Telegram Group Recalls Flashcards
Ewing’s Sarcoma
“sunburst” periosteal reaction of the distal fibular Diaphysis
Anterior Shoulder Dislocation
Inferomedial subcoracoid displacement of the humeral head
Axillary view is diagnostic and shows Hill-Sachs and Bankhurt lesions
Gout
Large Erosions with overhanging margins of the great toe MTP joint
Dense Periarticular swelling
Sparing of the Joint space
Treatment of EBV (in scenario here the patient with tonsillar exudates, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly)?
A. Oral Acyclovir
B. Oral Antibiotic
C. IM or Acyclovir
D. Supportive
D. Supportive
Patient with coloured pustules around his mouth, organism show herpes simplex type 1. What is the treatment?
A. Oral Antiviral
B. IV antiviral
C. Supportive
A. Oral Antiviral
The patient’s clinical presentation and positive organism finding suggest an HSV-1 infection (herpes simplex virus type 1), which can cause oral herpes or cold sores around the mouth.
Oral antivirals are the mainstay of treatment for HSV-1 infections. Medications such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir can be used to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms, promote healing of the sores, and prevent recurrence. These medications can be taken orally at home, so no hospitalization or IV antiviral is necessary in most cases.
Child with radial head discolouration. What is the next management?
A. Reduction
B. Xray
C. MRI
B. Xray
In cervical LNS there are well differentiated thyroid cells, during operation you find no lesion on thyroid what will you do next?
A. Total Thyroidectomy
B. Total Thyroidectomy + radical cervical LNS dissection
C. Total Thyroidectomy + specific LNS dissection
D. Thyroid Lobectomy
C. Total Thyroidectomy + specific LNS dissection
Irritable Bowel syndrome, rapid intestinal transit produce which symptom?
A. Vomiting
B. Diarrhea
C. Constipation
D. Abdominal Pain
B. Diarrhea
This is because the faster movement of stool through the intestines can result in loose or watery stools, which is characteristic of diarrhea
Free fluid accumulate in abdominal cavity cause?
A. Hypovolemic Shock
B. Cardiogenic Shock
C. Sepsis
D. Emesis
C. Sepsis
The accumulation of free fluid in the abdominal cavity, also known as ascites, can be a sign of several medical conditions. The most common cause of ascites is liver cirrhosis; however, when there is no obvious underlying cause, further diagnostic tests are necessary to identify the underlying condition.
Sepsis can lead to increased permeability of the blood vessels, allowing fluid to leak into the abdominal cavity. It’s important to note that other conditions, such as liver disease or heart failure, can also cause fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity
Female had history of severe depressiin, many episodes she got her remission for three months with Paroxitine (SSRIs) now she is pregannt. What is your advise?
A. Stop SSRIs because it cause fetal malformation
B. Stop SSRIs because it cause premature labor
C. Continue SSRI and monitor her depression
C. Continue SSRI and monitor her depression
Mid clavicle fracture
A. Surgery is always indicated if fracture is displaced
B. Figure * dressing ha better outcomes than simple sling
C. Figure * dressing is strongly indicated in patient with union risk
D. Both Figure 8 and simple sling has similar outcomes
D. Both Figure 8 and simple sling has similar outcomes
Pediatric patient came to you in the ER wheezing, dyspnea, muscle retractions (most probably asthma) What is the best to give initially?
A. Theophylline
B. Albuterol Nebulizers
C. Oral steroids
B. Albuterol Nebulizers
The initial management of acute asthma exacerbations in children typically involves the rapid administration of short-acting β2-agonists like albuterol, delivered via a nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler. This is often combined with systemic corticosteroids, but the bronchodilator is usually administered first to quickly relieve bronchoconstriction.
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. It is the first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbations in children, and it can be administered through a nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler
Male came to you complaining of sudden progressive loss of vision of the Left eye last 2 to 3 days, also pain on the same eye, on Fundoscopy optic disk swelling was seen. What is the Diagnosis?
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal vein Occlusion
C. Optic Neuritis
D. Macular Degeneration
C. Optic Neuritis
The symptoms of sudden, progressive vision loss and pain in the eye, along with the finding of a swollen optic disc on fundoscopy, are most consistent with optic neuritis. This condition often presents with these symptoms and is typically unilateral, affecting one eye at a time
Common symptoms of optic neuritis include pain with eye movement and temporary vision loss in one eye
. The exact cause of optic neuritis is unknown, but it is believed to develop when the immune system mistakenly targets the substance covering the optic nerve, resulting in inflammation and damage to the myelin.
4yo child what can he do?
A. Copy square and triangle
B. Speak Sentences
B. Speak Sentences
A man present with painless ulcer in his penis with indurate base and everted edge so diagnosis is
A. Syphilis
B. gonorrhea
C. Choncroid
D. HSV
A. Syphilis
female complain of painless odorless and colorless vaginal discharge that appears after intercourse so ttt
A. Give antibiotic
B. Douche after intercourse
C. Cervical Cancer
D. Maybe due to chronic Salphingitis
D. Maybe due to chronic Salphingitis
Female patient is 4 weeks postpartum, not smoker diagnosed to have asthma. Her asthma was not controlled she attended ER 3 times last month, on Beta agonist and oral steroid, She came c/o wheezing and sob mildly cyanosed using her intercostal muscles, and wheezy chest.
BP 160/100 PR: 120 PO2: 72 PEF: 36
There is swelling edema in her foot up to the knee, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. COPD
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C. Acute Asthma Attack
D. Angioedema
C. Acute Asthma Attack
Epidemic disease in poor sanitation areas affecting children and young adults: What is most likely?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
A. Hepatitis A
19yo after bike accident, he can’t bring the spoon in front of himself to eat, the lesion is in
A. Temporal Lobe
B. Cerebellum
C. Parietal Lobe
D. Occipital Lobe
C. Parietal Lobe
Patient came after RTA, GCS 14 near complete amputation of the arm. What is the first step?
A. Secure Air way
B. Tourniquet in the arm
C. Debridement of the arm
C. Antibiotic
A. Secure Air way
Sildenafil is contraindicated with?
A. Nitrate
B. Methyldopa
C. Gabapentine
A. Nitrate
Patient with TB, had ocular toxicity symptoms, the drug responsible is?
A. INH
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
B. Ethambutol
It can cause optic neuritis, leading to symptoms such as blurred vision, decreased visual acuity, and loss of red-green color vision.
Ethambutol is a first-line medication used in the treatment of tuberculosis, and it has been associated with ocular toxicity since its introduction in the 1960s. Ocular toxicity due to ethambutol usually develops after two months of therapy and is related to the dose
Most common intra-abdominal abdominal tumor in children?
A. Wilm’s Tumor
B. Lymphoma
C. Appendix Tumour
D. Colon Tumor
Neuroblastoma then Wilm’s tumor
Wilm’s tumor, also known as nephroblastoma, is the most common intra-abdominal tumor in children. It is a tumor that arises from the kidney and mostly occurs in children between the ages of 3 and 4 years.
Wilm’s tumor is generally considered a highly responsive cancer to multi-modal therapy and is associated with a favorable prognosis. Surgical removal of the affected kidney, along with chemotherapy and radiation therapy, is the standard treatment approach for the majority of Wilm’s tumor cases.
What is the most common cause of death in marfan’s Syndrome?
Aortic Root Aneurysm Rupture or Dissection
Regarding COPD to reduce complication we should give
A. Theophylline
B. Pneumococcal Vaccine
C. Smoking Cessation
C. Smoking Cessation
term neonate 9 days on breast feeding develop jaundice, what type?
A. Breastfeed Jaundice
B. Pathological Jaundice
C. Physiological Jaundice
D. Prolonged Jaundice
A. Breastfeed Jaundice
30 yo patient c/o feeling heaviness in the lower abdomen, having buldge palpable int he scrotum that was reducible and increasing in Valsalva maneuver. What is the diagnosis?
A. Hydrocele
B. VAricocoele
C. Indirect Inguinal Hernia
D. Direct inguinal Hernia
C. Indirect Inguinal Hernia
They develop when a portion of the intestine or other abdominal tissue protrudes through the inguinal canal, which is a passageway from the abdomen to the genitals.. In males, the hernia can extend into the scrotum, resulting in a palpable bulge.. The bulge is typically reducible, meaning it can be pushed back into the abdomen. The bulge may become more prominent during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, straining, or the Valsalva maneuver
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70 yo man c/o fever, vesicular rash over the forehead. What is the management?
A. IV antibiotics
B. IV antiviral
C. Acyclovir
D. Monitoring
C. Acyclovir or Antivirals
The presence of a vesicular rash, along with the location on the forehead, suggests a possible diagnosis of herpes zoster, also known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which remains dormant in the body after a previous infection with chickenpox. Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir, are effective in reducing the severity and duration of symptoms when initiated within 72 hours of symptom onset.
Acyclovir, which is an antiviral medication, is commonly used in the treatment of this condition
RTA with hip dislocation and shock. What is the cause of shock?
A. Blood loss
B. Urethral Injury
C. Neurogenic
D. Vasovagal
A. Blood loss
Twins one male and other female. his father notice that the female become puberty before male so what can you say to the father?
A. Female enter puberty 1-2 year before male
B. Female enter puberty 2-3 years before male
C. Femae enter puberty at the same age male
A. Female enter puberty 1-2 year before male
In developing countries to prevent dental carries. It is added to water?
A. Fluoride
B. Zinc
C. Copper
D. Iodide
A. Fluoride
A female after a vaginal hysterectomy complains of urine coming from the vagina what is the diagnosis?
A. Vesicovaginal Fistula
B. Urethrovaginal fistula
C. Ureterovaginal fistula
A. Vesicovaginal Fistula
It is an abnormal connection between the bladder and vagina, resulting in continuous urine leakage through the vagina, and can occur after a hysterectomy
Lactating women presented with breast engorgement and tenderness. What is your management?
A. Warm compress and continue breastfeeding
B. Dicloxacillin and continue breastfeeding
C. Dicloxacillin and milk expression
D. Discontinue breastfeeding and cold compress
A. Warm compress and continue breastfeeding
50yo male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knee and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest Xray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and Pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. The Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. TB
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Berylliosis
E. Malignancy
B. Sarcoidosis
The symptoms of fever, malaise, joint pain, raised ESR, bilateral hilar adenopathy, and pulmonary infiltrates, especially in the upper and mid zones, are characteristic of sarcoidosis.
A 54yo man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been present for the past 9 years. Numerous investigations and review by a variety of specialties. have indicated no organic basis for his symptoms. This is an example of :
A. Munchausen’s syndrome
B. Hypochondrial disorder
C. Dissociative Disorder
D. Somatisation Disorder
E. Conversion Disorder
D. Somatisation Disorder
Somatization disorder is a type of somatic symptom disorder characterized by multiple, recurrent, and medically unexplained physical symptoms that cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning
A 37 yo primigravida woman presented 30 weeks gestation with a 4 month history of pruritic pustules on her torso, arms and legs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Atopic eruption of pregnancy
B. Disseminated herpes
C. Pemphigoid Gestationis
D. Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy
E. Secondary Syphilis
C. Pemphigoid Gestationis
Pemphigoid Gestationis, also known as gestational pemphigoid, is a rare autoimmune skin disorder that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by the formation of pruritic pustules or itchy blisters on the skin, particularly the abdomen, arms, and legs.
The condition develops when the body produces antibodies against its skin cells that can cause inflammation and blistering. Pemphigoid Gestationis typically develops in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, but can also occur immediately after childbirth. It is treated with topical and/or systemic corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and control symptoms.
A 25 yo man presented to the outpatient clinic with a 1-month history of pain and swelling in the scrotum and low-grade fevers. On examination, there was swelling and tenderness of the right side of the scrotum. Laboratory studies showed peripheral eosinophilia. An ultrasound of the scrotum showed echogenic, linear structures moving within the lymphatic channels (arrowhead) adjacent to the epididymal head and testis (asterisk) - a finding known as “filarial” dance sign”. What vector is responsible for transmitting the nematode causing this disease?
A. Aquatic snail
B. Blackfly
C. Mosquito
D. Sandfly
E. Tsetse fly
C. Mosquito
Lymphatic filariasis, caused by infection with nematodes of the family Filariodidea, is transmitted to humans through mosquito bites. Mosquitoes of various genera, including Culex, Anopheles, Aedes, Mansonia, and Coquillettidia, can serve as vectors for filariasis, depending on the geographical location. The nematodes invade the skin through mosquito bites and then travel to the lymphatic system, where they form nests and multiply.
A 58 yo man with coronary artery disease presented to the Emergency Department with a 1 day history of intermittent chest pain at rest. An ECG was obtained on arrival, at which time the patient reported no chest pain. Which of the following is the most likely site of the culprit lesion?
