170

e) Parvovirus Parvovirus infection can cause anemia by reducing red blood cell production, leading to symptoms of hemolytic anemia. In individuals with hereditary spherocytosis, a parvovirus B19 infection can worsen anemia and cause a hemolytic crisis.

Answer 171

C, FNAC The middle-aged man presenting with anorexia, weight loss, and a mass on the supraclavicular region is exhibiting symptoms that are concerning for an underlying malignancy. The most appropriate next step would be to perform a fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) of the supraclavicular mass. FNAC is a minimally invasive diagnostic procedure that involves inserting a thin, hollow needle into the mass and removing a sample of cells for examination under a microscope. It can help to determine whether the mass is cancerous or benign, and can also provide information about the type of cancer if it is present.

Answer 172

b. advice after 10 years of age best recommended-12-14 yrs However, it can be safely administered to children as young as 9 years old. So, it would be best to recommend the vaccine in a couple of years, ideally at ages 11 or 12

Answer 173

A. Lithium Lithium is a mood stabilizer and has been shown to be effective in treating both mania and depressive symptoms of bipolar disorder

Answer 174

A. Band ligation Band ligation: This is a procedure in which a rubber band is placed around the base of the hemorrhoid, cutting off its blood supply and causing it to shrink and eventually fall off. Hemorrhoidal artery ligation: This is a minimally invasive procedure that uses a specialized instrument to locate and tie off the blood vessels that supply the hemorrhoids, causing them to shrink. Hemorrhoidal artery ligation is typically used for grade II or III hemorrhoids. Cryotherapy: This involves using freezing temperatures to destroy the hemorrhoid tissue. Cryotherapy is not commonly used for hemorrhoids. Severe or recurrent cases may require surgical intervention such as hemorrhoidectomy.

Answer 175

A. Conductive hearing loss to the right A positive bilateral Rinne test indicates that air conduction is better than bone conduction in both ears, which is normal. However, Weber's test lateralizing to the right ear suggests that there is conductive hearing loss in the right ear, as the sound is perceived louder in the affected ear due to cerumen impaction blocking external sounds and making the bone-conducted sound relatively louder

Answer 176

D. Subcutaneous emphysema. The patient is presenting with symptoms of neck swelling with crepitation, which is suggestive of subcutaneous emphysema. This can occur due to air leaking from the respiratory tract and spreading into the soft tissues of the neck. In this case, the most likely cause is bronchial rupture, which can occur with severe coughing or vomiting.

Answer 177

A. Suprapubic catheter Inserting a suprapubic catheter helps to divert urine and avoid further damage to the urethra.

Answer 178

B. Left parietal stroke. The patient is presenting with symptoms of agraphia (inability to write), acalculia (inability to perform simple arithmetic), and difficulty with spatial orientation (inability to tell left from right side), which are suggestive of left parietal lobe damage. The left parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information and plays a crucial role in language, comprehension, orientation, and arithmetic functions. Damage to this region can impair cognition, language abilities, and spatial orientation.

Answer 179

A. Inj ticaricillin calcinate IV

Answer 180

A. Stop antibiotics. The presence of a white coating on enlarged tonsils and generalized adenopathy in a patient with a recent history of URTI who was given amoxicillin suggests the possibility of an infectious mononucleosis (also known as glandular fever) or another viral infection, rather than a bacterial infection. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that is effective against bacteria but is not effective against viral infections. In this case, it would be appropriate to stop the antibiotics. The clinical presentation suggests a viral etiology and antibiotics would not be of any benefit in treating viral infections. In addition, discontinuing the antibiotics can prevent the development of antibiotic resistance and reduce the risk of potential side effects associated with antibiotic use.

Answer 181

B. OA The patient, an elderly female, is presenting with pain in the first metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint and DIP (distal interphalangeal) joint, which are characteristic locations of osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that commonly affects older individuals and is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage in the joint. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disease that can affect people of all ages and typically causes symmetrical joint swelling and pain, with a preference for the MCP and PIP (proximal interphalangeal) joints. However, in this case, the pain is in only one metacarpophalangeal joint and several DIP joints, which is more indicative of osteoarthritis. The presentation of pain in the first metacarpophalangeal joint and DIP joints is more commonly seen in OA, which is the most likely diagnosis based on the information given. In patients aged over 80 years, OA is more common than RA. RA typically causes symmetric involvement of the small joints of the hand, and less frequently has an asymmetric involvement of those joints. Therefore, the combination of focal pain in a specific area of the hand may strongly favor the diagnosis of osteoarthritis in the context of an elderly female patient.

Answer 182

A. Aortic valve replacement In a patient with symptomatic aortic stenosis with an EF of 35% and a systolic pressure gradient of 45 mmHg across the aortic valve, aortic valve replacement (option A) would be the best management option. Aortic stenosis is a progressive condition that typically requires surgical intervention when the valve is severely narrowed and is causing symptoms, such as shortness of breath, chest pain, or fatigue, as seen in this case. Percutaneous Balloon valvuloplasty (option B) may be considered as an initial treatment in patients with severe aortic stenosis who are not good candidates for surgery, such as those at high risk for complications due to age or other comorbidities. However, it is not as effective as aortic valve replacement in terms of long-term outcomes, and may require repeat procedures or eventual valve replacement.

Answer 183

B. Apixaban In a patient with atrial fibrillation with a heart rate above 130 beats per minute and a CHADS-VASc score of >2, the first-step in management would be to initiate anticoagulation therapy to reduce the risk of stroke.

Answer 184

A. pleural tap While a CT scan would be an appropriate next step for diagnosing Boerhaave syndrome or other potential causes of pleural effusion, a pleural tap (option A) is a more immediate management step that can be taken to identify the nature of the pleural effusion. In the context of a patient with vomiting and a worrisome clinical presentation, a pleural tap may provide valuable information about the nature and severity of the pleural effusion. A sample of the pleural fluid can be obtained for analysis, which can help to determine the cause of the effusion and guide further management decisions.

Answer 185

A. Sterno cleido mastoid tumor In a child between 2 to 3 years of age with neck swelling and keeping the head tilted, the most likely diagnosis is a Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) tumor, also known as a congenital muscular torticollis. The SCM muscle is located in the neck and is responsible for the rotation of the head. When this muscle is damaged, it can result in a stiff and shortened muscle, leading to a characteristic tilt of the head and neck swelling. A cystic hygroma is a type of lymphatic malformation that typically presents as a soft, painless swelling in the neck region, which can be seen in infants and young children. However, it is not typically associated with head tilting like an SCM tumor.

Answer 186

B.start manitol Mannitol, on the other hand, is an osmotic diuretic that can help reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema. It is also commonly used in the treatment of head injuries. In this scenario, starting mannitol would be the recommended next step. Mannitol can help reduce intracranial pressure, which is a common complication of severe head injuries

Answer 187

c. Gambling disorder

Answer 188

B. Orbital cellulitis Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection of the tissues surrounding the eye that can cause severe inflammation and swelling. The infection can spread rapidly and affect eye movement, vision, and other neurological functions.

Answer 189

d) Measure BP in lying and standing position. The symptoms described suggest the possibility of orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure upon standing that can cause dizziness and disorientation. Measuring her blood pressure in both lying and standing positions can help determine if this is the case. If the results confirm orthostatic hypotension, further evaluation and treatment can be pursued.

Answer 190

E. Vitamin K. A high INR (International Normalized Ratio) value in a patient taking warfarin suggests that they are at an increased risk of bleeding. Black colored stool and lower GI bleeding raise suspicion for gastrointestinal bleeding. The treatment for warfarin-associated bleeding is to reverse the effects of warfarin. In this case, the appropriate treatment is Vitamin K. Vitamin K is administered to reduce the INR and reverse the effect of warfarin. If the bleeding is severe, additional treatments such as prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) or fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be necessary to help restore the blood's ability to clot. However, in this particular scenario, as specific mention of severe hemorrhage is not provided and considering the limited information, Vitamin K is the most appropriate treatment to manage the patient's INR level.

Answer 191

A. Central diabetes insipidus. ## Footnote Central diabetes insipidus, a condition in which the body does not properly regulate the amount of water it excretes through urine, leading to excessive urination

Answer 192

B) Start inhaled fluticasone. ## Footnote The patient's symptoms of increased use of short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) and night cough suggest that his asthma control is worsening. The presence of wheezing on physical examination indicates that he is still experiencing airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction. The next most appropriate management would be to start inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy with fluticasone. ICS is the mainstay of asthma treatment and is indicated for patients with persistent asthma symptoms. It helps to reduce airway inflammation and prevent asthma exacerbation

Answer 193

d) Bilateral ulnar nerve palsy ## Footnote The distal weakness and atrophy of the small muscles of both hands, including the interossei, lumbricals, thenar, and hypothenar muscles, suggest a peripheral nerve problem involving the ulnar nerves. The ulnar nerves are responsible for innervating the intrinsic muscles of the hand, which are the smaller muscles responsible for fine motor movements and grip strength.

Answer 194

B. PSA. ## Footnote The patient's symptoms of nocturia and dribbling urine are suggestive of a prostate problem, and the smooth prostate palpable on digital rectal exam (DRE) may indicate benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The next most appropriate step would be to obtain a Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) test. PSA is a protein that is produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. While an elevated PSA level does not necessarily indicate the presence of prostate cancer, it can be an early indicator of the disease or BPH. If the PSA level is elevated, further evaluation with a transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) or biopsy of the prostate may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. However, if the PSA level is normal, bladder dysfunction, urinary tract infection, or other non-prostate-related conditions may be the cause of the patient's symptoms, and additional testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms.

Answer 195

C. IV fluids. The patient's post-operative status, confusion, tachycardia, and fever suggest that she may be experiencing delirium and has an infection. The fact that she has undergone a cholecystectomy 48 hours ago warrants closer attention to her post-operative course, including monitoring for potential complications such as infection. The most appropriate next step in management would be to start IV fluids to address any potential dehydration, which can contribute to confusion and tachycardia. Dehydration can also exacerbate infections, which may be underlying her delirium and fever. Antibiotics may be necessary if there is a confirmed bacterial infection, which can be confirmed with appropriate diagnostic tests such as blood cultures or imaging studies. However, starting antibiotics without proper diagnostic evidence may lead to overuse of antibiotics and potential side effects. Haloperidol may be used to treat agitation in some cases of delirium, but it should be reserved for cases of severe agitation that are unresponsive to other measures. It should be used with caution in elderly patients and is not typically recommended in the initial management of delirium

Answer 196

b. External beam radiotherapy

Answer 197

B. PSA The most appropriate next step for a man with urinary retention and an enlarged prostate would be to measure the Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) levels. This test can help determine if the enlargement is due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) or prostate cancer.

Answer 198

A. Adenosine. The patient's symptoms of lightheadedness and weakness, along with a history of chronic stable angina and chest discomfort at rest, are suggestive of an ongoing cardiac event (such as a myocardial infarction) or unstable angina, which requires immediate attention.

Answer 199

B. Arterial thrombosis The patient's predisposition is likely to be arterial thrombosis. This is because popliteal vein thrombosis, a type of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), can lead to the formation of blood clots that can break loose and travel to the heart and lungs, causing severe circulation and respiratory problems, and strokes 1. Risk factors for DVT include recent surgery, immobility, and cancer, all of which apply to this patient 12. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, is a common treatment for DVT

Answer 200

E. Level of consciousness. The most important sign of head injury is the level of consciousness. The level of consciousness on presentation, measured by the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), is a predictor of the severity of the head injury and guides the appropriate management. The GCS grades the level of consciousness based on the patient's responses in three areas: eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. The scores range from 3 to 15, with higher scores indicating more alertness and responsiveness. A lower score indicates a more severe head injury.

Answer 201

C, Depression ## Footnote Depression can manifest in various ways, including changes in behavior, social withdrawal, decreased interest in activities, and negative thoughts or self-talk. It can significantly impact a person's mood, energy levels, and overall functioning, including academic performance

Answer 202

B. Serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels They are typically checked as part of the diagnostic work-up for Wilson disease. A liver biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis if necessary. Genetic testing can help identify individuals who are at risk for the disease but may not necessarily be used for definitive diagnosis.

Answer 203

b. Plasma exchange is the first line of treatment The correct statement is that are the treatment of choice for Guillain-Barre syndrome. . IVIG is a therapy that involves giving high doses of antibodies obtained from healthy donors to help modulate the immune response and reduce the severity and duration of symptoms in GBS patients.

Answer 204

e. DNR does not necessarily preclude surgery. The patient's wishes for a DNR order should be respected, but surgery may still be necessary to address the bowel obstruction. The medical team can work to ensure that the surgery is conducted with minimal risk and discomfort to the patient, and can take steps to minimize the potential need for interventions like intubation. However, ultimately the decision to proceed with surgery will depend on the specific circumstances of the case and the judgment of the medical team.

Answer 205

D. telling the patient it is a normal procedure consequence

Answer 206

C) Cholesteatoma It is the most suspected sequel in the given case of an Aboriginal child with greenish discharge from nostrils and ears. Cholesteatoma is an abnormal skin growth in the middle ear that commonly occurs as a complication of chronic ear infections. It can cause hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo and other complications. It is also a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention and surgical intervention.

Answer 207

C. Bone mineral density This test can help determine the density of the bones and assess the risk of developing osteoporosis. In addition, the lady can take steps to prevent osteoporosis by adopting a bone-healthy lifestyle,

Answer 208

c. avoidant personality disorder One clear differentiation is avoidant personality disorder involves avoidance of most or all social areas of life, while social anxiety may only involve avoidance of a few specific situations (e.g., walking to the front of a classroom or going to a party).

Answer 209

B. Ultrasound. As the patient has symptoms of hematuria and dysuria, and there are pus cells in the urine, an ultrasound can be the next appropriate investigation to perform. This test can evaluate for any structural or functional abnormalities in the urinary system, such as stones or tumors that can cause hematuria and UTI-like symptoms. If the ultrasound is normal, further evaluation such as cystoscopy may be necessary to examine the bladder and urethra for abnormal growths or strictures.

Answer 210

a) Cystoscopy The most appropriate next step in the diagnosis of the Indian university student with dysuria, hematuria, and frequency, with normal urine tests except for RBCs and WBCs ++ in urine and negative urine culture, would be to perform a cystoscopy. A cystoscopy is a procedure that allows doctors to examine the inside of the bladder and urethra using a cystoscope, a lighted tube with a camera or viewing lens

Answer 211

a. Cant drive for 8 months According to the Australian Government's guidelines on fitness to drive, after a first-time seizure, a driver must not drive for at least 6 months, provided that no further seizures occur during this period, and they meet specific criteria for fitness to drive. These criteria include the ability to maintain adequate levels of attention, reaction time, and coordination.

Answer 212

C. she should not drive 6 months Following a hypoglycemic crisis, the Australian recommendation is a driving ban for a minimum of 6 months for private vehicle license holders. The lady should consult with her healthcare professional, such as an endocrinologist, who can evaluate her condition, provide appropriate treatment, and advise her on when it is safe to resume driving.

Answer 213

A. More antiplatelet

Answer 214

B. Refer to neurologist to decide about driving clearance

Answer 215

C. Cant drive for 6 months Based on the clinical presentation of the patient, it is likely that she suffered a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or a stroke. The residual symptoms of left homonymous hemianopia indicate that she has sustained damage to the right visual cortex, either due to a TIA or a stroke. Therefore, the patient's fitness to drive must be assessed, as the residual visual field defect can significantly impact her ability to drive safely and could pose a risk to herself and other road users. In this case, the patient's inability to see objects in her left visual field significantly impacts her ability to navigate road conditions, and it is highly likely that she will not meet the fitness-to-drive requirements in the Australian Transport Department's guidelines. According to these guidelines, individuals with a residual visual field defect that cannot be corrected by glasses or medications are not eligible to drive for a period of at least 6 months post-event.

Answer 216

E. Ask him to wear seatbelts A reduction in weight would be beneficial for the patient in terms of his overall health as it would likely help to lower his blood pressure, improve his respiratory function and several other health risks. However, weight loss is not an immediate measure for the management of the patient's risk of road accidents associated with his non-compliance with wearing a seatbelt. Seatbelt use while driving is critical as it can prevent serious injury and death in the event of an accident. Accordingly, it is the most pressing concern to address in the patient's management. Therefore, the recommended immediate measure for the management of the patient's risk of road accidents is E) Ask him to wear seatbelts. Once this issue is resolved, other measures such as improving his cardiovascular health, such as reducing weight, lowering blood pressure, stopping smoking, and reducing alcohol intake can be addressed further.

Answer 217

C- 12mths According to the Australian guidelines on fitness to drive, individuals treated with antiepileptic medications such as sodium valproate must be seizure-free for at least 12 months before returning to driving. The waiting time for an individual who has had abnormal movements of the hands may vary, and the patient needs to be reviewed by a qualified specialist to determine when it is safe to return to driving.

Answer 218

1.she should not drive at all Given her age, wrist fracture, and the presence of an irregular pupil, it is advisable for her not to drive at all. These factors may affect her ability to safely operate a vehicle and could potentially increase the risk of accidents. It is important to prioritize her safety and the safety of others on the road. Driving with a wrist fracture can impair her ability to have full control of the steering wheel and other vehicle controls. An irregular pupil may indicate underlying neurologicalissues that could affect her vision and reaction time while driving.

Answer 219

b. Inform the police. Stolen vehicles are viewed as a serious criminal offense and could be considered as theft. Therefore, the police must be informed immediately to prevent further legal complications. It is also necessary to ensure that the child is safe and to provide her with any necessary medical care. While the patient may feel apprehensive about informing her parents, the medical personnel must inform the authorities, who can then inform her parents of the situation. This is necessary to ensure that the appropriate legal and social support can be provided to the patient to help her deal with the aftermath of the accident.

Answer 220

B. Obesity Obesity is a strong risk factor for endometrial cancer and is associated with high levels of estrogen, which can lead to the growth of endometrial cells in the uterus. Weight management and other lifestyle modifications like smoking cessation can also be suggested and can help reduce the risk of endometrial cancer and other health conditions.

Answer 221

B. Cellulitis. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can cause redness, warmth, and swelling of the affected area and is a common complication of DVT

Answer 222

b. Plasma exchange is the first line treatment

Answer 223

A. Refer to pediatric cardiologist. A grade 2-3/6 ejection systolic murmur in a child during a routine physical examination can indicate underlying structural or functional heart problems, such as congenital heart defects or valve issues. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be to refer the child to a pediatric cardiologist for further evaluation and management. The pediatric cardiologist will order additional tests such as an electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, chest X-ray, or any other appropriate diagnostic tests to determine the cause and severity of the murmur. Based on the findings, the cardiologist will recommend the appropriate course of treatment and advise on the child's future follow-up care.

Answer 224

b. More than 20 fold increase in risk

Answer 225

A. Phenytoin Phenytoin is indeed a pharmaceutical cause of cleft lip when exposed to during early facial development in the 5th to 6th weeks of gestation

Answer 226

B. Obtain LN Biopsy.

Answer 227

d) Displacement The specific behavior described in the question (spending money recklessly and accusing the government for the loss due to drought) suggests that he is displacing his anger and frustration from the drought onto other outlets, which is characteristic of displacement Displacement: Transferring one’s emotional burden or emotional reaction from one entity to another. This defense mechanism may be present in someone who has a stressful day at work and then lashes out against their family at home. Reaction formation: Replacing one’s initial impulse toward a situation or idea with the opposite impulse. This defense mechanism may be present in someone who teases or insults a romantic interest whom they like. Conversely, reaction formation may be present in someone who is overly kind to someone whom they dislike Projection: Attributing one’s own maladaptive inner impulses to someone else. For example, someone who commits an episode of infidelity in their marriage may then accuse their partner of infidelity or may become more suspicious of their partner. Rationalization: The justification of one’s behavior through attempts at a rational explanation. This defense mechanism may be present in someone who steals money but feels justified in doing so because they needed the money more than the person from whom they stole.

Answer 228

4.Enlarged adenoids Enlarged adenoids are a common cause of recurrent respiratory infections and tympanic membrane redness in young children. Antibiotics may provide temporary relief from the symptoms but do not treat the underlying cause. Adenoids may be evaluated by a pediatrician or otolaryngologist, who may recommend treatment options such as adenoidectomy in certain cases. CF and immunodeficiency may also cause recurrent respiratory infections, but enlarged adenoids are a more common and likely cause in this age group.

Answer 229

B. Bromocriptine The patient's symptoms suggest he may be experiencing neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. If the patient fails to improve with supportive measures, the most appropriate medication to administer at this time would be B. Bromocriptine. Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that has been used effectively in the treatment of NMS. A fever, tachycardia, hypertension, and altered mental status in a patient with a history of psychiatric illness on antipsychotic medication raises concern for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). The most appropriate medication to treat NMS is dantrolene or bromocriptine

Answer 230

A. Thoracotomy

Answer 231

A. Lithium In a patient with bipolar disorder experiencing a hypomanic episode, several options could be considered. Lithium is a first-line treatment for bipolar disorder, but if the patient has been non-compliant, other options may be more suitable.

Answer 232

Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease within a specific time period in a defined population. To calculate the incidence of diabetes in this population, we need to determine the number of new cases that developed within the one-year time period. In this case, the number of new cases would be 50 - 45, which equals 5. Next, we need to divide the number of new cases (5) by the total population (200) and multiply by 1000 to get the incidence per 1000. Therefore, the incidence of diabetes would be (5/200) x 1000 = 25 cases per 1000 people. The correct answer is option B (25).