A. Right Coronary Artery
B. Left Circumflex Artery
C. Left Coronary Artery
D. Posterior Descending Artery
E. Left Anterior Descending Artery
E. Left Anterior Descending Artery
The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is the most common site of the culprit lesion in cases of acute coronary syndrome. It supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle, the interventricular septum, and the apex. The blockage of LAD can lead to a significant reduction in coronary blood flow, resulting in myocardial ischemia or infarction.
In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms of intermittent chest pain at rest, combined with coronary artery disease, increase the likelihood of acute coronary syndrome. The ECG obtained on arrival can help identify any changes in the heart’s electrical activity and suggest the site of the coronary artery lesion.
ECG - Wellen’s Syndrome - biphasic or deep precordial T wave inversions particularly in leads V2 and V3.
A 35 yo woman with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension and a pulmonary aneurysm presented with Chest pain. Computed Tomography of the chest is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aortic Dissection
B. Aortic pseudoaneurysm
C. Intramural Hematoma
D. Pulmonary artery dissection
E. Pulmonary Artery Rupture
D. Pulmonary artery dissection
19yo woman presented with a 6 month history of a slowly growing asymptomatic dark spot on her palm. Examination was notable for nonscaling, nonpalpable brown patch (left). Dermatoscopy revealed pigmented spicules, and palmar skin scrapings were prepared (right). What is the most likely diagnsosis?
A. Acral Lentiginous melanoma
B. Lichen planus
C. Secondary Syphilis
D. Tinea nigra
E. TInea versicolor
A. Acral Lentiginous melanoma
The clinical and dermoscopic findings of a slow-growing, asymptomatic, dark spot with pigmented spicules on the palm, along with non-scaling, non-palpable brown patch, are highly suspicious for Acral Lentiginous melanoma (ALM), which is a distinct subtype of melanoma.
ALM is a rare but aggressive melanoma subtype that typically occurs on the palms, soles, or nail beds. It is characterized by the presence of pigmented spicules on the dermoscopy exam and is commonly misdiagnosed, leading to delays in diagnosis and treatment.
other answered D
An 8 month old girl presented with strabismus and developmental delay. On examination, she was noted to have macrocephaly, intermittent exotropia in the left eye and hypotonia. Fundoscopic exam results are shown in the image, MRI of the brain revealed inadequate myelination diffusely and a thin corpus callosum. What is the diagnosis?
A. Myotonic Dystrophy
B. Pompe disease
C. Prader-Willi Syndrome
D. Spinal Muscular Atrophy
E. Tay Sach-s Disease
E. Tay Sach-s Disease
Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that results from the deficiency of an essential enzyme called hexosaminidase A. As a result, there is an accumulation of a substance called GM2-ganglioside in the nervous system, leading to the widespread destruction of neurons.
The clinical features of the disease can depend on the age of onset and the severity of the condition. In the infantile form of Tay-Sachs disease, symptoms typically appear between 3 and 6 months of age and usually include deficits in motor function, developmental delays, and progressive microcephaly. Fundus examination may reveal a cherry-red spot. The cherry red spot of the macula is a characteristic finding of this disease, caused by abnormally whitened, lipid-laden neurons surrounding and accentuating the color of the fovea.
A 37yo old man presented to the ED with a 1-week history of pain and swelling in the left upper arm that had started after blunt trauma during soccer practice. The heart rate was 120 beats per minute, the blood pressure is 96/54 mmHg, and the body temperature was 37.9 C. Examination of the left upper arm was notable for swelling, tenderness, and crepitus. the overlying skin was red and warm to the touch. An initial radiography is shown, which of the following factors is most associated with increased mortality in this diagnosis?
A. Delay in surgical intervention > 24 hrs
B. Involvement of the upper extremity
C. Negative Blood Cultures
D. Patient < 60 years
E. Presence of Erythema
A. Delay in surgical intervention > 24 hrs
A 17 yo girl with systemic lupus erythematosus presented to the opthalmology clinic with a 2 day history of decreased vision in her right eye and a 6 month history of intermittent headaches. She stopped treatment with methylprednisolone and hydroxychloroquine 2 years ago. Examination of the fundus of the right eye is as shown. What is the diagnosis?
A. Antiphospholipid Syndrome
B. Retinal Toxoplamosis
C. Lupus Retinal Vasculitis
D. Susac’s syndrome
E. Hydroxychloroquine Induced maculopathy
A. Antiphospholipid Syndrome
A 2yo old boy is brought into the emergency room with complaint of fever for 6 days and the development of the limp. On examination, he is found to have an eythematous macular exanthema over his body as shown in th eimage. Bilateral conjunctivitis, dry and crackled lips, a red throat and cervical lymphadenopathy. There is grade 2/6 Vibratory ejection murmur at the lwoer left sternal border. WBCs and differential show predominant neutrophils with increased platelets. He later developed desquamation of skin of palms and sole around the finger tips with edema.
What is your diagnosis? Give your diagnostic criteria and how will you manage this case?
Kawasaki Diseease
Kawasaki disease, a condition that primarily affects children and involves inflammation in the walls of medium-sized arteries throughout the body. The diagnostic criteria include fever for 5 or more days, plus at least 4 of the following: rash, conjunctivitis, changes in the lips or oral cavity, changes in the extremities, and cervical lymphadenopathy, a red throat, and a strawberry tongue.
Laboratory findings may include an elevated white blood cell count with predominant neutrophils and increased platelets, as well as positive urine analysis for proteinuria and RBC cast.
- Management typically involves high-dose aspirin and intravenous immunoglobulin to reduce inflammation and prevent coronary artery abnormalities
Pregnant woman, 32 weeks, has contact with a child with chicken pox and comes to you because she is worried. She had been checked before pregnancy and IgG for varicella was negative. What do you do?
A. Check IgG now
B. Give Immunoglobulin
C. Give oral Acyclovir
D. Give Oral Famciclovir
A. Check IgG now or IgG?
Yes, giving immunoglobulin straight away (B) is also an option for prophylaxis in pregnant women who are not immune to varicella and have been exposed to the virus. The decision to give immunoglobulin or check IgG status depends on the timing of the exposure and the availability of the IgG assay. If the exposure occurred within the past 96 hours, VZIG or immunoglobulin should be given immediately. If the exposure occurred more than 96 hours ago, checking IgG status is appropriate. If the IgG assay is negative, prophylaxis with VZIG or immunoglobulin should be given.
The pregnant woman should be tested for varicella IgG to determine her immune status as a preliminary step towards management. If IgG is positive, the woman is immune to varicella and does not require any further action. If IgG is negative, then the woman is susceptible to varicella and should be closely monitored for any signs of the disease.
If the woman develops chickenpox during pregnancy, she should be referred for further management and treatment as appropriate depending on the stage of her pregnancy.
50 years old eating peanuts, suddenly presented SOB and collapsed. On auscultation, stridor and wheezes present. What do you do next?
A. O2 with nasal prong
B. O2 with face mask
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Nebulization with Salbutamol
B. O2 with face mask
The patient’s symptoms suggest a severe allergic reaction, possibly anaphylaxis, which can cause airway swelling and difficulty breathing. Immediate treatment should include administration of oxygen. However, the most critical initial treatment is the administration of intramuscular epinephrine. Nebulization with Salbutamol can be considered as it helps to relieve bronchospasm, a common feature in anaphylaxis. It’s important to note that this is a medical emergency and the patient should be closely monitored and further treated based on response and clinical guidelines
Old woman has come to the ED with severe epigastric pain 10/10 which occurred 20 minutes after dinner. She says pain is constant and doesn’t radiate anywhere. On exam her pulse is 110 and BP is 74/50. She feels cold and clammy. Abdominal exam reveals no tenderness but marked rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. pancreatitits
B. Perforated Duodenal Ulcer
C. Pancreatic Pesudocyst
D. Burst Appendic
E. , Mesenteric ISchaemia
B. Perforated Duodenal Ulcer
The sudden onset of severe epigastric pain, which occurred shortly after dinner, suggests an acute upper gastrointestinal event, such as a perforated peptic ulcer.
The presence of marked rigidity on abdominal examination may indicate peritonitis, which can occur as a result of a perforated ulcer. Additionally, the patient’s vital signs are concerning for hypovolemic shock.
Often located in the epigastric region and may be constant and not radiate anywhere
A case of dysphagia. Barium swallow showing diffuse esophageal spasm. What is long-term management?
A. Nifedipine
B. Laparoscopic Cardiomyotomy
C. Botulinum Toxin
D. Beta Blockers
E. Conservative
E. Conservative
Which of the following is the least described as primary prevention?
A. Reduce Incidence
B. Improve lifestyle
C. Giving vaccination
D. Reduce Prevalence
E. Identify the predisposing factors early
D. Reduce Prevalence
Primary prevention aims to prevent the development of disease in healthy individuals by addressing risk factors and promoting healthy behavior. It includes measures such as providing education to promote healthy lifestyles, vaccination, and early identification of risk factors.
Reducing prevalence (Option D) is a measure of secondary prevention that focuses on reducing the impact of the disease once it has occurred. It involves early diagnosis and prompt treatment to slow the progression of the disease and prevent complications.
Reducing incidence (Option A) is a primary prevention measure that aims to reduce the number of new cases of a disease. It may involve measures such as vaccination, education, and behavior change.
Improving lifestyle (Option B) is a primary prevention measure that focuses on promoting healthy behaviors that can help prevent the development of diseases. Lifestyle changes such as diet modification, exercise, and smoking cessation can help reduce the risk of developing many chronic diseases.
Giving vaccination (Option C) is a primary prevention measure that protects individuals from developing infectious diseases such as measles, mumps, rubella, and influenza.
Identifying predisposing factors early (Option E) is a primary prevention measure that aims to identify individuals who may be at risk of developing a disease based on their genetics, family history, or other risk factors. Early identification can help individuals take steps to prevent the development of the disease or manage it more effectively if it does occur.
A young boy is brought to you in a rural ER. The Neurosurgery unit is 1 hour away. Earlier today he was hit during football where he lost consciousness and fell to the ground. A few minutes he regained his consciousness and walked out of the field. His family brought him to you complaining that he has developed a headache after the incident. His GCS is 10/15. What is the next plan for him?
A. Do a CT Scan
B. Transfer to neurosurgery unit
C. Hyperventilation and Mannitol Infusion
D. Burr Hole
E. craniectomy
A. Do a CT Scan
The patient has a significant head injury with loss of consciousness followed by headache, indicating the need for further evaluation for traumatic brain injury. A computed tomography (CT) scan is the initial diagnostic imaging test of choice for suspected head injury as it can quickly identify the presence of a life-threatening or treatable injury.
A 28 yo man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of pain in his left shoulder. He is physically active and plays baseball twice a week. The pain is reproduced when the shoulder is externally rotated against resistance. Injury of which of the following tendons is most likely in this patient?
A. Teres Major
B. Pectoralis Major
C. Supraspinatus
D. Infrsspinatus
E. Subscapularis
Infraspinatus
The infraspinatus muscle is one of the rotator cuff muscles that is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, and it is commonly injured in overhead athletes such as baseball players
The Supraspinatus muscle is involved in the initial 15 degrees of arm elevation, while the Infraspinatus muscle is primarily responsible for external rotation of the shoulder. Given that the patient’s pain is reproduced when the shoulder is externally rotated against resistance, it is more likely to be an injury to the Infraspinatus tendon rather than the Supraspinatus tendon.
While the supraspinatus tendon (C) is the most frequently injured tendon of the rotator cuff, it is less likely in this case as the pain is reproduced with external rotation against resistance, which is more indicative of an infraspinatus injury
An otherwise healthy 45 yo woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of an itchy rash on her left nipple. The rash began as small vesicles on the nipple and spread to the areola. It has become a painful ulcer with a yellow, watery discharge that is occasionally blood-tinged. She has asthma treated with theophylline and inhaled salbutamol. Her younger sister was diagnosed with endometrial cancer a year ago. Examination shows a weeping, ulcerated lesion involving the entire left nipple-areolar complex. There are no breast masses, dimpling or axillary lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. inflammatory Breast Cancer
B. mastitis
C. Breast ABscess
D. Breast Fibroadenoma
E. Paget’s disease of the breast
E. Paget’s disease of the breast
This condition often presents as a rash on the nipple and areola, which can progress to ulceration and discharge. It can be misdiagnosed as eczema or dermatitis, but the persistence of symptoms and lack of response to topical treatments should raise suspicion for Paget’s disease. It is often associated with an underlying in situ or invasive breast carcinoma
Paget’s disease of the breast is a rare form of breast cancer that affects the nipple and areola and typically presents with symptoms such as itching, redness, flaky or scaly skin on the nipple, and a yellow or bloody discharge
. The disease may start as a small lesion on the nipple and spread to the areola and other areas of the breast.