Answer 233

A. Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation (AF) is also commonly associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). AF is a supraventricular tachyarrhythmia characterized by disorganized, rapid atrial activity, which can lead to an irregular ventricular rate. In patients with COPD, the hypoxia and chronic pulmonary vasoconstriction can lead to right atrial enlargement and pulmonary hypertension, which can increase the risk of AF. Studies have shown that patients with COPD have an increased risk of AF compared to those without COPD. Therefore, both MAT and AF can be commonly associated with COPD, and careful evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying dysrhythmia

Answer 234

C. pelvic exercise Option C (Pelvic floor muscle exercises) can help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve symptoms of pelvic organ prolapse. These exercises are often recommended as a first-line treatment for mild to moderate pelvic organ prolapse.

Answer 235

Option B (Serotonin syndrome) is a potential concern as sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and temazepam is a benzodiazepine. Both medications can increase serotonin levels in the brain, and when used in combination, there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. The symptoms of agitation, tremor, and restlessness can be seen in serotonin syndrome. Cyproheptadine may be used to reverse the effects of serotonin syndrome.

Answer 236

2) Ulnar nerve at the elbow The symptoms described, including numbness and weakness in the little and ring fingers, are indicative of an issue with the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve runs along the little finger's side of the arm and hand. When it's affected, it usually causes numbness in the pinky and ring fingers. Given the carpenter's profession, which involves repetitive motion, he could have developed ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow, a common site for this condition 1. Therefore, the most likely site of the causative lesion is the ulnar nerve at the elbow.

Answer 237

C. Nitrates

Answer 238

a. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis The patient's symptoms and medical history suggest the possibility of an infection, and a CT scan can help identify the source of the infection, such as diverticulitis or cholecystitis

Answer 239

a. Complete spontaneous abortion

Answer 240

C. Nitrates

Answer 241

Option A (Tamsulosin) is an alpha-1 blocker like doxazosin, but is more selective for the receptors in the prostate and bladder neck. It may be added to the current regimen to provide additional relief of BPH symptoms. Option B (Dutasteride) and Option C (Finasteride) are 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors and can be considered for patients with enlarged prostate who have not responded to alpha blockers like doxazosin. These medications work by reducing the size of the prostate gland as well as easing symptoms of BPH. Option D (Prazosin) is another medication used to treat hypertension and BPH, but it may present more side effects than the other options. Option E (Nifedipine) is a calcium channel blocker that would not be an appropriate medication choice for BPH. Therefore, the most appropriate step to take in this scenario for a patient with BPH symptoms not relieved by doxazosin is to consider adding tamsulosin (Option A) to the medication regimen. If this approach is not successful, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors like dutasteride (Option B) or finasteride (Option C) may be considered. ## Footnote alternative is Doxazosin

Answer 242

A. life style modification and diet For a woman with irregular periods and a weight of 130 kg, the first step in management should be lifestyle modification and diet. Being overweight can affect hormonal function, leading to irregular ovulation and menstruation, making it difficult to conceive 21. Maintaining a healthy weight through a well-balanced diet and regular exercise can help regulate periods and improve fertilit

Answer 243

B. Echo (Echocardiogram) An echocardiogram is a non-invasive imaging test that uses sound waves to create detailed images of the heart. It can provide valuable information about the structure and function of the heart, including the presence of any abnormalities or conditions that may be causing the symptoms. In this case, an echocardiogram can help evaluate the heart's valves, chambers, and overall function, which can be useful in identifying any potential issues that may be causing the chest pain and systolic murmur.

Answer 244

C. repeat screening 1 year C. Repeat screening 1 year According to the guidelines, in cases where HPV types 16 and 18 are negative and LSIL is positive, the recommended management is to repeat the screening after 1 year. This approach allows for monitoring any changes in the cervical cells over time and provides an opportunity to detect any potential progression or regression of the abnormality.

Answer 245

C Anti lupus anticoagulant. Yes, the presence of Anti-lupus anticoagulant (C) can indeed predispose to the condition. Lupus anticoagulants are associated with an increased risk of blood clots, which could lead to symptoms such as acute limb swelling and pain, followed by dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain, as seen in conditions like deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism

Answer 246

Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis is Schizophrenia (D), not Delirium. The patient's recurring symptoms after stopping medication are characteristic of schizophrenia, a chronic condition that often requires long-term medication management. Delirium, on the other hand, is typically an acute and often reversible condition, commonly caused by a general medical condition or substance-induced. It's important to note that a comprehensive assessment is necessary to confirm the diagnosis

Answer 247

E. Schedule another appointment for discussion

Answer 248

B. testis sonography A varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the veins in the scrotum that can cause discomfort. In this patient with a 2-year history of a right-sided varicocele that has become bigger in the evening and causes heaviness, the most appropriate evaluation would be a testicular sonography. A testicular sonography can help to confirm the diagnosis of a varicocele and assess the severity of the condition, including the size and extent of the veins involved. It can also be used to evaluate for any other abnormalities of the testis or surrounding structures.

Answer 249

B. Physiotherapy Physiotherapy is a non-invasive treatment option that can help manage shoulder pain and improve range of motion. It involves exercises and manual therapy techniques that can help strengthen the muscles around the shoulder joint, improve flexibility, and reduce pain and inflammation

Answer 250

Serum copper and ceruloplasmin tests can be used as initial screening tests for Wilson's disease, but they are not definitive. They can't confirm or exclude the disease with 100% certainty. A liver biopsy, which directly measures the amount of copper in the liver, provides a more definitive diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer remains: D. Liver biopsy - correct answer A. Serum cu and ceruloplasmin - initial diagnostic tests. Wilsons disease - chief complaint of dark urine, hand tremors, mood depression, personality changes, and Kayser Fleischer rings would be: - A. Serum copper and ceruloplasmin Wilson's disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes copper to accumulate in the body, leading to liver damage, neurological symptoms, and psychiatric disturbances.

Answer 251

A-SIADH Therefore, based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for this dehydrated child with low sodium levels in the urine and normal adrenal function would be SIADH (Option A),.

Answer 252

A. No antibiotic The absence of fever and bloody diarrhea suggests that the patient has a mild or self-limited case of Salmonella infection, which may not require antibiotic therapy. In cases of mild Salmonella gastroenteritis, the use of antibiotics is not usually recommended as it could prolong the duration of the symptoms and increase the risk of antibiotic resistance. Instead, the primary management strategy is supportive care, which includes adequate hydration, electrolyte replacement, and rest. Therefore, based on the given information in the question stem, Option A (No Antibiotics) would be an appropriate management strategy for this patient with mild or uncomplicated Salmonella infection.

Answer 253

B. Evaluate the Geriatric Depression scale

Answer 254

D. Amitriptyline

Answer 255

A. TCA Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs, Option A) are known to interfere with the accuracy of plasma catecholamine measurement by causing false-positive elevation of plasma normetanephrine and norepinephrine levels. TCAs inhibit the reuptake of catecholamines, resulting in an accumulation and false elevation of their levels in plasma. Therefore, Option A (TCA) is the correct answer to the question regarding the most common cause of false-positive evaluation of plasma normetanephrine and norepinephrine levels in a patient with suspected pheochromocytoma

Answer 256

D. Ampullary cancer has the worse prognosis that carcinoma of the body of the pancreas. This statement is false because ampullary cancer has a better prognosis than pancreatic cancer.

Answer 257

B. Cease metformin

Answer 258

D. Annual mammo

Answer 259

b. Anxiety (globus pharyngeus) Anxiety can cause physical symptoms, including a sensation of having a lump or something stuck in the throat, known as globus pharyngeus or globus sensation . This sensation can be triggered by stress or anxiety and may occur intermittently. The fact that the symptoms have been relieved by drinking water in the past suggests that the sensation is not due to a structural or anatomical issue in the throat.

Answer 260

D) Add vancomycin ## Footnote The presence of a positive culture for coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS) raises concern for a possible hospital-acquired infection, particularly if the patient has been recently hospitalized or has other risk factors for hospital-acquired infections. CoNS are commonly found as skin contaminants, but may also indicate a true infection in certain settings. Based on the information provided, it would be appropriate to consider Option D, adding vancomycin to the current antibiotic regimen, to cover possible methicillin-resistant CoNS (MRCoNS) infection.

Answer 261

D. Withdraw Venlafaxine The patient is presenting with symptoms suggestive of mania, which could be related to the use of venlafaxine. The most appropriate next step would be to discontinue venlafaxine therapy.

Answer 262

herefore, the correct answer is Option A: Conductive hearing loss to the right. Bilateral cerumen impaction can interfere with sound transmission and lead to conductive hearing loss. The hearing aids, if being worn, may still allow some sound to transmit through bone conduction. However, this is unlikely to offset the loss of sound conduction through the ear canal due to cerumen impaction. The presence of presbycusis in the left ear cannot be excluded, but the tests do not support this diagnosis.

Answer 263

C. Femoral hernia's The absence of an expansive cough impulse is more characteristic of a femoral hernia. Given the location of the swelling below and medial to the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias can often be mistaken for inguinal hernias, but are less common and typically occur in women.

Answer 264

D) add vancomycin The best course of action would likely be D) add vancomycin. Coagulase-negative staphylococci are often resistant to many common antibiotics, including amoxicillin, but are usually sensitive to vancomycin.

Answer 265

A. Partial nephrectomy Partial nephrectomy is a surgical procedure that involves removing only the part of the kidney that contains the tumor while preserving the remaining healthy kidney tissue. It is the preferred treatment option for small renal masses (less than 4 cm) that are localized and confined to the kidney.

Answer 266

A. Depression Increased sleep is also a common symptom of depression in children and adolescents.

Answer 267

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs) are the most reliable method to study the effects of nutritional supplements on Osteoarthritis (OA). RCTs allow for a direct comparison between a group receiving the supplement and a control group, minimizing bias and providing stronger evidence of effectiveness.

Answer 268

A, Woman's age

Answer 269

B. Autism The symptoms described, such as difficulty with social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and adherence to routines, are consistent with the diagnostic criteria for autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Children with ASD may have difficulty with communication, social interaction, and behavior, and may exhibit a range of symptoms, including restricted interests, repetitive behaviors, and sensory sensitivities

Answer 270

Given the travel history to India and the symptoms of fever, chills, and jaundice, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis E. Hepatitis E is common in many tropical countries like India and can present with these symptoms. The patient was vaccinated for Hepatitis A before travel, which makes Hepatitis A less likely. Hepatitis B, C, and D are usually associated with sexual contact, drug abuse, or other specific risk factors, which the patient does not have.

Answer 271

C. Cholangitis Ascending cholangitis is a serious infection of the bile duct (cholangitis) often caused by bacteria ascending from its junction with the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine). It can cause higher than normal temperatures, abdominal pain, jaundice, and can progress rapidly to severe illness if not treated promptly.

Answer 272

The best course of action would be to D. Check MMSE. The Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) is a tool used to assess cognitive function and can help determine if the patient's psychotic symptoms are related to cognitive impairment or dementia, which are common in the elderly population

Answer 273

However, a complete blood count (CBC, Option B) can help provide a broad picture of a patient's general health status and identify signs of certain diseases and conditions, including some infections and inflammations. It can give information about the number of white blood cells and can sometimes suggest whether an infection is more likely caused by a bacterial or viral agent.

Answer 274

This patient's presentation is suggestive of Reactive Arthritis (formerly known as Reiter's Syndrome - Option A). Reactive arthritis is characterized by the classic triad of urethritis, arthritis (often described as "sausage digits" due to diffuse swelling), and conjunctivitis. It often follows an infection, commonly genitourinary (like Chlamydia) or gastrointestinal. The rash on the palms and soles could be keratoderma blennorrhagicum, which is associated with reactive arthritis. Furthermore, reactive arthritis is seronegative, meaning that Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is typically negative.

Answer 275

The history of IV drug use increases her risk for HIV, which in turn increases the risk for herpes zoster due to immunosuppression. Therefore, conducting an HIV serology test (Option C) would be an appropriate next step. If the rash is indeed due to herpes zoster and the patient is HIV positive, antiviral therapy should be initiated.

Answer 276

A. IVF (In Vitro Fertilization) When the vas deferens is absent or non-functional, sperm cannot be transported from the testicles to the urethra for ejaculation. In such cases, assisted reproductive technologies, such as IVF, offer a solution for achieving pregnancy. IVF involves the retrieval of eggs from the female partner, fertilizing them with sperm in a laboratory setting, and transferring the resulting embryos into the uterus

Answer 277

B. Conditional license. It is important to ensure that the woman's hypoglycemia is well-managed and controlled to prevent any accidents or health complications while driving. A conditional license may be granted with certain restrictions, such as monitoring blood sugar levels before driving and carrying appropriate snacks or treatments in case of another hypoglycemic episode. It is important for the woman to follow up with her healthcare provider and obtain clearance before resuming driving.

Answer 278

The symptoms and test results suggest a diagnosis of Choledocholithiasis (E). This condition, characterized by gallstones in the bile duct, can cause jaundice and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. The mildly raised AST also aligns with this diagnosis.

Answer 279

Delete B. Uterine fundus massage. Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss of 500ml or more after vaginal delivery or 1000ml or more after cesarean delivery. In this case, the patient has PPH of 1000ml, but the delivery was normal and the placenta was delivered 5 minutes later. The palpable uterus above the pubic symphysis suggests uterine atony, which can cause or contribute to PPH. The first-line management for uterine atony is uterine fundus massage. This is done to stimulate uterine contractions and help the uterus to contract down and reduce the bleeding. Checking the placenta and vaginal lacerations may be necessary as the next steps, but uterine fundus massage is the immediate intervention to potentially stop the hemorrhage. Syntocinon may also be administered to help reduce postpartum bleeding by inducing contractions. However, uterine massage is the immediate first-line management in this scenario.

Answer 280

Pelvic abscess is a possibility in this case, given the history of open laparoscopy for appendix with lavage, and tenderness on rectal exam. Pelvic abscess can cause fever, tenderness on rectal exam, and in some cases, diarrhea. So it should also be considered as a possible diagnosis in this case, along with C. diff.

Answer 281

B. All 4 Anti-TB drugs. IGRA positivity, a positive Mantoux test of 12 cm, and CXR findings suggestive of inactive patchy lesions indicate latent tuberculosis (TB) infection. As per the guidelines, the standard treatment for latent TB infection is to initiate Isoniazid (INH) or Rifampicin therapy for 6 to 9 months. However, in cases where the risk of progression to active TB is high or in patients with extensive TB disease, the preferred treatment regimen is to initiate all four anti-TB drugs for two months, followed by two drugs (isoniazid and rifampicin) for an additional four months. The 4-drug regimen provides a more effective treatment option, prevents the development of drug-resistant TB, and decreases the risk of disease progression.

Answer 282

D. Adjustment Disorder The man's history of stressful life events and use of Diazepam suggests the possibility of an underlying adjustment disorder Adjustment disorder is a stress-related condition that can occur in response to a significant life event, such as a divorce, job loss, or financial difficulties. Symptoms of adjustment disorder can include anxiety, depression, and behavioral issues, such as insomnia

Answer 283

B. Depression. The patient's symptoms of difficulty sleeping, low mood, and tremor following a few days of alcohol abstinence suggest depression. Alcohol withdrawal can cause tremors, and low mood is also a common symptom of depression. Additionally, the behavior of counting before smoking also suggests the possibility of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD); however, the absence of other OCD symptoms and the presence of other depressive symptoms like low mood and difficulty sleeping makes depression more likely.

Answer 284

A. Clostridial myonecrosis. The development of worsening pain and swelling of the left hand, as well as the circumferential eschar formation in a patient who spilled hot coffee on their forearm, suggest the possibility of clostridial myonecrosis. Clostridial myonecrosis, also known as gas gangrene, is a rare and serious bacterial infection caused by Clostridium bacteria that can occur following traumatic injuries, such as burns, and can result in tissue necrosis and gas production. The progression of this infection can be rapid and severe and can lead to systemic toxicity, sepsis, and even death if left untreated. Treatment generally includes surgical debridement to remove the infected tissue and antimicrobial therapy.

Answer 285

B. Intravenous corticosteroids. The patient's symptoms and history suggest a possible diagnosis of temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. This condition is a vasculitis that primarily involves the large and medium-sized arteries, especially the branches of the carotid artery, including the temporal artery. Symptoms can include new-onset headache, vision changes (such as the right-sided vision loss the patient experienced 6 months ago), and general symptoms like fatigue and malaise, which align with the patient's lethargy. The condition is more common in older adults and can lead to serious complications, such as blindness, if not treated promptly. The first-line treatment for temporal arteritis is high-dose glucocorticoids, hence "intravenous corticosteroids" is the most appropriate next step.

Answer 286

The next step would be to get a urinalysis and culture to identify any possible urinary tract infections, which may cause urinary incontinence. Urinary tract infections are a common cause of bladder irritation and incontinence. If the urinalysis and urine culture show no signs of infection, then further evaluation with urodynamic testing can be considered to assess bladder function, urine flow, and identify any underlying neurological or anatomical issues. But as the patient is presenting with symptoms of incontinence, it is important to first rule out a simple urinary tract infection, as this would be the most common cause of the patient's symptoms. Therefore, a urine culture is the most appropriate next step for this patient.

Answer 287

D. Catheter. The presentation of an enlarged and soft prostate with both lobes enlarged and a residual urine volume of 20 ml suggests benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a common condition where the prostate enlarges and can cause urinary retention, which is consistent with the patient's inability to void. The initial management of acute urinary retention in cases of BPH involves catheterization to relieve the urinary obstruction and drain the bladder. Therefore, the most appropriate next step in this case is catheter placement. This will allow for drainage of urine and may provide immediate symptomatic relief. Further diagnostic tests such as PSA and creatinine may be performed after catheterization, depending on the patient's clinical response and the results of initial diagnostic tests. Prostatectomy may be considered as a long-term management option for BPH, while PSA and creatinine testing will help identify any underlying malignancy or renal impairment, respectively. However, catheterization is the most urgent and critical management step at this time to relieve the patient's acute urinary retention.

Answer 288

D. Normal development. The behavior of staying in the room and becoming a vegetarian is not necessarily indicative of any mental health diagnosis. At 16 years old, it is typical for teenagers to explore new identities and preferences, including social, cultural, dietary, and personal values. At times, these choices may bring some conflicts or tension between the adolescent and their parents, particularly when it comes to lifestyle choices. The behavior of staying in the room may be a reflection of a typical adolescent's development toward establishing more independence and privacy, testing limits, and exploring new interests. The behavior is not necessarily a sign of a mental health disorder or condition.

Answer 289

C. FBC during labor The pregnant female's laboratory results suggest the possibility of an underlying medical condition, such as anemia, infection, or thrombocytopenia

Answer 290

Maternal age - As women get older, their fertility decreases, and their risk of infertility increases. At the age of 49, the natural decline in the quality and quantity of eggs makes it more difficult to conceive. Therefore, the woman's age could be a contributing factor.

Answer 291

Option B, performing a Doppler ultrasound, could also be a reasonable next step to investigate leg swelling after a vein harvest for CABG. A Doppler ultrasound can evaluate for the presence of blood clots, deep venous thrombosis (DVT), venous insufficiency, or other vascular problems. This test can also help identify the direction and velocity of blood flow through the vessels. It is a non-invasive diagnostic test that can provide valuable information on the vascular status of the region.

Answer 292

The most common type of ear cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, which can start as skin cancer in the ear canal or skin of the outer ear.

Answer 293

D. No Ix (investigation) You are correct that observation (option D) can be the initial management strategy for lateral epicondylitis. Non-imaging management options for lateral epicondylitis include: - Rest and modification of activities that trigger symptoms - Ice or heat therapy to relieve pain - Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications - Physical therapy to stretch and strengthen the affected area - Wearing a counter-force brace to reduce strain on the elbow If conservative management measures do not provide significant symptom relief after a reasonable amount of time (usually 6-12 weeks), further investigations may be needed. Therefore, initial observation with reassessment of symptoms over time can be an appropriate management strategy for lateral epicondylitis.

Answer 294

B. Surveillance In the case of the elderly man with prostate cancer who had a PCL done 18 months ago, the most appropriate management would be surveillance, which involves regular follow-up blood tests, rectal exams, and prostate biopsies to monitor the progression of the cancer.

Answer 295

A. Detrusor instability Detrusor instability, also known as overactive bladder, can cause a frequent and sudden urge to urinate that may be difficult to control. Detrusor instability occurs when the bladder muscle contracts and causes an urgent need to urinate, leading to frequent urination. This condition may be provoked by stimuli such as stress, caffeine, or alcohol and can sometimes occur without any apparent trigger. It is commonly associated with the overactive bladder syndrome and urge incontinence.

Answer 296

Depending on the symptoms, different investigations might be needed. For example, an ultrasound (USS) might be used for abdominal issues, an X-ray for bone or lung concerns, or a CT scan for detailed images of certain body parts.

Answer 297

B. Fundal massage. After a party has delivered the placenta completely and is experiencing bleeding of 750 ml of blood, the next step should be a fundal massage. This is important to help the uterus contract and prevent excessive bleeding. A fundal massage involves applying gentle pressure to the uterus through the abdomen to help it contract and reduce bleeding.