Inflammatory breast cancer (A), mastitis (B), breast abscess (C), and breast fibroadenoma (D) are less likely diagnoses in this case, as they do not typically present with the characteristic symptoms of Paget’s disease of the breast.
Known hypertension presented with muscle weakness K. 6.5 What could be the cause?
A. Enalapril
B. Amiloride
C. Simvastatin
D. Thiazide
E. Amlodipine
B. Amiloride.
Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and reduces the loss of potassium in the urine. This medication is often used in the treatment of hypertension and edema.
However, amiloride can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) in some patients, particularly those with impaired renal function or those taking other medications that increase potassium levels.
Enalapril (Option A) and Amlodipine (Option E) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia.
Simvastatin (Option C) is a cholesterol-lowering medication and is not expected to cause muscle weakness or hyperkalemia.
Thiazide diuretics (Option D) may cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) but not hyperkalemia.
8 month old boy is brought due to fever and decreased appetite. Patient awake only 2 hours today, most of that time he was crying. Appears sleepy and has a high pitched cry when roused. Anterior fontanelle is bulging. What is the next step?
A. Ct Scan of the head
B. Dexamethasone therapy
C. Lumbar puncture
C. Lumbar puncture.
The presence of fever, decreased appetite, excessive crying, sleepiness, and bulging anterior fontanelle in this 8-month-old infant can be suggestive of meningitis. Therefore, performing a lumbar puncture is necessary to diagnose or rule out meningitis.
Middle-aged presented to the ER with a complaint of seizure, diagnosed as a case of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. He has a history of stroke and hypertension and takes warfarin and other drugs. What will be your best drug of choice for him?
A. Amiodarone
B. Sodium Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenytoin
E. Topiramate
B. Sodium Valproate
Sodium valproate is a broad-spectrum anticonvulsant medication with efficacy against generalized tonic-clonic seizures. It is also often used for patients with a history of stroke or cardiovascular disease, as it does not have significant cardiovascular effects or interact with warfarin metabolism.
Cardio patient with polypharma presented with repeated syncope, ECG strip was given and asked about combination responsible about that.
A. Amlodipine + Amiodarone
B. Furosemide + amiodarone
C. Aspirin + Amiodarone
D., Furosemide + Amlodipine
A. Amlodipine + Amiodarone.
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension, whereas Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. Both medications have the potential to cause hypotension or bradycardia, which can lead to syncope in susceptible individuals.
Furosemide (Option B and D) is a diuretic used to treat congestive heart failure, whereas aspirin (Option C) is an antiplatelet medication used to treat and prevent heart attacks and strokes. Although these medications can cause side effects, they are generally not associated with syncope.
53 yo man comes due to persistent fatigue. Started a therapeutic dose of fluoxetine 2 months ago after being diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Medical history includes hypertension treated with Enalapril. 4kg weight gain over the past 2 months. Appears depressed and speaks softly. What is the next step?
A. Continue Fluoxetine and Add methylphenidate
B. Discontinue Fluoxetine and begin Ibupropion
A. Continue Fluoxetine and Add methylphenidate.
The patient is presenting with persistent fatigue, weight gain, and depression, which can be symptoms of major depressive disorder. As he has already been diagnosed with major depressive disorder and has been receiving fluoxetine therapy for 2 months, the first step would be to continue Fluoxetine and add methylphenidate to manage his fatigue.
Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy, but it can also be useful in managing fatigue and cognitive dysfunction associated with depression.
Discontinuing fluoxetine (Option B) is not recommended since depression is a chronic condition that requires appropriate maintenance therapy. Discontinuing fluoxetine may result in relapse of depressive symptoms and cause more harm.
Ibuprofen (Option B) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used for pain relief and is not effective in managing depressive symptoms associated with major depressive disorder.
30 yo man comes to the physician because of a painful swollen knee for the past several weeks. He had several episodes of painful urination before the onset of his knee pain. Physical examination shows an edematous knee and bilateral conjunctivitis with mucopurulent discharge.
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Osteochondritis Dessicans
D. Pigmented Vilonodular tenosynovitis
E. Gout
E. Gout
Previous episodes of painful urination, and bilateral conjunctivitis with mucopurulent discharge is much more suggestive of gout, as these are classic features associated with acute gouty arthritis.
A scenario of hoarding disorder. The wife brings his husband to the GP complaining she can’t use her kitchen and toilet as her husband brings and collects rubbish. These symptoms are from past 20 years. When his wife aks about collection of rubbish he replies nothing is waste. It might be useful one day. Underlying cause of the behaviour?
A. Social avoidant
B.. Childhood sexual abuse
Neither social avoidance nor childhood sexual abuse is directly linked to HD as a cause.
Genetics play a role.
A homosexual man asking for Pre-exposure prophylaxis. HIV test negative.
A. Daily tenofovir and Emtricitabine
B. Tenofovir and Emtricitabine after exposure
C. Tenofovir and Emtricitabine before high-risk exposure
D. Do Hiv Test
A. Daily tenofovir and Emtricitabine
Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is a medication that people at risk of HIV take to prevent getting HIV from sex or injection drug use. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are two antiretroviral medications that are used for PrEP and have been shown to be highly effective in preventing HIV when taken as prescribed
4yo old boy was brought by his mom because of jaundice of eyes and intermittent pallor with normal WBC, and platelet. Only anemia is present with HB 80 mg/dL. And there is a respiratory viral infection. patient with marked pallor and splenomegaly. What is the most appropriate management?
A. BT
B. oral Iron
C. Splenectomy
D. Folic Acid and Vitamin B12
A. BT
The pregnant lady at 39 weeks presents with painless bleeding of 1000 ml fetal Hr 155. Mother’s heart rate is 100. Cervix dilated and 5cm effaced, no contractions of the uterus which of the option will help to assist in the diagnosis?
A. no contractions
B. Fetal HR
C. mother HR
B. Fetal HR
A 4 yo boy was brought by his mom because of jaundice of the eyes and intermittent pallor with normal WBC and platelet. Only anemia is present with HB 80 mg/DL. There is a respiratory viral infection. patient with marked pallor and splenomegaly. What is the most appropriate management?
A. BT
B. Oral Iron
C. Splenectomy
C. Folic acid and Vitamin B12
A. BT
Each of the following is characteristic of adult rheumatoid arthritis. Except:
A. Morning stiffness of joints
B. Soft tissue swellings
C. HErberden’s Nodes
D. Subcutaneous nodules at pressure points
E. Symmetrical Joint involvement
A patient with Warfarin came with rectal bleeding his INR became 9 .
A. Give Vitamin K
B. Give FFP
C. Cease Warfarin
C. Cease Warfarin
85yo lady has multiple episode of seizure but not full seizure symptoms close to the temporal lobe epilepsy, blinking of eyes and lips. She doesn’t give response that time. Didn’t mention about the duration of episode. What to do next?
A. urine R/E
B. EMG
C. Blood Sugar
D. CT head
D) CT Head.
Temporal lobe epilepsy is a seizure disorder characterized by recurrent seizures that originate from the temporal lobe of the brain, and blinking of eyes and lips can be one of the common symptoms of partial seizures.
CT head or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain is the preferred first-line diagnostic imaging modality to evaluate for structural lesions in the brain, such as tumors, infarctions, hematomas, or cysts, which are some of the most common causes of focal seizures. These imaging modalities can also provide detailed information on the size, location, and characteristics of the lesion that could aid in further management.
Urine R/E (Option A), or urine routine and microscopic examination, is used to diagnose various renal and urinary tract infections, but it is not the most appropriate investigation for this patient’s presenting symptoms of episodic blinking of eyes and unresponsiveness.
EMG (Option B), or electromyography, is a diagnostic tool used to diagnose muscular or peripheral neuropathic disorders and would not be helpful in diagnosing temporal lobe epilepsy.
Blood sugar (Option C) can be an essential parameter to measure when investigating for seizures; however, it is less likely to cause this kind of presentation, so should not be the first test requested.
Best preventer to give in a 4 yo, asthma relieved by Salbutamol. What to do next?
A. Fluticasone
B. Sodium Cromoglycate
C. LABA
D. Montelukast
A) Fluticasone.
Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that is the first-line preventer therapy for asthma in children and adults, as it is effective in reducing inflammation in the airways and preventing asthma symptoms in the long term.
Sodium cromoglycate (Option B) is a mast cell stabilizer that can be used as a preventive therapy for children with mild-to-moderate asthma, but it is less effective than inhaled corticosteroids and may not be suitable for all patients. It is typically used as an alternative to inhaled corticosteroids in those with mild intermittent asthma and can be combined with a short-acting bronchodilator, such as salbutamol.
LABA (Option C), or long-acting beta-agonists, are usually not recommended initially as monotherapy but can be added to inhaled corticosteroids to control asthma symptoms in those with moderate-to-severe disease. Therefore, LABA is not the initial preventer option for this child.
Montelukast (Option D) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that can be used as an alternative or addition to inhaled corticosteroids to prevent asthma symptoms, particularly in those with mild-to-moderate persistent asthma. However, the effectiveness of montelukast as a monotherapy is limited and it is not the most effective option for most people with asthma.
45 yo presents with bloody discharge from the nipple. On examination, when the nipple was squeezed blood was expressed from only the one duct. What is the most appropriate diagnostic tool?
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammogram
D. Ductogram
E. Cytology of Discharge
D. Ductogram
A ductogram is a specialized imaging test that involves injecting a contrast agent into the affected duct and then taking X-rays to visualize the ductal system.
This test can help identify the location and extent of the lesion causing the nipple discharge and can also help guide further diagnostic and therapeutic intervention
45 yo presents with bloody discharge from the nipple. On examination, when the nipple was squeezed blood was expressed from only the one duct. What is the most appropriate diagnostic tool?
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammogram
D. Ductogram
E. Cytology of Discharge
D. Ductogram
A ductogram is a specialized imaging test that involves injecting a contrast agent into the affected duct and then taking X-rays to visualize the ductal system.
This test can help identify the location and extent of the lesion causing the nipple discharge and can also help guide further diagnostic and therapeutic intervention
Nurse told you that she has relation with the expatient in the psychiatry ward. What is the appropriate action?
A. Ask the nurse to leave the relationship immediately
B. Take note for your future references
C. Inform the Ahphra
D. Inform the Senior Medical
You are a GP and your next patient is 58 yo lady, Christiana with a history of breast cancer coming with complaints of neck pain and unusual sensation in her hands. She had chemotherapy two weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
A. Cervical Spondylosis
B. Disc Prolapse
C. Metastasis
D. Chemo Side effect
Nurse told you that she has relation with the expatient in the psychiatry ward. What is the appropriate action?
A. Ask the nurse to leave the relationship immediately
B. Take note for your future references
C. Inform the Ahphra
D. Inform the Senior Medical
D. Inform the Senior Medical
You are a GP and your next patient is 58 yo lady, Christiana with a history of breast cancer coming with complaints of neck pain and unusual sensation in her hands. She had chemotherapy two weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
A. Cervical Spondylosis
B. Disc Prolapse
C. Metastasis
D. Chemo Side effect
D. Chemo Side effect
The diagnosis is likely D. Chemo Side effect. The symptoms described, such as neck pain and unusual sensations in the hands, could be due to chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN). This is a common side effect of chemotherapy, affecting about 30 to 40 percent of patients, and can cause symptoms like tingling, numbness, and pain
50 yo man with Acute Retention of urine for 2 hours and inability to defecate for 2 days. O/E temperature 37.8 suprapubic mass. DRE enlarged with excruciating tenderness asking how to relieve retention.
A. SPA
B. Indwelling Urethral catheter
C. Urgent Prostatectomy
B. Indwelling Urethral catheter
The immediate treatment for acute urinary retention (AUR) is bladder decompression using urethral or suprapubic catheterization. An indwelling urethral catheter (Option B) is commonly used. However, it’s important to note that surgical treatment carries a higher rate of morbidity and mortality in men presenting with
AUR, and urgent prostatic surgery after AUR are associated with greater morbidity and mortality than delayed prostatectomy (Option C). Therefore, Option B, an indwelling urethral catheter, is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient.
Acute urinary retention is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to relieve the bladder and prevent complications such as bladder damage, kidney damage, and sepsis
. Indwelling urethral catheterization is the most common and effective method of relieving acute urinary retention
. The catheter is inserted through the urethra into the bladder to drain the urine and relieve the pressure on the bladder
ECG of RBBB patient was on Antihypertensive, diabetes and now had drowsiness for last 5/6 days. What to do next?