Answer 298

A. Doppler Doppler ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging modality that can provide valuable information about the blood flow in the veins and arteries of the affected leg . It can help identify any vascular abnormalities, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or venous insufficiency, which can contribute to the erythema and tenderness . Doppler ultrasound can also be used to monitor the progression of the disease and guide the appropriate management

Answer 299

All of the above. A. Mood: Always look into the emotional and mental wellbeing of an individual. Any signs of persistent sadness, hopelessness, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, irritability and restlessness, or loss of interest in activities once enjoyed should be considered. B. Sleep pattern: Changes in sleep pattern such as insomnia or excessive sleeping are common signs of depression and should be evaluated. In postpartum depression, fatigue and tiredness can be even more pronounced due to the demands of caring for a newborn. C. Premorbid Personality: Evaluating the personality traits and behaviors of an individual before the onset of a psychiatric disorder can help identify any noticeable changes. Some people may have a history of depression or anxiety disorders, which can increase the risk of postpartum depression.

Answer 300

The correct answer is B. Weight reduction. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal disorder commonly found in women of reproductive age. Women with PCOS may have infrequent or prolonged menstrual periods or high levels of male hormones (androgens). The ovaries may develop numerous small collections of fluid (follicles) and fail to regularly release eggs. Obesity is a major factor influencing PCOS and it can worsen PCOS symptoms, hence weight reduction is often the first line of treatment recommended. Lifestyle modifications, such as a healthy diet and regular physical activity, can lead to weight loss, improved fertility, and significantly reduce symptoms.

Answer 301

The appropriate study design for assessing prevalence during a recent outbreak would be a cross-sectional study. In a cross-sectional study, data is collected at a single point in time or over a limited period from individuals who are representative of the population of interest. It involves the observation of exposure and outcome status at the same time. In the context of assessing prevalence during an outbreak, a cross-sectional study would involve collecting data on the number of affected individuals and those who \are not, within a given population at a specific point in time. This study design is useful for quickly obtaining an estimate of the prevalence of a disease or condition in a given population. Furthermore, it can identify certain risk factors associated with the outbreak and also determine the level of exposure in the population. This data will be helpful in guiding public health officials in their response to the outbreak and developing appropriate intervention strategies

Answer 302

If the culture becomes positive for coagulase-negative staphylococcus (CoNS) in a patient with a serious infection, who is treated with antibiotics for pyelonephritis with acute kidney injury, and their symptoms are resolving but still mild symptoms are present, the next step would depend on clinical judgement. CoNS are often considered as contaminants, but they can also cause infections, particularly in patients who are immunocompromised or have risk factors such as catheterization or implanted devices. If there is clinical correlation with CoNS and symptoms, treatment may be needed. Therefore, if the patient is responding well to the current antibiotic therapy and the symptoms are mild, no change in therapy may be required. On the other hand, if the mild symptoms are considered concerning for the possibility of ongoing infection, and there is evidence of a CoNS infection, the healthcare provider may choose to modify the current therapy. Options C and D are not likely to be the best choices. Benzylpenicillin (Option C) is not typically used to treat pyelonephritis, and vancomycin (Option D) is often reserved for serious infections due to resistant Gram-positive bacteria. Option A of continuing the same antibiotics may still be the best choice if the patient is responding well. However, if a change in therapy is required, the healthcare provider may consider the use of another antibiotic active against CoNS, with the narrowest spectrum possible, based on culture and sensitivity results.

Answer 303

The correct answer is D. Past history of squamous cell carcinoma. A past history of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is the highest risk factor for developing another SCC. A history of SCC indicates a susceptibility to the development of cancerous skin lesions, and the patient should be advised to seek regular medical evaluations to monitor any new skin lesions. Fair skin color (Option A) and the tendency to tan rather than burn (Option B) are also risk factors for skin cancers, including SCC, but they are not as significant as a history of SCC itself. An absence of sunburns as a child (Option C) might suggest that the patient has had less sun exposure in their life, which could be a protective factor against SCC. However, this factor does not outweigh the significance of a past history of SCC. While age (Option E) can also be a risk factor for SCC with advanced age increasing the risk, a past history of SCC is a stronger risk factor. Therefore, the best choice for this question is an option (D) history of squamous cell carcinoma.

Answer 304

The best indicator of prognosis for melanoma is the invasion of the dermis (Option D). Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that develops in the cells that produce melanin. The risk of the cancer spreading and prognosis are related to the depth of the melanoma cells' invasion into the skin. If the melanoma has not yet invaded the dermis, it is known as "in situ" melanoma, which has a better prognosis. On the other hand, if the cancer has penetrated through the basement membrane and has invaded the dermis, it poses a significant risk of metastasis, and the prognosis is wors

Answer 305

The correct answer is B. Skin scrapings. For a patient presenting with an erythematous scaly lesion, various skin conditions can be the underlying cause. In this case, the differential diagnosis includes tinea, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea, among others. Among these options, performing skin scrapings would be the most appropriate tool to reach a definitive diagnosis. Skin scrapings can be used to detect the presence of fungi responsible for tinea infections. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) test can be performed on scrapings to

Answer 306

The correct answer is A. Punch biopsy. The first step in the management of a changing lesion on the cheek is to conduct a biopsy. A punch biopsy is a simple and minimally invasive procedure that will remove a small sample of the suspicious tissue for examination under a microscope. This can be performed by a general practitioner or a dermatologist in an outpatient setting.

Answer 307

D. Wide excision. Malignant melanomas are aggressive forms of skin cancer that require prompt and thorough management. Once a malignant melanoma is diagnosed and excision biopsy is performed, the next step is to perform a wide excision. A wide excision is a surgical procedure that removes any remaining cancerous tissue around the initial biopsy site and prevents its spread to nearby structures and lymph nodes. The extent of the wide excision will depend on the depth of the melanoma and the size of the biopsy site. The goal of the wide excision is to obtain negative margins, which means that no tumor cells are present at the edge of the excised tissue. This procedure not only achieves complete removal of the cancer tissue but also helps prevent recurrence and further complications. Wide excision is the next step in managing malignant melanoma after excision biopsy, as it helps to ensure complete removal of the melanoma and reduces the risk of recurrence and further complications. Once a wide excision has been performed, a follow-up review in 3 months (Option E) would be appropriate to assess the healing status and evaluate for possible recurrence.

Answer 308

The most likely diagnosis in this case is A. Pyogenic granuloma. Pyogenic granulomas are benign skin tumors that can appear anywhere on the body, but frequently occur on the face, neck, and hands. They are red, raised, and firm with a shiny or smooth surface and often bleed easily. Pyogenic granulomas can be caused by minor skin injuries, hormonal changes during pregnancy, or certain medications. The appearance of the tag on the neck, the recent development, and the history of bleeding on catching it suggest that it may be a pyogenic granuloma. However, a biopsy may be required to confirm this diagnosis.

Answer 309

Delete The appropriate initial management for a patient with a peanut allergy who presents with wheezing, urticaria (welts), and swelling of the face is Option A, intramuscular (IM) adrenaline. Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur due to exposure to an allergen like peanuts. Symptoms can be diverse, but they typically begin within minutes to a few hours after exposure and can progress rapidly. The symptoms may include swelling of the face, tongue, or throat; urticaria; wheezing, coughing, or difficulty breathing; and abdominal pain or cramps. IM adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It works by constricting blood vessels, raising blood pressure, and relaxing airway muscles, thus reversing the potentially life-threatening symptoms. Antihistamines like Option B can help to alleviate symptoms of urticaria but are less effective in addressing airway constriction and shock. Hydrocortisone (Option C) is also often used as adjunctive therapy, but it is not typically first-line treatment for acute anaphylaxis.

Answer 310

If some of the children are still experiencing itching after the use of permethrin to treat a diagnosis of scabies, the next appropriate step would be Option D, to repeat permethrin. Permethrin is the first-line treatment for scabies, and it is usually an effective treatment to eliminate the mites that cause the condition. However, at times, treatment can be unsuccessful. This may occur if the initial treatment was not applied correctly or if there is a re-infection after treatment. If some of the children are still experiencing itching at the site of the lesions after using permethrin correctly for three weeks, a repeat dose may be warranted. The repeat treatment is usually given one to two weeks after the initial application of permethrin.

Answer 311

The most appropriate investigation to perform for a 26-year-old pregnant woman who presents with a clear vaginal discharge and no abdominal pain is a Low vaginal swab (Option B). Clear vaginal discharge is a common symptom during pregnancy, but it can also indicate certain infections that can pose a risk to the pregnancy, such as bacterial vaginosis and yeast infections. Performing a low vaginal swab allows for the identification of any bacterial or fungal infections that may be causing the discharge. This information is essential for treatment, as untreated vaginal infections during pregnancy can lead to complications, including miscarriages, preterm labor, and low birth weight.

Answer 312

Therefore, in a pregnant woman presenting with arthralgia, erythematous papular rashes on the leg that spare the central area after being bitten by an insect, the most appropriate treatment would be oral amoxicillin (Option D). In non-pregnant individuals, oral doxycycline is usually the first-line treatment for Lyme disease. However, in a pregnant woman, the use of doxycycline is contraindicated due to potential harm to the developing fetal bones and teeth.

Answer 313

Bowen's disease is a more appropriate diagnosis for the erythematous scaly raised lesion described in the scenario. Bowen's disease, or squamous cell carcinoma in situ, is a type of non-melanoma skin cancer. It typically presents as a red, scaly, and slightly raised patch on the skin, which can occasionally itch. Bowen's disease commonly occurs on sun-exposed areas of the body, but it can rarely develop on areas that have not been frequently exposed to the sun, such as the legs. While basal cell carcinoma (BCC) can also present as a scaly raised lesion on the skin, it typically appears as a waxy or pearly nodule rather than a flat lesion, which is more characteristic of Bowen's disease. Therefore, the most appropriate answer for the described erythematous scaly raised lesion on an old lady's shin is C. Bowen's disease. Thank you for bringing this to my attention and I apologize for any confusion my earlier response may have caused.

Answer 314

The most likely cause of hair loss in this patient after receiving chemotherapy with paclitaxel and carboplatin is Option C, interruption of follicular keratinocyte proliferation. Chemotherapy aims to kill rapidly dividing cells, which can include cancer cells but also healthy cells that divide rapidly, such as hair follicle cells. Paclitaxel and carboplatin are commonly used chemotherapy agents for treating ovarian cancer but can have the side effect of hair loss or thinning (alopecia). Hair loss due to chemotherapy is caused by interruption or inhibition of follicular keratinocyte proliferation, leading to a decrease in the number of hair follicles in the anagen (growth) phase. This interruption occurs because the rapidly dividing cells of the hair follicle, along with cancer cells, are targeted by chemotherapy agents, resulting in hair loss or thinning.

Answer 315

The diagnosis is likely A. Metastatic Melanoma. Melanoma is a type of cancer that can spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body, including the brain. The man's history of melanoma and the presence of a whitish irregular shadow in the left hemisphere of his brain on a CT scan suggest that his melanoma may have metastasized to his brain, causing his headaches

Answer 316

4. Tubal damage is the most likely cause of infertility in this case. The history of Chlamydia infection increases the risk of tubal damage and obstruction, which can prevent the sperm and egg from meeting and fertilizing. The previous surgery for endometriosis and uterosacral ligament may also have contributed to tubal damage. Age and endometriosis may also play a role, but tubal damage is the most likely cause in this scenario. Early menopause is unlikely since the patient's menstrual cycle is normal.

Answer 317

B. Anovulation is a possible cause of infertility in this case. The woman is in her early 40s, which can be a contributing factor to decreased fertility, but she has a history of a previous pregnancy. Oligospermia or antisperm antibodies in the male partner can also be a cause of infertility, but there is no information provided about the male partner in this scenario. Therefore, anovulation is the most likely cause of infertility. The cycles of 27 to 35 days indicate some irregularity, and the woman may not be ovulating regularly, which can make it difficult to conceive.

Answer 318

c- Physiotherapy is the initial management for a tear in the long head of biceps and mild rupture of supraspinatus muscle in a 72-year-old man with pain and decreased range of motion. Surgery may not be necessary for every case, especially if the tear and rupture are mild. NSAIDs may help to relieve pain, but they do not treat the underlying problem and may have side effects, especially in an elderly patient. Steroids may have a role in some cases, but they also have potential side effects and may not be the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can help to improve range of motion, reduce pain, and strengthen the affected muscles, which can improve function and quality of life. If physiotherapy does not provide enough improvement, then other interventions such as surgery or medication may be considered.

Answer 319

1. Test for HLAB 27 is the most appropriate next step in the management of a young girl with red eye and back pain whose brother has Ankylosing Spondylitis. HLA-B27 is a genetic marker that is strongly associated with the development of Ankylosing Spondylitis, which is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine. The presence of HLA-B27 does not necessarily mean the patient has Ankylosing Spondylitis, but it is an important risk factor that can guide further diagnostic testing and management. ANA and RF are tests that help to diagnose other types of autoimmune diseases, but they are not specific for Ankylosing Spondylitis. X-ray lumbosacral can provide additional information but may not be necessary at this stage. Ds DNA is a test used to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is not specific for Ankylosing Spondylitis.

Answer 320

2. Because early detection of dementia leads to better prognosis, the tool for research on dementia in Italian speaking elderly population should aim to facilitate early detection and diagnosis. The design of the tool should include standardized screening tests and diagnostic criteria for dementia, which should be feasible and practical for use in the target population. It should be sensitive and specific enough to detect early signs of cognitive decline that may indicate dementia. Additionally, the tool should be culturally and linguistically appropriate for Italian-speaking elderly population to increase participation and accuracy of results. It is important to study dementia in the elderly population to better understand the prevalence, risks, and management of the condition, and to develop effective interventions that can improve the quality of life for elderly individuals and their families.

Answer 321

B. Left parietal lobe is the site of lesion in Gerstmann syndrome. Gerstmann syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from damage or dysfunction of the left parietal lobe, typically caused by a stroke or other brain injury. The classic signs and symptoms include impaired ability to perform calculations (acalculia), inability to identify numbers or their sequence (finger agnosia), difficulty with left and right orientation (left-right disorientation), and difficulty with writing and spelling (agraphia). Additionally, some patients may experience difficulty with language processing and spatial awareness. As the left parietal lobe is responsible for processing and integrating sensory information related to spatial awareness, language, and cognition, damage to this region can result in the characteristic symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome.

Answer 322

The HPV vaccine is recommended for all individuals aged 11 or 12, regardless of sexual activity or condom use, as it can protect against six different types of cancer caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)

Answer 323

A. IV fluid should be the next step in managing a patient with asplenia who experiences chills and rigors during blood transfusion. Chills and rigors are common symptoms of transfusion reactions, which can occur due to a variety of reasons, including blood incompatibility and bacterial contamination. In this case, after confirming that the correct blood bag was used, it is important to provide supportive care to the patient. IV fluid can help to stabilize the blood pressure and improve hydration.

Answer 324

Projection is a defense mechanism where a person attributes their undesirable thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the farmer is projecting his anger and frustration about the drought towards the government and accusing them of causing the loss. He is also projecting his own feelings of guilt and spending recklessly onto women whom he is paying for service. Therefore, the correct answer is c) Projection.

Answer 325

A. Increase warfarin dose is the next step to manage a patient who has been on Enoxaparin and Warfarin for 1 week, and their INR is 1.8. The goal INR range for most patients on warfarin depends on the underlying medical condition and the patient's individual risk factors for thrombosis and bleeding. However, an INR of 1.8 is below the recommended range for most indications. The typical management in such circumstances is to increase the dose of warfarin and monitor the patient's INR closely until it reaches the desired therapeutic range. In contrast, continuing the same treatment or stopping Enoxaparin and increasing warfarin may result in what will be non-compliance of patient's treatment plan, by not getting enough anticoagulation which may lead to thrombotic events. Finally, stopping Enoxaparin and checking INR after 3 days with no intervention could be inappropriate, and the patient may be at risk for a thrombotic event.

Answer 326

OVID arm is a rare reaction to the COVID-19 vaccine, particularly the Moderna and Pfizer-BioNTech vaccines, that typically occurs around one week after the first or second shot vaccination . It causes a red or discolored rash, often covering a large area of skin at the vaccination site, along with pain, swelling, and itching . While COVID arm is uncomfortable, it is generally harmless and resolves on its own within a few weeks . Treatment for COVID arm may include over-the-counter pain relievers and antihistamines to relieve itching and pai

Answer 327

A. IV Remdesivir is not the next step in managing a patient who has come in contact with a COVID positive family member and is presenting with fever, nausea, diarrhea, and hypotension with a fever of 103.5 F (39.7 C) after starting IV fluids. It is important to note that Remdesivir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat hospitalized patients with severe COVID-19 infections who require supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation. This case does not mention if the patient has tested positive for COVID-19 or is positive with severe symptoms that require hospitalization and supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation.

Answer 328

B. Furosemide In patients with chronic kidney disease who are on regular dialysis, the accumulation of fluid or volume overload between dialysis sessions can contribute significantly to high blood pressure. This is further suggested by the noted weight gain of 3-5 kg between dialysis sessions in the patient. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the kidney to increase the excretion of sodium and water, reducing fluid accumulation and helping lower blood pressure. While loop diuretics are often ineffective in end-stage renal disease due to the significantly decreased renal function, they may still have some effect in patients with residual renal function and can help manage fluid overload and hypertension in these patients.

Answer 329

B. Stop and start some other drug Sodium valproate is known to have potential teratogenic effects. It is one of the antiepileptic drugs that carry a high risk of causing congenital malformations and neurodevelopmental disorders when used during pregnancy. If the patient wants to conceive, it would be advisable to switch to another, safer anti-epileptic medication. This should be done in consultation with a neurologist or a specialist in epilepsy management. It is essential that this transition is managed carefully to ensure seizure control as seizures themselves can also cause harm to both the mother and developing baby.

Answer 330

1. Bowen's disease is a form of skin cancer that begins in the top layer of the skin. It generally has a slow progression. Topical creams, cryotherapy, photodynamic therapy, radiation or curettage, and cautery are usually used in the treatment, depending on the location and size of the affected area. 2. Pyogenic granuloma is a common, benign growth that appears as a small, reddish bump on the skin. It can bleed easily. Treatment often involves surgical removal, laser therapy, or topical medication. The most common treatment is surgical excision. 3. Psoriasis is a chronic, autoimmune skin disease that speeds up the growth cycle of skin cells. It can cause cells to build up rapidly on the surface of the skin, leading to the formation of scales and red patches that are itchy and sometimes painful. The treatment for psoriasis is multifaceted and typically includes topical therapy (corticosteroids, retinoids, vitamin D derivatives, coal tar), phototherapy (narrowband UVB, psoralen plus ultraviolet A) and, for severe cases, systemic agents (methotrexate, cyclosporine) or biologics focusing on specific components of the immune system.

Answer 331

B. Verapamil and Timolol. Both Verapamil and Timolol can potentially cause bradycardia. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes the muscles of the heart and blood vessels, and this may result in a lower heart rate. Timolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that decreases heart rate, therefore, they may both contribute to bradycardia. Captopril (an ACE inhibitor) and Metformin (an anti-diabetic drug) do not typically cause bradycardia. Ibuprofen (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) might uncommonly influence heart rate or rhythm, but not typically bradycardia. Therefore, the combination of Verapamil and Timolol is most likely to cause bradycardia.

Answer 332

B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia The presence of microspherocytes, reticulocytosis, splenomegaly, and a positive Coombs test (also known as the direct antiglobulin test) is most suggestive of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA). AIHA is a condition where your immune system produces antibodies against your own red blood cells, causing them to burst (hemolyze) prematurely. The Coombs test is used to detect these antibodies. While hereditary spherocytosis could present with microspherocytosis and splenomegaly, it would not result in a positive Coombs test as this is not an autoimmune condition. AIHA is a better fit with all the given clinical features.

Answer 333

B. Radical Prostatectomy. In a case of prostate cancer, where there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or metastasis, and the cancer is confined to the prostate and seminal vesicles (T3b stage), radical prostatectomy may be an appropriate treatment option. This procedure involves surgical removal of the entire prostate gland, the seminal vesicles, and adjacent tissues.

Answer 334

B. Analgesia and mobilise Back pain that occurs after strain or exertion such as trying to open a window, especially when all tests including a spinal X-ray are normal, is likely due to a muscular or soft tissue injury. Acute management of such conditions typically involves the use of analgesics for pain control and early mobilization to prevent stiffness and deconditioning. Rest may be beneficial immediately after the injury, but prolonged inactivity is generally not encouraged as it might slow recovery.

Answer 335

A. IM Droperidol The described condition seems to be an acute psychiatric emergency, and immediate intervention is warranted. If the patient poses a danger to self or others, sedation using antipsychotics may be considered for the safety of the patient and staff around them. Droperidol, an antipsychotic drug, can be administered to help manage acute agitation and psychosis. However, it is important to use it cautiously due to its potential for serious side effects like cardiotoxicity.

Answer 336

B. MRI Bradykinesia is a symptom of Parkinson's disease, which is a neurodegenerative disorder that can cause depression, memory problems, and other cognitive and motor symptoms. An MRI scan can help identify any structural changes or abnormalities in the brain that may be contributing to the patient's symptoms. It can also help rule out other possible causes of the symptoms, such as stroke or traumatic brain injury. The clinical presentation of bradykinesia may include hypomimia (loss of or limited facial expressions), hypophonia (soft speech), difficulty with fine motor activities, reduced arm swings when walking, shuffling steps when walking, and small cramped handwriting. Treatment for bradykinesia may include medications, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and anticholinergics, as well as physical therapy and other supportive measures

Answer 337

B. Urine routine Based on the presentation of lower abdominal pain and diarrhea, it seems most likely that this young boy is suffering from a gastrointestinal problem, perhaps an infection or a food intolerance. A urine routine could potentially help rule out urinary tract infection which may at times present with similar symptoms.