A. Atropine
B. Pacemaker
C. Cease Antihypertensive
C. Cease Antihypertensive
A pregnant lady was assaulted by her husband. Has come to your practice. What will you do?
A. Document
B. Talk to the husband
C. Giver her safe shelter
D. Ask her to go for counselling
A. Document
A colleague posted about a patient on facebook saying an interesting case. What will you do?
A. Complain to the board
B. Complain to the supervisor
C. Do nothing
D. Talk to your collague
D. Talk to your colleague
62 yo man, 7 hours of epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, containing bile. Medications include Atorvastatin, Lisinopril, Metoprolol, Warfarin, Insulin Lispro, and Gl; arginine. X-ray shows a small amount of free air under the Right Diaphragm. What are the appropriate interventions?
A. Intravenous colloid infusion
B. Intravenous Desmopressin
C. Prothrombin Complex concentrate
An abdominal pelvic Ct scan shows left ureter nephrolithiasis. 2-3cm above the uteropelvic junction, no hydronephrosis. What are the treatment options?
A. Lithotripsy Laser
B. ESWL
C. PCNL
D> Basket extraction
A. Lithotripsy Laser: is a less invasive procedure that involves using a laser or ultrasound waves to break and remove the kidney stone. It is typically used for stones less than 2 cm in size.
B. ESWL (Extracorporeal Shockwave Lithotripsy): ESWL uses shock waves to break the stone into smaller pieces that can be passed out of the body naturally. It may be an option for small to medium-sized stones that are causing symptoms.
D. Basket extraction: This procedure is a minimally invasive technique to remove stones from the ureter or kidney. It involves using a small basket-like device to scoop out the stone.
A man with left knee joint pain and pain in the first 2nd metatarsal joint. Also, complaints of recent impotence. What is the diagnosis?
A. RA
B. Gout
C. Reactive Arthritis
A man with left knee joint pain and pain in the first 2nd metatarsal joint. Also, complaints of recent impotence. What is the diagnosis?
A. RA
B. Gout
C. Reactive Arthritis
The young girl found a hydatidiform mole and evacuated, D and C were done. Initially, higher B hCG levels after 3 weeks BHC normal 7 weeks after the first pregnancy coming with B HCG of 900. What is the cause of the new presentation?
A. Current pregnancy
B. Ectopic
The young girl found a hydatidiform mole and evacuated, D and C were done. Initially, higher B hCG levels after 3 weeks BHC normal 7 weeks after the first pregnancy coming with B HCG of 900. What is the cause of the new presentation?
A. Current pregnancy
B. Ectopic
Current pregnancy: A new pregnancy could be the cause of the elevated B hCG levels. However, it is important to rule out other possible causes, such as persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN), which can occur after a hydatidiform mole
Persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN): GTN is a rare complication that can occur after a hydatidiform mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated B hCG levels and can lead to invasive mole or choriocarcinoma if left untreated
In summary, the possible cause of the new presentation of B hCG of 900 seven weeks after the first pregnancy with a hydatidiform mole and D&C could be a current pregnancy or persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)
Patient irritable, whispering voice not allowing to examine throat, presented in ED. What’s next?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Jaw thrust and head tilt position
C. Oropharyngeal Intubation
B. Jaw thrust and head tilt position
The patient’s symptoms and behavior suggest agitation, which can be caused by various underlying medical or psychiatric conditions
The initial approach should focus on ensuring the patient’s safety and addressing any potential life-threatening conditions
.
The jaw thrust and head tilt position can be used to open the patient’s airway and ensure proper breathing
This maneuver can be performed by gently lifting the patient’s jaw forward while maintaining the head in a neutral position
It is important to maintain a calm and non-confrontational approach when dealing with an agitated patient to minimize the risk of escalation
A child with 3 days history of malaise. Fever, coryza, and conjunctivitis develop maculopapular rash and pinpoint white lesion on buccal mucosa. Which if the following likely cause?
A. Varicella
B. Herpes
C. Rubella
D. Rubeola
E. Parvovirus
D. Rubeola
Rubeola (Measles) is a highly contagious viral infection that is characterized by fever, coryza, conjunctivitis, and a maculopapular rash that starts on the head and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities
The rash is typically preceded by a prodrome of malaise, fever, and other symptoms, which can last for several days. Koplik spots, which are pinpoint white lesions on the buccal mucosa, are a classic feature of rubeola and can help differentiate it from other viral infections
Other possible causes of a maculopapular rash in children include rubella, parvovirus, and other viral and bacterial infections
10 yo boy who has a recent onset of enuresis. The doctor calls his parents for assessment. they have been separated for 3 months. In the interview, the father tells you that he intends to hide his assets from his ex-wife during the divorce. What should you do?
A. inform the mother
B. Do nothing
C. Inform the registrar at the family court
D. tell the father it is because of him that the boy was affected
5yo child recurrent upper respiratory tract disease with diarrheal (chronic not severe) Hemoglobin decreased.
A. Celiac
B. Cystic Fibrosis
Previously healthy 25 yo female has acute loss of vision. She woke up with pain in the eye and a reduction in Acuity and perception of dark and light. Delays seeing the doctor for 1 week then acuity improves. The physician identifies slurred speech and poor rapid alternating movement. Ocular dysmetria present eeg normal.
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Progressive Multi of cal Leuko Encephalopathy
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Post Ictal State
E. Meningococcal Meningitis
A. Multiple Sclerosis
9yo child with plantar flexed ankle and always abducted lower limb., Wide base gait. What is likely the cause?
A. B12
B. Freidrich Ataxia
C. Charcot Marie tooth
C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth
Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease is a group of inherited disorders that affect the peripheral nerves, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy, as well as sensory loss in the limbs
CMT can cause foot deformities, including pes cavus (high arches), pes planus (flat feet), and hindfoot valgus (outward turning of the heel)
Plantar flexed ankle, always abducted lower limb, and wide base gait can be indicative of foot deformities associated with CMT
Post appendectomy day 7. Comes with diarrheal abdominal pain. Rectum empty. What is the diagnosis?
A. Resolving paralytic ileus
B. C deficit Colitis
A. Resolving paralytic ileus
Paralytic ileus is a condition characterized by the temporary paralysis or decreased function of the intestines, leading to a disruption in normal bowel movements. It can occur as a result of surgery, including appendectomy
After surgery, the intestines may temporarily slow down or stop functioning properly, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea
The empty rectum suggests that there is a delay in the passage of stool through the intestines, which is consistent with paralytic ileus
Paralytic ileus is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves on its own within a few days to a week after surgery
2 day history of Diarrheal Blood and mucous with Abdominal pain
A. C. jejuni
B. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
C. G. Lamblia
D. Norvovirus
E. Cryptosporidium Parvum
Low albumin and globulin with a recurrent chest infection. What is the cause?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Celiac Disease
C. Immunodeficiency
D. Multiple Myeloma
C. Immunodeficiency
Parotid gland swelling CT shows superficial lobe involvement only. No facial nerve palsy what is the most appropriate next step?
A. FNAC
B. USS
C. Total PArotidectomy
D. Superficial Parotidectomy
A. FNAC
A 60 yo male presented with chest pain, STEMI on ECG. The time to reach the nearest tertiary care coronary unit is 4 hours, what’s the initial management?
A. tPA
B. Aspirin and Clopidogrel
C. Transfer patient for PCI
D. Streptokinaxd
E. Heparin
C. Transfer patient for PCI
A 45 yo man who had hip replacement surgery 2 weeks ago presents with sudden onset chest pain and SOB. Spo2 89% on room air, 100/75 bp, temp 37.3 , HR 113. What is the most appropriate next step in the management?
A. CTPA
B. VQ Scan
C. ECG
D. Chest Xray
D. Dimers
A. CTPA
The patient is confused and dizzy lab investigation, Creatinine 0.19, sodium a little high, K 5.7, bicarbonate high, urea high. How will you treat the patient?
A. Normal Saline
B. Insulin and Glucose
C. hemodialysis
C. hemodialysis
The given lab investigations suggest that the patient is suffering from acute kidney injury (AKI) with hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and respiratory failure
The initial management of hyperkalemia includes the administration of medications such as insulin, glucose, calcium, and sodium bicarbonate to stabilize the patient’s condition
However, in severe cases of hyperkalemia with AKI, hemodialysis is the most effective and rapid method of removing excess potassium from the body and correcting the underlying cause of the condition
Hemodialysis can also help correct other electrolyte imbalances and remove uremic toxins from the body, which can improve the patient’s overall condition
Patient with meningitis, neck stiffness, What is the next investigation?
A. Blood culture
B. CT
C. Lumbar Puncture
C. Lumbar Puncture
A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a medical procedure in which a needle is inserted into the spinal canal to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic testing
Lumbar puncture is commonly used to help diagnose diseases of the central nervous system, including the brain and spine, such as meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage
.
In this case, the patient’s symptoms of confusion and dizziness, along with the abnormal lab findings, may suggest the possibility of an underlying neurological condition that requires further evaluation through a lumbar puncture
The analysis of CSF obtained from a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information about the presence of infectious, inflammatory, or neoplastic diseases affecting the central nervous system
Lumbar puncture can also be used therapeutically in some conditions, such as the
65yo man is on hypertensive treatment and has a history of MI 3 months ago. Now, all the examinations are normal. Except. for a soft-blowing precordial murmur at the left sternal border. ECG shows ventricular ectopic. What to do?
A. Cease Metoprolol
B. Cease Metoprolol and Add Verapamil
C. Add Warfarin
B. Cease Metoprolol and Add Verapamil.
The soft-blowing precordial murmur at the left sternal border suggests aortic stenosis, which may be causing ventricular ectopics in the patient. Metoprolol should be ceased as it is contraindicated in aortic stenosis. Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can be added as it is better tolerated with aortic stenosis and can also help to manage the ventricular ectopics. Warfarin is not indicated at this time.
5 days post partum mother, uneventful delivery with a small laceration. Which did not need suturing, complete placenta, normal vital, no fever, reports of decreasing lochia, the past few days then came in with light, bright red vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping. What’s causing this?
A. Retained products of conception
B. Infected Lacerated wound
C. Endometritis
D. Vaginal trauma
E. cervical Laceration
A. Retained products of conception
. Retained products of conception is the most likely cause of light, bright red vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping in a 5-day postpartum mother. Despite the fact that there was a complete placenta delivery and no need for suturing, there still might be a possibility that some placental tissue remains in the uterus that could be causing postpartum bleeding. As the lochia has been decreasing for the past few days, the sudden onset of bleeding suggests retained products of conception. It is recommended to do an ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis and appropriate treatment should be given accordingly.
64 years old woman complaint of generalized malaise ass: with progressing fatigue and persistent thirst for some duration. Her blood chemical results are: Na+ (normal), K+ (normal), HCO3- (normal), Chloride (normal), Total Ca+ - 2.65 (2.1 - 2.55) lonized Ca+ 1.38 (1.1 - 1.35) What invx?
A- 24hrs urinary calcium
B- Glucose tolerance test
C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay
D- Bone scan
E- Serum angiotensin converting enzyme
C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay
Serum parathyroid hormone assay. The patient’s laboratory findings indicate hypercalcemia, which can be caused by several conditions, including hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, sarcoidosis, among others. A serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) assay can help determine if primary hyperparathyroidism is the cause of hypercalcemia.
Girl with epilepsy her medicines changed to Na valproate and lamotrigine she had H/o of UTI and amoxicillin 6 weeks. Now she developed maculopapular rash fever 38 what’s the cause?
AAmoxicillin
B.Lamotrigine
C.5epticemia
D.Valproate
B.Lamotrigine
Lamotrigine is known to cause rashes as a side effect, and this can range from mild to severe. In some cases, the rash can be a sign of a more serious condition, such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. The fact that the girl recently started taking lamotrigine and developed a rash and fever suggests that this could be a drug reaction.
The development of a maculopapular rash and fever after starting treatment with lamotrigine is a known adverse drug reaction, which may indicate an allergic reaction or Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The recent history of UTI and amoxicillin use was several weeks ago, so it is less likely to be the cause of the current presentation. Valproate is not typically associated with a maculopapular rash. Sepsis may cause a fever and rash, but Lamotrigine-induced rash should be considered first.
A 65yo man with DMZ comes with a painless ulcer on plantar side of left foot. What could be the cause?