Answer 338

A. Admit and observe in ED Considering that the old lady is delirious, which indicates an acute change in mental status, and has a urinary tract infection (which could be the reason for her delirium), there is a clear need for medical intervention. Moreover, being unable to secure a cannula suggests potential severe dehydration or other circulatory issues that need addressing. Even though the son, who has power of attorney, has said not to put in a cannula, it is not an absolute contraindication to other methods of treatment and close monitoring, especially if her condition is potentially life-threatening. Therefore, admitting her and observing her in the emergency department would be the most appropriate course of action. During her observation, the medical team can work to understand the reason behind the son's wish not to secure a cannula and discuss alternative treatment possibilities and likely outcomes with him.

Answer 339

C. Oxytocin From the details provided, the pregnant woman is 39 weeks along, which is full term, and she has been having contractions every 5 minutes. Despite this, there has been no change in the dilation of the cervix or the position of the fetus over a period of 4 hours. This suggests that she is experiencing a protracted labor (labor that is progressing slower than normal). One common management strategy in such cases is to administer oxytocin. Oxytocin is a hormone that can stimulate contractions, helping to speed up labor. If the labor does not progress with oxytocin, then a Cesarean section (C-section) may be considered.

Answer 340

C. ConstitutionalM macrocephaly Constitutional macrocephaly is a condition in which a child has a head circumference that is larger than normal, but there are no other associated symptoms or underlying medical conditions. t is usually a benign condition that does not require treatment, and the child's head size will typically normalize as they grow older

Answer 341

B. Microcephaly The most likely cause of the decreased head circumference from the 50th to the 35th percentile in a pregnant woman with a history of infection at 24 weeks and gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) would be microcephaly. Microcephaly is a condition characterized by a significantly smaller head size compared to other individuals of the same age and sex. It can be caused by various factors, including genetic abnormalities, infections during pregnancy (such as Zika virus infection), exposure to certain medications or toxins, and other congenital disorders. In this case, the history of infection during pregnancy may be a contributing factor to the development of microcephaly.

Answer 342

A. CT Sialogram A swelling at the angle of the jaw is most commonly due to issues with the salivary glands, particularly the parotid gland which is located in this area. Conditions such as salivary gland stones (sialolithiasis), infection, or tumors could cause such a swelling. A CT Sialogram is an imaging study that can help evaluate the salivary glands and ducts and identify abnormalities such as stones or blockages. It involves the use of a special dye that is injected into the salivary glands to make them and their ducts more visible on the CT images.

Answer 343

A. Colonoscopy This patient has rectal bleeding and anemia, which indicates a significant loss of blood. While the vital stats are stable currently, it's essential to locate the source of the bleeding. A colonoscopy is often the first investigation of choice in such cases, as it allows direct visualization of the interior of the colon, potentially identifying the source of bleeding, and even allowing for interventions such as removing polyps or cauterizing bleeding vessels.

Answer 344

A. Repeat FOBT You are correct. According to Australian guidelines, individuals who are asymptomatic, belong to low-risk category 1, and have a family history of colorectal cancer should start screening at age 50 and can have FOBT testing every two years. A colonoscopy is recommended for individuals with a positive FOBT. Given the patient's age, low-risk category 1 status, and negative FOBT, repeating the FOBT in two years would be an appropriate next step. A colonoscopy may still be recommended for this patient at a younger age due to his positive family history, but according to the current guidelines, has several options including interval colonoscopies from ages 45-49 or arranging colonoscopy surveillance at a higher interval depending on patient and family history.

Answer 345

B. LSCS This situation seems to suggest that there is a potential life-threatening emergency, and the immediate priority would be to stabilize the patient and evaluate for fetal distress. The presence of PV bleeding, low blood pressure, and no fetal heart sounds all indicate an obstetric emergency that requires prompt intervention.

Answer 346

A. Stop Valproate, if feasible. Sodium Valproate is a medication used for the management of epilepsy and other neurological conditions. While it is useful as a treatment, it has been shown to cause harm to developing fetuses, including an increased risk of neural tube defects and other congenital malformations. Therefore, if a woman on Valproate wishes to conceive, the ideal scenario would be to stop the medication, if medically feasible. However, for some women, stopping the medication may not be possible due to the severity of their medical condition. In such cases, a consultation with a neurologist or epilepsy specialist would be recommended to weigh the risks and benefits of continuing the medication versus the potential risks to the developing fetus.

Answer 347

A. Refer to speech pathologist

Answer 348

A. Fear of contamination If a person is frequently washing their walls despite no apparent need, one possible explanation could be a fear of contamination or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). This condition can manifest in repetitive and compulsive behaviors that are not easy to control. A person with a fear of contamination might engage in obsessive or repetitive behaviors, such as continuous hand washing or cleaning. Therefore, if a person is washing walls frequently and their behavior seems compulsive, it is reasonable to inquire about their level of concern for contamination and associated behavior and thoughts. It is important to approach this with empathy and without judgment because OCD is a severe condition that can affect an individual's quality of life.

Answer 349

A. Canula site infection

Answer 350

You are correct that anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin, is the first-line treatment option with a confirmed diagnosis of DVT. The cord-like redness, along with calf pain, suggests the possibility of DVT. An ultrasound of the leg veins can confirm the diagnosis of DVT. Once confirmed, anticoagulant therapy is typically used to treat DVT. Warfarin is one of the most common anticoagulants used to treat DVT. Surgery (option A) may be considered in rare situations, such as very large or severe blood clots, where there is an increased risk of clot breaking off and traveling to the lungs, known as pulmonary embolism (PE), despite anticoagulant therapy. Since surgery carries its own risks, it is not typically the first-line treatment option for DVT.

Answer 351

A. Delusional Disorder A sudden onset of beliefs that are not shared by the general culture or the patient's social group, such as a belief that aliens are trying to do something, is characteristic of delusional disorder. Given that the patient is a professor, previously fine, and not displaying typical features like hallucinations, dementia, or disorganized thoughts, it is not likely to be a diagnosis of late onset schizophrenia. Delusional disorder is a psychiatric condition in which an individual has one or more fixed delusions, which are false beliefs that are resistant to reasoning or evidence and are not shared by the individual's cultural or religious group. The delusions cause significant distress and impairment in work or social settings, but the person can function normally otherwise. The bizarre nature of the belief about aliens shows that it is not following the norm for cultural or religious beliefs and could be pathological. Delusional disorder typically affects middle-aged to older adults and is often treated with medication, psychotherapy, or a combination of both.

Answer 352

Admit the patient: If the patient's behavior is concerning or there is a risk of harm to themselves or others, they may need to be admitted to the hospital for further evaluation and treatment

Answer 353

B. Pulmonary embolism

Answer 354

A. Notify coroner A coroner is a government official who is responsible for investigating and determining the cause of death when a person dies unexpectedly, violently, or under suspicious circumstances. The coroner is usually a medical or legal professional who works closely with law enforcement to investigate the circumstances surrounding the person's death.

Answer 355

a. Physiotherapy The most appropriate management for this patient would be physiotherapy. Exercises and gentle stretches can help lengthen and strengthen the shoulder muscles and relieve pain. These exercises can improve flexibility, increase the range of motion, and bring greater comfort and ease to movements. It's recommended to do these exercises three to six times per week, starting with a 10-minute routine and gradually increasing the duration as the patient gets stronger and more flexible

Answer 356

The correct answer for this question is B. Decreased CSF absorption. The clinical scenario described is consistent with normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), a condition characterized by gait disturbances, memory impairment, and urinary incontinence. The broad-based and shuffling gait is a classic finding in NPH. The underlying cause of NPH is thought to be decreased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) absorption, which leads to an enlarged ventricular system. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement can help to improve symptoms in some patients with NPH.

Answer 357

In such a situation, the best course of action would be to A) call the police. This is because the patient is in immediate danger and the police are equipped to handle such situations. Additionally, it's important to ensure the patient's safety and provide medical treatment as needed. Domestic violence is a serious issue and should be reported to the authorities

Answer 358

A. Repeat FOBT

Answer 359

a. Physiotherapy

Answer 360

3. CT scan However, in this particular case with a history of headache for several weeks, waking up due to pain in the night, and enlarged nodes in the neck, the priority should be to rule out any intracranial pathology. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be a CT scan of the head to determine if there is any underlying neurological problem. Once the underlying cause of the headache is determined, appropriate treatment can be administered.

Answer 361

4. Document in incident reporting. It is important to document the incident in the incident reporting system as soon as possible after discovering the mistake. This helps to ensure that everyone involved in the patient's care is aware of the error and can take appropriate steps to monitor the patient's condition and prevent further harm. The patient should also be informed about the error to ensure transparency and build trust. In addition, the hospital manager should be informed of the incident so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent similar errors from occurring in the future.

Answer 362

B. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) Syndrome. WPW Syndrome is a congenital condition in which there is an abnormal accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles, resulting in the characteristic delta wave pattern on ECG. This can lead to episodes of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The bradycardia in this case could be explained by a high vagal tone which could be seen in atheletes or it could be a normal finding in this young athlete. It is important to note that while hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can also cause bradycardia, left and right bundle branch blocks, and other ECG abnormalities, it does not typically present with the characteristic delta wave pattern seen in WPW Syndrome. Similarly, left bundle branch block or right bundle branch block can cause ECG abnormalities, but not characteristic delta waves in V1-V3.

Answer 363

A. Hypomania. The patient's behavior and speech pattern indicate an elevated, euphoric mood, which can be a feature of hypomania. Hypomania is a milder form of mania and is a feature of bipolar disorder. Patients with hypomania often experience a decreased need for sleep, increased energy, racing thoughts, and increased impulsivity. They may also experience increased talkativeness and feel more sociable, as seen in the patient's expression of affection towards his girlfriend.

Answer 364

4)Colposcopy and LLETZ Biopsy CIN3 is a high-grade precancerous lesion that has the potential to develop into cervical cancer if not treated promptly. A colposcopy is recommended to visualize the cervix and identify the extent and location of the abnormal cells. LLETZ (Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone) biopsy is then done to remove the abnormal cells. LLETZ biopsy is a highly effective treatment and reliable option for removing any abnormal tissue and it preserves the structure of the cervix. Therefore, it is the most suitable option given the patient's gestational age. Termination of pregnancy is not required if appropriate management is done to treat abnormal cervical cell changes.

Answer 365

A) Abruptio placentae. The patient presents with painful contractions, vaginal bleeding, and lower abdominal/pelvic pain, which are all suggestive of abruptio placentae. A hypertonic uterus and moderate blood in the vaginal vault further support the diagnosis. Additionally, the patient has a history of hypertension, which is a risk factor for abruptio placentae. Normal labor or placenta previa would less likely cause hypertonic uterus and vaginal bleeding, respectively. Uterine rupture and Vasa previa may also cause vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain but are less likely given the presentation.

Answer 366

the pulmonary embolism and pregnancy is a complex issue and several factors need consideration. A. The prevalence in most clinical series is < 10% - False. The prevalence of pulmonary embolism in pregnancy is higher than that in the general population. Pregnant women are at an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). B. Ventilation-perfusion (VQ) scanning confers a lower radiation dose to the breast than does CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) - True. VQ scanning is generally preferred over CTPA in pregnant women as it exposes the breast to lower levels of radiation. C. D-dimer is useful for screening pregnant women at low risk for PE in order to avoid the need for imaging - True. D-dimer can be a useful screening tool for excluding thromboembolic events in pregnant women at low risk. D. Lower limb compression ultrasound shows evidence of DVT in about 35% of pregnant women with PE - False. Lower limb compression ultrasound is used to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism, rather than a diagnostic indicator of pulmonary embolism. Also, the prevalence of DVT in pregnant women with pulmonary embolism varies according to different studies. E. The radiation dose conferred to the fetus is substantially lower for CTPA than for VQ scanning - False. As stated earlier, VQ scanning is the preferred imaging modality in pregnant women as it exposes the mother and fetus to lower levels of radiation than CTPA.

Answer 367

The most appropriate management in this case is 1) Give IG (Immune Globulin). Varicella zoster virus (chickenpox) can cause severe complications in pregnant women and their unborn children. Previous infection with the virus does not confer complete immunity, and exposure to someone with active infection can result in reactivation of the virus, known as shingles or herpes zoster. Therefore, in this case, it is important to provide prophylaxis to prevent infection or reduce the severity of the infection if it occurs. IG contains antibodies against the Varicella zoster virus and is effective in preventing or reducing the severity of the disease if given within a few days of exposure. Vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy and should be given before pregnancy or after delivery. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be to give IG to prevent or reduce the effects of the infection.

Answer 368

The next step to reduce chest pain in this patient with acute anterior MI would be C. Nitrates. Nitrates are a class of medication that are used to relieve chest pain (angina) by dilating blood vessels and increasing oxygen to the heart. In the case of acute MI, nitrates can help relieve chest pain by reducing the workload on the heart and increasing blood flow to the affected area. Morphine may also be given to relieve chest pain but is typically reserved for patients with severe pain who do not respond to nitrates. Naproxen and paracetamol are not typically used for chest pain relief in acute MI. While beta-blockers are a mainstay of acute MI management, they are generally not used immediately for the relief of chest pain in the emergency room setting. Rather, they are used after the patient's pain is stabilized, and once the diagnosis is confirmed.

Answer 369

Yes, it is possible that the presentation is consistent with normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), which is characterized by the triad of gait disturbances, urinary incontinence, and cognitive impairment. The broad-based shuffling gait and urinary incontinence are consistent with NPH. The inability to remember items after 5 minutes is also a finding seen in NPH, but it is less specific to this condition than in Alzheimer's disease. The underlying cause of NPH is thought to be decreased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) absorption, which leads to an enlarged ventricular system. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement can help to improve symptoms in some patients with NPH.

Answer 370

b) Mechanical irritation of pilosebaceous follicles The presence of red papules and pustules in the axillae suggests a follicular-based rash, which can be caused by mechanical irritation of the pilosebaceous follicles . The patient's use of crutches for ambulation may contribute to the mechanical irritation of the axillary skin. Additionally, smoking and prediabetes are risk factors for skin infections, which can also cause follicular-based rashes

Answer 371

The most likely risk in this scenario is C. Recurrence. Shoulder dislocation is a common injury in sports, especially in basketball players. The fact that the coach placed the arm in a sling suggests that the dislocation was reduced shortly after the injury. However, the risk of recurrence after a primary shoulder dislocation is high, even with the appropriate management and rehabilitation. Limited range of motion and tenderness on palpation are also common findings after a shoulder dislocation.

Answer 372

B. Echocardiogram The patient's symptoms are consistent with low cardiac output syndrome, which is a condition characterized by inadequate cardiac output to meet the metabolic demands of the body . The presence of hypothermia, hypotension, and tachycardia suggests that the patient is in shock, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention . An echocardiogram can help evaluate the patient's cardiac function and identify any structural abnormalities or complications that may be contributing to the low cardiac output

Answer 373

The most likely diagnosis for this round lesion on a farmer's big toe is B. Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC). Bowen's disease is a form of SCC that presents as a small, slow-growing, red to brown scaly patch that enlarges slowly over several months. It may develop into an irregularly shaped Bowen lesion on the skin with a raised, scaly surface, often with a central crust or ulceration.

Answer 374

A. You disagree him

Answer 375

ABO incompatibility. ABO incompatibility is the most common cause of severe hyperbilirubinemia in newborns, where maternal antibodies against infant ABO blood cells cross the placenta and cause destruction of red blood cells. Jaundice in ABO incompatibility is typically seen on the 2nd or 3rd day of life and is associated with high levels of bilirubin.

Answer 376

C. Physiological jaundice. Physiological jaundice is a common condition that can occur in the first few days after birth and is due to a transient increase in bilirubin levels. It typically develops after the first 24 hours of life and commonly peaks around the third to fourth day before resolving by the end of the first week. However, jaundice occurring within the first 6 hours of life is not a feature of physiological jaundice.

Answer 377

Yes, incarcerated uterus is also a possible cause of a large, hard, and contracted uterus with a palpable lump, especially in the context of a missed diagnosis of multiple pregnancies. It occurs when the gravid uterus becomes entrapped in the pelvis due to a pelvic mass or adhesions.

Answer 378

The best management for a 70-year-old lady with stress incontinence who has undergone urodynamic studies and pelvic floor exercises could be a Tension-free Vaginal Tape (TVT) procedure. This is a commonly used surgical option for stress urinary incontinence, especially when conservative treatments like pelvic floor exercises are not sufficien

Answer 379

The best next management for this patient could be weight reduction. Obesity is a risk factor for overactive bladder and urinary incontinence, and weight loss may help reduce symptoms. However, it's unclear how much weight loss is needed. Pelvic floor exercises can also help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles and reduce symptoms of urinary incontinence

Answer 380

The most important management for this patient, after bladder exercises have failed, would be surgery for rectocele. This is because the patient's symptoms are related to a rectocele, which is a form of pelvic organ prolapse.

Answer 381

A. laxative

Answer 382

a. Constipation with overflow Constipation with overflow Constipation with overflow is a common cause of encopresis in children. It occurs when a child has chronic constipation and stool builds up in the rectum, leading to leakage of liquid stool around the impacted stool . The child may experience pain with bowel movements and become reluctant to pass stool, leading to further constipation and soiling

Answer 383

Breastfeeding may need to be temporarily stopped in the case of a breast abscess. This is a painful collection of pus that forms in the breast due to a bacterial infection. However, breastfeeding can usually continue on the unaffected breast.

Answer 384

3. CT scan

Answer 385

D. Paralysis is the most urgent, as it indicates the most advanced stage of ischemia and the highest likelihood of permanent nerve damage or tissue death.

Answer 386

D. Risk assessment helps you to interpret the results of subsequent diagnostic testing. Assessing a patient's pre-test risk of pulmonary embolism is important because it helps you to interpret the results of subsequent diagnostic testing. The pre-test probability of pulmonary embolism can influence the interpretation of diagnostic testing, such as D-dimer assay or imaging, and can help determine the appropriate course of action in terms of further diagnostic testing or treatment.

Answer 387

D. Pre-eclampsia Given the onset of high blood pressure during week 10 of her first pregnancy, the presence of protein in her urinalysis, and her low haemoglobin levels, pre-eclampsia is the most likely cause of her hypertension. This condition occurs commonly in pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and sometimes low levels of red blood cells. It is a serious condition that requires medical attention and monitoring to prevent complications for both the mother and baby. Chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, and renal artery stenosis are all possible causes of hypertension, but are unlikely given her clinical presentation and history. Essential hypertension without a prior history of hypertension is also unlikely in this case.

Answer 388

A) Abruptio placentae

Answer 389

1) Give IG

Answer 390

2) CTG. When a pregnant woman who is at term presents with reduced fetal movements, it is important to check the fetal well-being to ensure fetal safety. The most appropriate initial step in this scenario is to perform a CTG (Cardiotocographic) monitoring to assess fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. CTG can detect fetal hypoxia or distress and provide immediate feedback on fetal well-being. If the CTG is reassuring, it is safe to discharge the patient if fetal movements are felt and further observation is necessary. However, if the CTG is non-reassuring, further evaluation and management are required.

Answer 391

D) Call the police to arrest him and take over.

Answer 392

b. Infection Infection is the most common early complication of hemorrhagic pancreatitis. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis is a severe form of acute pancreatitis that can develop due to pancreatic necrosis and bleeding. Infection can arise due to the compromised integrity of the pancreatic tissue, resulting in the spread of infection to other parts of the body. Pseudocysts, obstructive jaundice, pancreatic fistula, and renal failure are all potential complications of pancreatitis, but are not as common or likely to occur as early as infection.

Answer 393

d. breast abscess

Answer 394

Based on the information provided and the search results, the most appropriate course of action for the mother requesting a medical certificate for her son with URTI for the past 3 days would be: A) Give a medical certificate for carer Providing a medical certificate for carer would allow the mother to take time off work to care for her son without specifying the exact nature of the illness . This option is often recommended for minor illnesses or conditions that do not require a specific diagnosis or treatment . It is important to note that the specific requirements for medical certificates may vary depending on the employer and the jurisdiction, and it is important to consult with the employer or a healthcare provider for guidance on the appropriate course of action

Answer 395

C. Retained placenta The sudden drop in blood pressure, profuse bleeding, and clotting problems suggests that the patient may have experienced a retained placenta after delivery. Retained placenta occurs when part or all of the placenta remains in the uterus after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding and other complications. This can be a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention, such as manual removal of the placenta or surgical evacuation of the uterus. Anaphylaxis to an anesthetic medication, amniotic fluid embolism, uterine inversion, and extended tear to the uterosacral ligament are all potential complications after delivery but are less likely in this scenario given the patient's history and clinical presentation.

Answer 396

b. Epididymo-orchitis The most likely diagnosis in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis, which is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epididymis and testes. A distinguishing feature of this condition is the presence of swelling and redness in the penis itself, which often occurs due to inflammation spreading from the epididymis and testicles to the penis. Torsion of testes would cause sudden and severe pain, with one testis appearing higher than the other. Strangulated incarcerated hernia would typically cause a painless swelling in the inguinal area. Hydrocele would cause fluid accumulation in the scrotum but not necessarily lead to redness and swelling of the penis. Idiopathic scrotal edema is uncommon and would be a diagnosis of exclusion.