- Diabetic neuropathy
- Vascular thrombosis
- Diabetic neuropathy
Diabetic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes that affects the nerves in the feet and legs. It can cause a loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel pain or discomfort. This can lead to the development of foot ulcers, which can become infected and lead to serious complications. Other contributing factors to foot ulcerations in diabetic patients include peripheral vascular disease, biomechanical structural deformities, and soft tissue changes
35-year-old gravida 1 para 0, at 35 wks gestation is evaluated for fever & chills. Admitted 3 days ago for acute pyelonephritis. Tenderness over the right flank. The cervix is 1 cm dilated & 25% effaced; irregular contractions & amniotic membranes intact, Next step?
alAmniocentesis and amniotic fluid culture
b/ Emergency cesarean delivery
c/ Renal ultrasound
c/ Renal ultrasound
The patient’s current symptoms of flank pain, fever, and chills combined with a history of acute pyelonephritis suggest a possible renal abscess, which can be diagnosed through a renal ultrasound. An abscess should be suspected in patients with ongoing symptoms or clinical deterioration despite appropriate antibiotic therapy for pyelonephritis. Therefore, a renal ultrasound is the next appropriate step in this situation.
A 30yo man comes for elective cholecystectomy. He has no comorbidity and uses no drugs. What’s the best option?
1) start LMWH for 34 days
2) there’s no need for anticoagulants
2) there’s no need for anticoagulants
In a healthy patient, without any specific risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)/pulmonary embolism (PE) undergoing an elective cholecystectomy, the risks of anticoagulation (such as bleeding) will likely outweigh the benefits. Therefore, there’s generally no need for anticoagulants unless the patient has additional risk for thrombotic events.
A man with left knee joint pain and pain in first 2nd metatarsal joint. Also complaints of recent impotence. Dx?
A. RA
B. Gout
C. Reactive Arthritis
B. Gout
Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. The joints most commonly affected by gout are the big toe, ankle, and knee, but it can also affect other joints, including those in the foot. The presence of pain in the first and second metatarsal joint, along with knee joint pain, is consistent with gout.
Gout is caused by the build-up of uric acid crystals inside the joints. It typically affects one joint at a time, often the big toe, but could also affect other joints. Its symptoms may also include redness, swelling, and severe pain that comes on suddenly, often at night. An episode of gout usually resolves within 1-2 weeks with treatment and can show elevated uric acid levels in the blood.
Reactive arthritis, on the other hand, is typically caused by an infection in another part of the body (genital, urinary, or gastrointestinal system). It usually manifests as joint pain and swelling (often in the lower extremities), but may also involve the eyes (conjunctivitis or uveitis), skin (rash or ulcers), and urogenital tract (urethritis, cervicitis). This condition usually occurs within 1-4 weeks after the infection and is often self-limiting. It doesn’t commonly involve the big toe or the metatarsals, like gout tends to.
A patient with a fracture forearm reduction by Ed consultant, history taken by intern and surgery arranged by surgical resident. Who has to most duty to take consent from the patient?
A. consultant
B. intern
C. resident
D. Registrar who’s doing the surgery
D. Registrar who’s doing the surgery
Venlafaxin for 3 years comes with confusion and agitation. What is the Cause?
- Electrolyte disturbance
2.Ift deranged - Brain pathology
d.ecg
Electrolyte disturbance.
Electrolyte disturbances, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) or hypernatremia (high sodium levels), can occur as a side effect of venlafaxine use. These imbalances can lead to neurological symptoms, including confusion and agitation
It is important to monitor electrolyte levels regularly in individuals taking venlafaxine, especially if they are experiencing new symptoms.
While it is possible that other factors, such as drug interactions or underlying brain pathology, could contribute to the symptoms, the given information does not provide enough evidence to support those causes. Electrolyte disturbance is a known side effect of venlafaxine and should be considered as a potential cause in this case.
Recurrent vaginal candida infection patient presented with white © curd like discharge and pruritis . What to do next?
a) Vaginal swab
b) Fluconazole
¢) Glucose tolerance test
d) HIV antibody test
ej cease ocp
a) Vaginal swab
pt with infectious mononucleosis for one wk what next?
A. Acyclovir
B. Prednisclone
C. antibiotic
D. No treatment
D. No treatment
No treatment is required for infectious mononucleosis as it is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which does not respond to antiviral medications such as Acyclovir. Antibiotics are also not effective against viral infections. Prednisolone may provide some symptom relief but is not necessary for all patients. The primary treatment for infectious mononucleosis is supportive care and management of symptoms.
10 wk pregnant woman was diagnosed previously with
hereditary prothrombin g2021A gene +ve, She has previous hic
DVT. What will u give her regarding her anti-thrombolytic therapy?
1) warfarin through out the pregnancy
2)Therapeutic LMWH now & upto & wks postpartum
3)Mo anticoagulant needed
AHeparin only after delivery
5) prophylactic LMWH now & upto 6wks postpartum
5) prophylactic LMWH now & upto 6wks postpartum
Prophylactic LMWH now and up to 6 weeks postpartum is also a recommended treatment for pregnant women with a history of DVT and hereditary prothrombin G20210A gene mutation. This option is considered in cases where the individual has no ongoing additional risk factors for thrombosis. However, if the individual has a high risk of recurrent DVT or there are additional risk factors, option 2) therapeutic LMWH now and up to 6 weeks postpartum may be preferred.
Unsafe immunizations include antigens from live attenuated
organisms:
A. MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) Polio
B. Yellow fever
C. Varicella
ALL
Patient presented with upper abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. Ultrasound revealed thickened wall of the gall bladder and gallbladder stones. You commenced antibiotics but condition got worse with sign of peritonitis. What to do?
A. Cholecstostomy
B. ERCP
C. Cholecystectomy
D. Whipples
C. Cholecystectomy
what is the COles fracture complication?
Malunion: When the broken bones do not heal in the correct position leading to deformity and limited function.
- Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Pressure on the median nerve, which crosses the wrist can result in carpal tunnel syndrome, causing tingling, numbness, or weakness in the hand.
- Complex Regional Pain Syndrome: It is a rare but serious complication and characterized by severe pain, swelling, and changes in the skin and nails of the affected limb.
- Arthritis: A Colles fracture may lead to arthritis, which can cause pain, swelling, stiffness, and limited mobility in the wrist joint.
- Tendon injuries: Tendons connecting the muscles to the bones, as well as the ligaments that surround the wrist joint, may be damaged due to the fracture, leading to decreased strength and mobility.
- Infection: Although rare, a Colles fracture can result in infection if there is an open wound or a break in the skin.
A 54-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been present for the past 9 years. Numerous investigations and review by a variety of specialties have indicated no organic basis for his symptoms. This is an example of:
A.Munchausen’s syndrome
B. Hypochondrial disorder
C. Dissociative disorder
D. Somatisation disorder
E. Conversion disorder
D. Somatisation disorder
D. Somatization disorder (also known as somatic symptom disorder) is a condition in which an individual experiences a variety of unexplained physical symptoms for an extended period of time, typically several years or more, for which no organic basis can be found despite extensive medical investigations. These symptoms can include chronic pain, gastrointestinal distress, fatigue, and neurological complaints. Patients with this disorder may become preoccupied with their symptoms and may seek medical attention repeatedly, possibly from multiple providers in multiple settings.
Hypochondrial disorder involves excessive preoccupation with the fear of having a serious medical illness despite medical evaluation and reassurance to the contrary.
Dissociative disorders and conversion disorders are dissociative states that can cause physical manifestations and neurological symptoms, but they are usually of a more sudden onset and have identifiable triggers.
Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare disorder in which an individual deliberately falsifies symptoms or causes self-harm in order to gain attention or sympathy from medical professionals.
50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. TB
B. SARCOIDOSIS
C. ASBESTOSIS
D.BERYLLIOSIS
E.MALIGNANCY
B. SARCOIDOSIS
Based on the provided information and the search results, the most likely diagnosis for the 50-year-old male with fever, malaise, pain in the knees and ankles, raised ESR, and findings of bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones on chest x-ray is B. Sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by the formation of granulomas in various organs, most commonly the lungs and lymph nodes
. It can present with a wide range of symptoms, including fever, fatigue, joint pain, and respiratory symptoms. The raised ESR and the findings of bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray are consistent with sarcoidosis
Berylliosis, also known as chronic beryllium disease (CBD), is a granulomatous disease caused by exposure to beryllium. Symptoms of berylliosis include cough, fever, night sweats, and fatigue. A definitive diagnosis of berylliosis is based on occupational history, positive blood or bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT), and granulomatous inflammation on lung biopsy. While the symptoms and findings of the 50-year-old male are consistent with berylliosis, the provided search results do not mention any history of beryllium exposure or any other specific features that would suggest berylliosis as the most likely diagnosis.
In contrast, sarcoidosis is a more common condition that can present with similar symptoms and findings, including fever, joint pain, raised ESR, and bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray
4
. The negative Mantoux test also makes TB less likely as a diagnosis. However, a definitive diagnosis of sarcoidosis requires further evaluation, such as a biopsy of affected tissues, to confirm the presence of non-caseating granulomas. It is important to note that a definitive diagnosis for the 50-year-old male cannot be made without further evaluation and consultation with a healthcare professional.
A 63-year-old Aboriginal Australian with an ulcer on the foot is admitted to the hospital for one week. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus 2nd hypertension. The foot ulcer is one centimeter deep and is not healing after debridement and dressings. The wound continued to have a yellow-colored discharge. What will you do next?
a. Ask the podiatrist to review
b. Oral amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
c. MRI
d. Intravenous ticarcillin/clavulanic acid
e. Continue wound dressing
a. Ask the podiatrist to review.
This patient has a diabetic foot ulcer that requires specialized care from a podiatrist. It is important to involve a podiatrist early in the management of diabetic foot ulcers to facilitate healing and prevent complications. The yellow-colored discharge may indicate infection, which would require treatment with antibiotics. The podiatrist can assess the wound and determine if antibiotic therapy is needed, as well as provide recommendations for wound dressings and offloading to promote healing. MRI or intravenous antibiotics may be used in more severe cases, but this is not indicated at this point in the management of this patient.
A podiatrist is a medical professional who specializes in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of foot and ankle conditions. They are trained to manage a wide range of foot and ankle problems, including diabetic foot ulcers, ingrown toenails, plantar fasciitis, and fractures. Podiatrists may use medical, surgical, and orthotic interventions to treat their patients, depending on the specific case. They may also provide advice on footwear, foot hygiene, and foot-related exercises. The goal of podiatric care is to help patients maintain healthy feet and ankles, alleviate pain and discomfort, and improve mobility and quality of life.
60 years male presented with chest pain on ECG STEMI time to reach the nearest tertiary care hospital is 4 hours What will be your initial management
A. TPA
B aspirin and clopidegrol
C Transfer the patient for PCI
D Heparin
B aspirin and clopidogrel
The initial management for a patient with STEMI when the time to reach the nearest tertiary care hospital is 4 hours would be to administer aspirin and clopidogrel to inhibit platelet aggregation and prevent further clot formation. If PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes, thrombolytic therapy (TPA) should be considered. However, the decision between these options should be individualized based on the patient’s risk factors and contraindications
Aspirin and clopidogrel antiplatelet therapy is indicated as the initial management for a patient with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) while they are awaiting transfer to a tertiary care hospital for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The benefit of administering thrombolytic therapy, like TPA, diminishes significantly after 3-4 hours of symptom onset and therefore, the patient is not an ideal candidate for TPA, given the time taken to reach the hospital. Heparin can be initiated upon arrival at the tertiary care hospital. Transfer for PCI as soon as possible is also necessary to reduce the damage done to the myocardium. However, administration of aspirin and clopidogrel within the first hour of presentation can improve survival rates and help prevent further clotting and occlusion of the coronary artery until PCI can be performed.
In the given scenario, aspirin and clopidogrel antiplatelet therapy is recommended as the initial management while the patient is being transferred to a tertiary care hospital for PCI, and heparin can be initiated upon arrival at the hospital.
Regarding the use of TPA (A), it can be considered as a treatment option for patients with STEMI who arrive within 3 to 4.5 hours of symptom onset, especially in cases where timely transfer for PCI is not possible. However, in this case, the patient has taken 4 hours to reach the tertiary care hospital, which is beyond the recommended time limit for administration of TPA.
Regarding transfer for PCI (C), it is a definitive treatment for STEMI and is necessary for the patient, as it helps restore blood flow to the heart and minimizes damage to the myocardium. However, as the patient is currently presenting with chest pain and is not stable for transfer, antiplatelet therapy is the initial step in management until the patient can be transferred to the hospital.
Therefore, the initial management for this patient with STEMI presenting after 4 hours from symptom onset would be B. aspirin and clopidogrel.
Primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion therapy for patients with STEMI if it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact. However, if this time frame is not possible, then fibrinolytic therapy is preferred for those without contraindications. Therefore, the patient should be transferred to the nearest tertiary care hospital with the capability to perform primary PCI as soon as possible. In the meantime, the patient should receive aspirin and clopidogrel and heparin to reduce the risk of further thrombotic events. Morphine sulfate can be given for chest discomfort refractory to nitrates and other anti-ischemic therapies
It is important to note that the management of STEMI is time-sensitive, and delays in reperfusion therapy can lead to worse outcomes
a 33-year-old woman presents with weight loss and
excessive sweating. Her partner reports that she is on edge all the time and during the consultation, you notice a fine tremor. Her pulse rate is 96 beats per minute. A large non-tender goiter is noted. Examination of her eyes is unremarkable with no evidence of exophthalmos.
Labs show elevated T4 and T3. TSH is low what is the most likely diagnosis
A toxic multinodular goitre
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C T3 secreting adenoma
D de quervain’s thyroiditis
A toxic multinodular goitre
T3-secreting adenoma is a type of thyroid nodular disease marked by a solitary thyroid nodule that produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormone in the form of T3. This can lead to the development of hyperthyroidism, which is characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, tremor, sweating, palpitations, and anxiety. Patients with T3-secreting adenomas will typically have a low TSH level, an elevated T3 level, and a mildly elevated T4 level. Due to the significantly elevated T3 levels, serum T3 forms the main diagnostic laboratory test for T3-secreting adenomas.
Toxic multinodular goitre is a type of thyroid nodular disease marked by the presence of multiple nodules within the thyroid gland that become overactive and produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormone. Patients with toxic multinodular goitre will present with a large goitre and symptoms of hyperthyroidism such as weight loss, tremors, sweating, palpitations, and anxiety. They may also present with features of Graves’ disease such as exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, and thyroid acropachy. Patients with toxic multinodular goitre will typically have a low TSH level and an elevated T3 and T4 level. There may be a greater increase in T4 relative to T3 in toxic multinodular goitre when compared to T3-secreting adenomas. T3 levels are usually elevated, but not to the degree seen in T3-secreting adenomas.
In summary, while both conditions can lead to hyperthyroidism, T3-secreting adenomas involve a solitary thyroid nodule that overproduces T3, leading to elevated T3 levels and only mild elevation of T4 levels. In contrast, toxic multinodular goitre involves the presence of multiple nodules that overproduce both thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to a significant elevation of both hormones in the blood. Serum T3 levels are usually elevated but not to the degree seen in T3-secreting adenomas.
You are correct, my previous response made an assumption about multiple nodules based on the terminology of toxic multinodular goitre. However, given that the case only mentions a large non-tender goitre without specifying multiple nodules, it would indeed be more appropriate to consider this as a solitary thyroid nodule rather than toxic multinodular goitre.
With a solitary thyroid nodule and a low TSH level along with elevated T4 and T3 levels, the most likely diagnosis in this case would be a T3-secreting adenoma rather than toxic multinodular goitre. T3-secreting adenoma is characterized by the presence of a single autonomous nodule that produces excessive amounts of T3.
I apologize for the earlier confusion and any misinformation caused by my previous responses. Based on the information provided in the case, a T3-secreting adenoma is the more likely diagnosis.
How about the Hashimoto and the De Quevain, what are the differences?
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that leads to chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland. Over time, the inflammation can lead to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue and a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. The clinical manifestations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis include fatigue, weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance, as well as depression and poor memory. Physical examination typically reveals a diffusely enlarged goitre that feels firm or rubbery to the touch. Laboratory findings in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis reveal elevated levels of serum TSH and decreased levels of serum T4 and T3. Patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis will typically have thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and thyroglobulin (TG) antibodies present in their serum.
De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a self-limiting viral infection that affects the thyroid gland. It is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms such as thyroid pain, swelling, tenderness, fever, and malaise. The thyroid gland may be diffusely enlarged and tender, and the patient may experience pain in the neck and jaw area that may worsen with swallowing. Laboratory findings in de Quervain’s thyroiditis reveal a temporary increase in serum T4 and T3 levels. In addition, patients may have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) levels may be elevated.
In summary, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that leads to chronic inflammation and hypothyroidism, while de Quervain’s thyroiditis is a self-limiting viral infection that causes transient thyroid gland inflammation and transient hyperthyroidism. While both diseases may be associated with enlarged thyroid glands and neck pain, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis causes destruction of thyroid tissue and leads to hypothyroidism, while de Quervain’s thyroiditis is usually self-limited and characterized by transient episodes of hyperthyroidism.
Patient with active RA on methotrexate, feels tired and lethargic. The lab results show the following: Hb 9 - MCH low normal -Serum Iron Decreased - 5. Ferritin normal - TIBC decreased. What is a treatment of choice?
- Packed RBC
- Iv iron
- Low dose CTs
- Erythropoietin injection
- Folic Acid
- Folic Acid
Based on the given information and the search results, the treatment of choice for the 33-year-old woman with active RA on methotrexate, who feels tired and lethargic, and has low hemoglobin, low normal MCH, decreased serum iron, and decreased TIBC, is option 5: Folic Acid.
Folic acid supplementation is recommended for patients with RA who are taking methotrexate, as methotrexate can interfere with folate metabolism and lead to anemia. Folic acid supplementation has been shown to reduce the incidence of methotrexate-induced anemia and improve hemoglobin levels. Therefore, folic acid supplementation should be initiated in this patient to address the anemia. Other treatment options, such as packed RBC, IV iron, low dose CTs, and erythropoietin injection, may be considered in severe cases of anemia, but are not the initial treatment of choice
Folate supplements can help improve anemia, fatigue, and other adverse effects associated with methotrexate treatment.
Methotrexate works by inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which can lead to folate deficiency.
A 30 yr female with breast 3mm regular lump painful inferiorly hyperechoic..cause ?
Afibroadenoma
B.breast cyst
C.breast ca
B.breast cyst
You are correct that fibroadenomas are typically painless, and the given information suggests that the lump is painful. Therefore, based on the given information and the search results, the most likely cause of the 3mm regular lump that is painful inferiorly and hyperechoic in a 30-year-old female is option B: breast cyst.
Breast cysts are a common cause of breast lumps in women between 35 and 50 years of age, and are characterized by a well-defined, round or oval, anechoic structure with a thin wall. Breast cysts can be painful, and tenderness may increase before menstruation
On ultrasound, fibroadenomas can appear as a well-circumscribed solid mass with variable echogenicity. Therefore, fibroadenoma is a possibility (option A), but other clinical features can help to differentiate between fibroadenoma and breast cysts. In the given scenario, the fact that the lump is painful and inferiorly located, along with a hyperechoic appearance on ultrasound favors the diagnosis of a breast cyst (Option B).
Breast cysts are fluid-filled sacs that can cause a palpable mass or lump, and they are typically non-cancerous. The cyst may be painful or tender, especially if it is located near the surface of the breast. Hyperechoic appearance on ultrasound is also a common finding with breast cysts. Fibroadenomas (Option A) are another common benign breast lump, but they are usually not painful and may have a different appearance on ultrasound. Breast cancer (Option C) is less likely in a young patient with a small, painful, and diffuse lump,
Lady with multiple small joint pain ANA +, ENA +, anti CCP neg,anti-ds dna positive and anti ro positive dx?
A. RA
B. Sle
C.5jogren
D. Mixed connective tissue disorder
B. Sle
SLE is often associated with positive ANA, anti-dsDNA, and ENA tests. Sjögren’s Syndrome is typically associated with positive ANA and anti-Ro tests.
The presence of positive ANA and ENA along with anti-dsDNA and anti-Ro antibodies is suggestive of SLE. A negative anti-CCP result would argue against Rheumatoid Arthritis (option A). Sjogren’s Syndrome (Option C) is another autoimmune disorder that can cause joint pain in addition to dry eyes and mouth, but the presented lab results are not entirely consistent with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no mention of dry eyes or mouth in the case description. Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder (Option D) is also a possibility since it overlaps with features of SLE, scleroderma, and polymyositis/dermatomyositis, but more information and additional tests would be needed to make an accurate diagnosis.
64 years old woman complaint of generalized malaise ass: with progressing fatigue and persistent thirst for some duration. Her blood chemical results are: Na+ (normal), K+ (normal), HCO3- (normal), Chloride (normal), Total Ca+ - 2.65 (2.1 - 2.55) lionized Ca+
1.38 (1.1 - 1.35) What inv?
A- 24hrs urinary calcium
B- Glucose tolerance test
C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay
D- Bone scan
E- Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme
C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay
Given the patient’s clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most appropriate investigation would be option C- Serum parathyroid hormone assay. The results show that the patient’s total calcium and ionized calcium levels are both elevated, which can be suggestive of hyperparathyroidism. The parathyroid hormone (PTH) assay can measure the levels of PTH in the blood, which can help to confirm the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. A high serum PTH level in the presence of elevated calcium would confirm primary hyperparathyroidism as the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
This test can help determine if the patient has hyperparathyroidism, a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone, leading to elevated levels of calcium in the blood
Options A, B, D, and E are not typically indicated in the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. A 24-hour urinary calcium (Option A) may be ordered to help assess calcium excretion, but it is not a primary test for hyperparathyroidism. Glucose tolerance test (Option B) may be ordered to test for diabetes, but it is not relevant in this case. A bone scan (Option D) or a serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (Option E) may be helpful in diagnosing other conditions, such as osteoporosis or sarcoidosis, respectively, but would not be specific in diagnosing hyperparathyroidism.
Child with hereditary spherocytosis is pale and has multiple bruises. Blood test: HGE 7.8/ WC 2000/ platelets 70000. What’s the cause?
a) Pneumococcus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) RSV
d) Norwalk virus
e) Parvovirus
e) Parvovirus
38 yrs old woman, smoker, on POP fer 3 yrs. recently had tonic clonic seizure and was started on carbamazepine. Most appropriate advice on contraception?
A. Stop POP and use condoms
B. Stop carbamazepine
C. Double the dose of POP
A. Stop POP and use condoms
Yes, I’m sure. Doubling the dose of the progestin-only pill (POP) is not recommended because carbamazepine, an enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drug, can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives like POPs. Even with higher doses, contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed due to the drug interaction
A. Stop POP and use condoms. Carbamazepine is known to interact with hormonal contraceptives and decrease their effectiveness. Therefore, it is recommended to stop using the POP and switch to a non-hormonal method of contraception such as condoms.
Diabetes ulcer on the foot pic. diabetic pt, non healing ulcer, pic 2 ulcers in medial malleclus, and foot pulses not pulpable. X ray already done. what to do for Mx?
A) blood culture
By white cell scan
C) swab from ulcer
D) VENOUS Doppler
E) MRI foot
D) VENOUS Doppler
Doppler ultrasound is considered the initial imaging modality to assess arterial and venous blood flow and to exclude peripheral arterial disease in patients with foot ulcers.
The non-healing ulcer in a diabetic patient with non-palpable foot pulses suggests the possibility of peripheral vascular disease. A venous Doppler can help to assess blood flow to the foot and the presence of any blockages in the veins. This information is crucial in determining the appropriate management plan for the patient, which may include treatment of the underlying vascular disease, debridement of the ulcer, antibiotic therapy, and offloading to reduce pressure on the foot.
Blood culture, white cell scan, and swab from ulcer may be indicated to help guide antibiotic therapy, but these tests do not provide information about vascular status. An MRI is not typically used as a first-line diagnostic test for non-healing foot ulcers.
Old man with congestive heart failure and hypothyroidism. On levothyroxine, digoxin, and other medications came with light headedness and palpitations. His HR was 140 regular. The ECG picture(SVWT) was given very close to the below one. Wt should you do:
1 Cease thyroxine (reduces tachycardia)
2. Stop digoxin (reduces tachycardia)
3. Decrease digoxin
4, Add metoprolol
5. Cease both drugs
4, Add metoprolol
70yo female OA with bilateral knee pain .PE mild swelling and warmth. X-ray shows moderate knee effusion .most appropriate management?
1.program of regular walking
2.program of rest n minimal walking
3.tai chi (air excercise)
4.swimming
5.graded resistant excercise
2.program of rest n minimal walking
Graded resistance exercise (option 5) is a reasonable management option for knee osteoarthritis, especially when the patient has mild symptoms and good function. Resistance training can help to improve muscle strength, joint stability, and overall function.
In the scenario provided, the patient has mild swelling and warmth, which suggests there may be active inflammation present, and as such, a period of rest and minimal walking is indicated to allow for the inflammation to settle before initiating graded resistance exercise.
Therefore, depending on the severity of the patient’s symptoms and their functional capacity, both options 2 (program of rest and minimal walking) and 5 (graded resistance exercise) could be considered as appropriate management strategies.
- Program of rest and minimal walking.
The patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of knee osteoarthritis, and rest along with the application of heat or cold therapy is usually the first line non-pharmacological management.
Rh negative mother with poor follow up in previous pregnancy now coming with titre 1:32. Next step?
1.check partners blood group,
2.give Rhogum now,
3.give rhogum at 24,
4.monitor ab tire levels
- Monitor antibody titer levels
An Rh-negative mother with Rh alloimmunization requires close monitoring throughout the pregnancy to ensure timely identification of any possible complications. A titre of 1:32 indicates that the mother’s immune system has produced antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells, which could cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) in the next pregnancy. However, the risk of HDN depends on several factors, including gestational age, titre levels, and other maternal and fetal factors.
Therefore, the next step would be to monitor the antibody titre levels throughout the pregnancy to assess the risk of HDN and determine the appropriate management. The exact frequency and timing of the titres will depend on the individual case and should be determined by a healthcare provider.
Checking the partner’s blood group (option 1) is important for determining the risk of Rh alloimmunization but is not necessary at this stage since the mother is already Rh negative.
Rhogam is not indicated at this point since it is a prophylactic medication given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh alloimmunization during and after pregnancy. It does not typically reduce the antibody titre that is already present in the mother’s bloodstream.
Patient on Alendronate for osteoporosis, had a motor vehicular accident. No pain or deficits initially but suddenly developed pain at the cervical area the next day. Limited ROM, unable to extend neck. What is the main indication for imaging?
- Osteoporosis
- Limited ROM
c
- Unable to extend neck
The sudden onset of neck pain, limited range of motion, and inability to extend the neck after a motor vehicular accident require further evaluation to rule out any serious injuries such as a cervical spine fracture. In this case, an imaging study, such as a cervical spine X-ray or CT scan, is indicated to assess for any fractures or other structural damage.
While the patient’s history of osteoporosis (option 1) is relevant and may increase the risk of a fracture, it is not the main indication for a radiologic examination in this scenario.
Similarly, limited range of motion (option 2) can be a symptom of a cervical spine injury, but it is not the main reason for imaging. The inability to extend the neck, on the other hand, is a red flag symptom that should prompt immediate imaging to rule out any serious cervical spine injury.
Prostate cancer T3 NOM1 Mets to lumbar vertebrae. Treatment?
A ADT
B Radical prostatectomy
C B/l orchidectomy
D- EBRT
A ADT
The T3 NOM1 classification in prostate cancer staging refers to the extent of the local (T) tumor and regional nodal (N) metastasis, as well as the presence of distant metastasis (M).
“T3” indicates that the prostate cancer has advanced beyond the outer layer of the prostate gland and may have extended into nearby tissues, such as the seminal vesicles.
“N0” indicates no regional lymph node involvement, while “M1” indicates the presence of distant metastasis, in this case, to the lumbar vertebrae.
Therefore, T3 NOM1 prostate cancer in the lumbar vertebrae indicates that the cancer has spread beyond the prostate gland and regional lymph nodes and has metastasized to the lumbar vertebrae, which are bones in the lower back. This is considered advanced stage prostate cancer with distant metastasis, which requires systemic therapy with both hormonal and radiation treatments.
If I were to choose only one treatment option for this patient, it would be A) ADT (Androgen Deprivation Therapy), which is typically the first-line treatment for metastatic prostate cancer and can help to reduce the size of the tumor and reduce symptoms such as bone pain.
However, it is important to note that combination therapy with both ADT and EBRT is considered the standard of care for patients with metastatic castration-sensitive prostate cancer like this patient. Therefore, if possible, a combination of ADT and EBRT should be considered to provide the best outcomes.
A) ADT (Androgen Deprivation Therapy) is typically the first-line treatment in patients with metastatic prostate cancer. It involves the use of medications that reduce or block the production of testosterone, which is the main hormone that drives the growth of prostate cancer.
D) EBRT (External Beam Radiation Therapy) can help to relieve pain and shrink tumors in the lumbar vertebrae in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.
Other treatment options mentioned in the search results include:
Radical prostatectomy (option 2): Radical prostatectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the prostate gland. However, in the case of metastatic prostate cancer involving the lumbar vertebrae, surgery may not be the primary treatment approach
B/l orchidectomy (option 3): Bilateral orchidectomy, or surgical removal of the testicles, is another method to reduce androgen levels in the body. However, it is less commonly performed compared to ADT with medications
Female with recurrent candidiasis. Clotrimazole vaginal cream failed controlling the symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step?
A)Oral Nystatin
B)Oral Grisofulvin
C)Oral Kotoconazole
D)Oral Fluconazole
E) Vaginal Nystatin
D) Oral Fluconazole
Fluconazole is an antifungal medication that is effective against candidiasis and is the recommended first-line treatment for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis. Oral fluconazole is usually given as a single-dose regimen and has been shown to have a high efficacy rate.
Oral Nystatin (option A) and Vaginal Nystatin (option E) are not usually recommended for vulvovaginal candidiasis as they are less effective than fluconazole, especially in cases of recurrent candidiasis.
Oral Grisofulvin (option B) is not a recommended treatment for candidiasis, as it is primarily indicated for the treatment of fungal infections of the skin and nails.
Oral Ketoconazole (option C) is an antifungal medication that can be effective against candidiasis, but it is no longer recommended as a first-line therapy for recurrent candidiasis due to its potential for serious liver toxicity.
Helen Jones is a 19 year-old secretary who presents with a one year history of painless post-coital bleeding. She takes a tri-sequential contraceptive pill. Clinical examination is normal except for a degree of cervical erosion. Her Pap smear is reported as “inflammatory “. The MOST APPROPRIATE management is:-
a) Repeat smear after treatment with triple-sulpha cream
b) Change OCP to a more oestrogenic balance
c) Reassure, but review in six months
d) Refer for colposcopy
e) Change OCP to a more progestogenic balance
d) Refer for colposcopy
Helen Jones’ symptoms and clinical examination suggest cervical ectropion, a benign condition where the soft cells lining the inside of the cervical canal spread to the outer surface of the cervix. This condition can cause symptoms such as painless post-coital bleeding and is common in women of reproductive age, especially those using estrogen-containing contraceptives like Helen. The Pap smear result of “inflammatory” is also consistent with this condition.
Colposcopy is a procedure that allows for a closer examination of the cervix, which can help identify any abnormalities and guide further management
Changing the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) to a more progestogenic balance (option E) is not supported by the available information. While hormonal imbalances can contribute to certain gynecological issues, such as irregular bleeding, it is important to first investigate the cause of post-coital bleeding before considering changes to contraceptive methods.
It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate management plan.
A 32years woman has had a febrile illness and swelling of the small joints of her hands, feet, wrists and knees for two days. She has a maculopapular rash and
a few palpable, small cervical lymph nodes. She was previously well. There is no history of relevant travel outside Australia. She has two young children. What is the SINGLE most likely dx?
a. Psoriasis
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Sarcoidosis
e. SLE
b. Reactive arthritis
Reactive arthritis, also known as Reiter’s syndrome, is a type of inflammatory arthritis that typically occurs following an infection, often involving the genitourinary or gastrointestinal tract.. It commonly presents with joint inflammation, especially in the lower extremities, along with other symptoms such as fever, rash, and swollen lymph nodes. The presence of a febrile illness, joint swelling, maculopapular rash, and palpable cervical lymph nodes align with the clinical features of reactive arthritis.. Additionally, there is no history of relevant travel outside Australia, which makes infectious causes less likely.
Multiple drug taking patient like arbs, thiazide, digoxin, aspirin etc. Lab investigation shows. Hypekalemia. Urea and creatinine level high. Tx?
- Iv gulcose
- Insulin and gulcose
- Emergency dialysis
- Emergency dialysis
Hyperkalemia is a medical emergency that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and requires prompt treatment. In this scenario, the patient has multiple risk factors for hyperkalemia, including the use of medications like ARBs, thiazide, and digoxin. The high urea and creatinine levels also suggest impaired kidney function, which can exacerbate hyperkalemia by reducing the kidney’s ability to excrete potassium.
In such a situation, emergency dialysis is the best option to remove excess potassium and improve kidney function. Dialysis can quickly and effectively remove potassium and other harmful substances from the bloodstream, alleviate symptoms, and prevent further complications.
IV glucose (option 1) and insulin and glucose (option 2) are useful adjuncts to manage hyperkalemia, but they are not effective as monotherapy for acute hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels. These treatments help shift potassium into cells, but can also exacerbate hypoglycemia and worsen acidemia.
You are correct that IV insulin and glucose (option 2) can be used as a treatment for hyperkalemia. Insulin stimulates the movement of potassium inside the cells, while glucose helps to prevent hypoglycemia as insulin can cause blood sugar levels to drop.
However, it is important to note that this treatment is usually a temporizing measure to stabilize hyperkalemia and is not sufficient for patients with severe hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels. Dialysis is indicated in these scenarios as it can remove potassium as well as other toxins from the bloodstream.
In the provided scenario of a patient with multiple medications and hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels, dialysis is the most appropriate treatment option. It can provide rapid and effective removal of excess potassium and improve renal function by removing other accumulated toxins. Once stable, insulin and glucose infusion can be initiated to prevent reoccurrence of hyperkalemia.
3-4MM Regular breast lump inferiorly hypoechoic. What is the cause?
- Fibroadenoma
2.breastca - Breast cyst
- Fibroadenoma.
Fibroadenomas are benign breast masses that can present as a hypoechoic or, more often, a hyperechoic mass with a characteristic whorled appearance on ultrasound. They are well-circumscribed and tend to be mobile and smooth. Fibroadenomas typically occur in those under the age of 30 and are more common in women in their teenage years and early twenties.
While a breast cyst (option 3) can also present as a hypoechoic mass and is a common cause of breast lumps, a hyperechoic appearance is usually seen in fibroadenomas.
Fibroadenomas are benign breast tumors that commonly occur in women under 30 years of age. They are estrogen-induced tumors that form in adolescence and usually present as a firm, smooth, oval-shaped, freely movable mass. Fibroadenomas are typically well-defined and appear as a hypoechoic lesion on ultrasound
In general, fibroadenomas are more commonly hyperechoic on an ultrasound and have a whorled appearance, but a fibroadenoma’s echogenicity can depend on several factors. For example, an early-stage fibroadenoma may be less well-circumscribed and appear more hypoechoic, while a later-stage fibroadenoma may have a more heterogeneous appearance due to the development of cystic areas within the solid fibrous tissue.
While fibroadenomas are often hyperechoic, it is possible for them to appear hypoechoic, and further evaluation may be required to fully characterize the lesion.
A child with 95th percentile height 75th percentile weight. Breast mildly enlarged. Testes small in size with sparse pubic and axillary hair. 1x?
- Morning cortisol
- TSH
- Karyotype
- Testosterone
- Karyotype
In a child with mildly enlarged breasts (gynecomastia), small testes, and sparse pubic and axillary hair, it is important to consider disorders of sex development (DSD) or intersex conditions. Therefore, a karyotype analysis would be an appropriate initial test to evaluate for any chromosomal abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) or other DSDs. Additionally, a testosterone level can also be helpful in assessing androgen production and to help confirm the diagnosis.
Photo of abdomen given. Swelling just above the umbilicus. Question is - 5 yr old girl with abdominal swelling, no pain. (not given cough impulses positive or not)
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Lipoma
C. Epigastric hernia
A. Umbilical hernia
Without cough impulses being assessed, it is difficult to definitively diagnose the cause of the abdominal swelling. However, based on the location described (just above the umbilicus), the most likely diagnosis would be an umbilical hernia.
how about epigastric are u sure it is not epigastric?
Epigastric hernias typically occur in the upper abdominal region, between the navel and the lower part of the ribcage. They usually cause a small bulge or swelling in that area and can cause discomfort or pain. The location described in the question is just above the umbilicus, which is more consistent with an umbilical hernia.
However, it is important to note that the exact cause of the abdominal swelling cannot be accurately determined based on the information provided alone and a proper physical examination and assessment would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
On USG Hypoechoic lesion is found in breast. Both breast have irregular bumps. What’s the diagnosis?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Breast cyst
C. Lipoma
D. Breast cancer
E. Ductoma
D. Breast cancer?
Initially higher B hcG levels, after 3 weeks BHCG normal. 7 weeks after the first pregnancy coming with B hcG of 800. Cause of new presentation.
A. Current pregnancy
B. Ectopic
B. Ectopic
During pregnancy, BHCG levels typically increase rapidly and can be detected in a blood or urine test as early as 10 days after a missed menstrual period. In general, BHCG levels double every 48-72 hours in the early stages of pregnancy, peaking at around 8-10 weeks and then gradually declining.
The BHCG level can vary among different women based on the duration of pregnancy, individual embryonic growth rates, and individual variations. However, a BHCG level that is lower than expected for the stage of pregnancy (based on the last menstrual period or other factors) could indicate a potential problem with the pregnancy, such as an ectopic pregnancy or a miscarriage.
Therefore, during pregnancy, BHCG levels are expected to be high and to increase over time. However, the specific values can vary widely between individuals and between pregnancies.
However, if the patient presented with a BHCG level of 800 after having previously experienced high BHCG levels followed by normalization, the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy should be considered. As mentioned earlier, ectopic pregnancy is a potential complication in which the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tubes, rather than in the uterus.
A 7-year-old girl is presented with an URTI, she is also found to have RBCs, leukocytes and traces of protein in her urine analysis. She has a history of nocturnal enuresis. After a week, her URTI has settled but urine result remains unchanged. There is presence of non-glomerular RBCs in urine. What is most appropriate inv?
A. Urine culture
B. DM5A
C. Renal UsG
D. Blood culture
E. IMP
C. Renal ultrasound (USG)
The presence of RBCs, leukocytes, and traces of protein in the urine analysis of a 7-year-old girl with a history of nocturnal enuresis suggests the need for further evaluation. In this case, the persistence of abnormalities in urine analysis even after resolution of the upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) raises concerns about a possible underlying renal pathology or structural issue.
The most appropriate next investigation in this scenario would be a renal ultrasound (USG). This imaging modality can help assess the structure of the kidneys and identify any abnormalities, such as kidney stones, urinary tract obstruction, or congenital anomalies. The finding of non-glomerular RBCs in the urine suggests a potential non-glomerular source of bleeding, which could be related to a structural issue in the urinary tract.
Urine culture (A) and blood culture (D) may be considered in cases of suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) or systemic infection, but they are less specific in evaluating structural issues or identifying the cause of persistent urine abnormalities.
DM5A (B) is not a recognized medical term, so it is unclear what this refers to and its relevance to the case.
A 30-year-old man comes to the physician because of a
painful, swollen knee for the past several weeks. He had several episodes of painful urination before the onset of his knee pain. Physical examination shows an edematous knee and bilateral conjunctivitis with mucopurulent discharge.
- Osteoarthritis
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- osteochondritis dessicans
- pigmented villonodular tenosynovitis
- Rheumatoid arthritis
52-year-old women was involved in MVA and she was driver in a stationary car which was hit from behind. Initially, she went to the ED and there is no neck pain or neurological symptoms. In the following days, she suffered pain the lateral side of the neck which was radiated to upper arm both sides. On examination, there is tenderness at the lateral side of the neck but flexion and extension are normal. Lateral movement of necked are limited due to pain. She has osteoporosis and taking alendronate for that. Which of the following is the indictors of neck X-ray?
A. pain at the lateral side of neck
B. Osteoporosis
C. Radiation to upper arms
D. Limited lateral neck movement (C spine rule 3 limited later 30° rotation)
D. Limited lateral neck movement (C spine rule 3 limited lateral 30° rotation).
The Canadian C-spine rule is a set of criteria used to decide whether cervical spine imaging (e.g., X-ray) is indicated in patients who have suffered neck trauma. According to the C-spine rule 3, cervical spine imaging is recommended if the patient complains of any of the following: limited neck rotation (less than 45°), age greater than 65 years, dangerous mechanism of injury, or paresthesias (e.g., numbness or tingling) in the extremities. In this case, the patient has limited lateral neck movement and therefore satisfies the indication for cervical spine imaging.
While osteoporosis and alendronate use may increase the risk of vertebral fractures, they are not specific indicators for obtaining a neck X-ray. Pain at the lateral side of the neck and radiation of pain to the upper arm are common symptoms of cervical spine injuries but by themselves are not sufficient indications for cervical spine imaging.
Patient irritable. Whispering voice. Not allowing to examine throat. Presented in ED. What next?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Jaw thrust and head tilt position
C. Oropharyngeal intubation
B. Jaw thrust and head tilt position
Venlafaxin for 3 years comes with confusion and agitation. What is the cause?
- Electrolyte disturbance
2.Ift deranged
3.Eeg - ecg
- Electrolyte disturbance
You are correct. An electrolyte imbalance can indeed cause confusion and agitation, and it should be considered as a potential cause in this case. Medications like venlafaxine can sometimes affect electrolyte levels, especially sodium, leading to hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms.
Hyponatremia, characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood, can cause confusion, agitation, disorientation, and other cognitive symptoms. It is important to assess the patient’s electrolyte levels, particularly sodium, through blood tests to confirm if an electrolyte imbalance is the cause of their symptoms.
An abdominal Pelvic CT scan shows left ureter nephrolithiasis, 2-3cm above uteropelvic junction, no hydronephrosis. What are the treatment options?
A, Lithotripsy laser
B. ESWL
C. PCNL
D. Basket extraction
Patient complaints of wide based gait and forgetfulness. Mother and brother has the same history. There are other Wilson disease symptoms. What investigation will you do to diagnose this?
A. Genetic test
B. Serum cu and seruloplasmin
C. Liver Biopsy
B. Serum cu and seruloplasmin
Based on the given information, the most appropriate investigation to diagnose this condition would be to check serum copper and serum ceruloplasmin levels. Wilson’s disease is a genetic condition characterized by abnormal copper metabolism, leading to copper accumulation in various organs, particularly the liver and brain. Symptoms of Wilson’s disease can include wide-based gait, tremors, forgetfulness, slurred speech, and other neurological symptoms.
The diagnosis of Wilson’s disease can be made by measuring serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels, as well as performing genetic testing, liver biopsy, or other imaging studies. In Wilson’s disease, copper levels in serum and urine are increased, while serum ceruloplasmin levels are decreased.
A pt of Gilbert syndrome. The patient had no physical symptoms beside increased bilirubin. asked management?
1.nothing to do
2.Usg
1.nothing to do
Gilbert syndrome is a benign condition in which there is reduced hepatic uptake and conjugation of bilirubin, leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin levels in the blood. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require any specific treatment. Hence in a patient with Gilbert Syndrome with no physical signs and increased bilirubin, no additional therapeutic or diagnostic interventions are necessary.
However, patients with Gilbert syndrome may experience transient episodes of jaundice or mild gastrointestinal discomfort during times of stress, fasting, or illness. In such cases, supportive measures such as avoiding fasting, increasing hydration, and treating any underlying illness may be helpful in managing symptoms.
In summary, patients with Gilbert syndrome do not require a specific management plan, but they should be counseled about the benign nature of the condition and informed about symptom management during episodes of stress or illness.
There was a doctor who is a social friend with a couple and also treats them. Then the wife from the couple comes and confess that she is having a hard time with her husband. Asking what’s the next step?
- Refer to another Gp
- Explore her preferred sources
- Prescribing her medicine
- Explore her preferred sources
The most appropriate next step would be to explore her preferred sources.
Given that the doctor has a pre-existing social relationship with the couple and also treats them, it is important to maintain professionalism and establish appropriate boundaries in this situation. It would not be appropriate for the doctor to directly involve themselves in the marital issues of their patients.
Instead, the doctor should encourage the wife to seek professional help from a qualified therapist, counselor, or psychologist who specializes in couples therapy or marital counseling. Exploring her preferred sources would involve discussing different options and potentially providing her with referrals to trusted professionals who can provide the appropriate support for her and her husband.
Parotid Gland Swelling CT shows Superficial Lobe involvernent only no Facial never Plasy. What’s most appropriate Next step?
A. FNAC
B. USS
C. Total paratoidevtomy
D. Superficial paratoidectomy
A. FNAC
Option A, fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC), is the appropriate next step for the evaluation of a parotid gland mass with CT evidence of superficial lobe involvement without facial nerve palsy.
FNAC, which involves using a small needle to obtain a sample of the mass for cytological examination and analysis, can help differentiate between benign and malignant lesions.
USS (option B) is still useful as it can help identify the size and location of the parotid gland mass and assess surrounding structures, including the facial nerve. However, it is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluation of a parotid mass that requires tissue sampling.
Surgical management options for parotid gland masses, such as superficial or total parotidectomy (options C and D), would depend on the cytological findings and the overall management strategy. Therefore, option A, FNAC, would be the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of a parotid gland mass with CT evidence of superficial lobe involvement without facial nerve palsy.
8yrs old child brought to GP for his odd behaviour, both parents and teachers concerned. He leaves the class earlier off and on, he shouted with loud voice ometimes in class. He used to place his toys in parallel, used to stay alone in his room, language normal, don’t talk a lot, no friend at school. O/E eye contact +, What is the diagnosis?
A. Autistic spectrum disorder < 39
B. Tourette
C. ODD
D. ADHD
A. Autistic spectrum disorder < 39
Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for this child’s behavioral and developmental symptoms is option A, Autistic Spectrum Disorder (ASD) with associated social communication difficulties and repetitive behaviors.
The child presents with social communication and interaction difficulties such as leaving class earlier or staying alone in his room, odd behavior such as placing toys in parallel and shouting out loud, and restricted and repetitive interests such as not talking much or having no friends at school. These symptoms are consistent with the diagnostic criteria of ASD.
Eye contact is reported to be present, which could indicate that it is not severe autism. However, further evaluation would be necessary to determine the severity of the ASD and to rule out other possible diagnoses.
76 Y man +/- constipation 2 days, stiffness hip join, pain near hip join, multiple bruises, no other issue, low MMSE, no fever ? What is the diagnosis?
A. Gluteal haematoma
B. Avascular necrosis
C. Osteomyelitis-(+) fever
D. Osteoarthritis
B. Avascular necrosis
Avascular necrosis is a condition where the blood supply to the bone is disrupted, leading to bone death and collapse. It commonly affects the hip joint and can cause pain, stiffness, and difficulty walking . The multiple bruises may be due to the patient’s age and increased fragility of the skin. The low MMSE score may indicate cognitive impairment, which can be associated with avascular necrosis.
Therefore, the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient would be avascular necrosis. It is important to note that a comprehensive evaluation by a healthcare professional, such as an orthopedic surgeon or rheumatologist, is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and develop an appropriate management plan.
The evaluation may involve a thorough assessment of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies, such as X-rays or MRI. The management of avascular necrosis may involve conservative measures, such as pain management and physical therapy, or surgical intervention, depending on the severity and location of the disease
DM patient with Metformin, Atorvastatin AST/ALT 80-90 range Scr marginally high. What is the cause?
A. Metformin
B. Atorvastatin
B. Atorvastatin
Atorvastatin therapy is associated with mild, asymptomatic, and usually transient serum aminotransferase elevations in 1% to 3% of patients
4 yr old child with plantar flexed ankle and always abducted lower limb. wide base gait.. What is the likely cause?
A. B12
B. Friedrich Ataxia
C. Charcot marie tooth
C. Charcot marie tooth
Friedrich Ataxia typically presents with symptoms such as difficulty with balance and coordination, slurred speech, and heart disease, which were not mentioned in the query. While it can cause gait abnormalities, the specific symptoms of a plantar flexed ankle, abducted lower limb, and wide-based gait are more characteristic of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
A child who is already diagnose as ADHD has been aggressive recently and he was given risperidone to control his symptoms what is the initial side effects of this drug?
A-weight gain
B-hyperglycaemia
C-night time sedation
D-gynaecomastia
C-night time sedation
Weight gain is another potential side effect of Risperidone, particularly in children, and it can occur quickly. However, weight gain is not typically an initial side effect and may take longer to develop
A 57-year-old man presents with constipation and abdominal distention of 3-day duration. On examination, a lump is noted in the left inguinal region. The lump has no cough impulse, is not tender or painful. Which one of the following is the best investigation to consider in this patient?
A Ultrasound of the lump.
B Ultrasound of the abdomen.
C Erect and supine x-ray films of the abdomen.
D CT scan of the lump.
E Biopsy
A Ultrasound of the lump.
An ultrasound of the lump is the best investigation to consider in this patient as it can help to confirm the presence of an inguinal hernia, which can present with constipation and abdominal distension, and also to exclude other possible causes of the lump, such as an abscess or a tumor.
A man comes to the emergency department with chest pain for the last hour that is crushing in quality and does not change with respiration or the position of his body. An EKG shows 5T segment depression in leads V2 to V4. Aspirin has been given. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
a. Low molecular-weight heparin
b. Thrombolytics
c. Glycoprotein lib/lila inhibitor (abciximab)
d. Nitroglycerin
e. Morphine
f. Angioplasty
£. Metoprolol
f. Angioplasty
Angioplasty is a procedure used to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels, particularly in the context of acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
. The presence of chest pain, EKG changes, and the potential for a cardiac cause of the symptoms warrant urgent evaluation and intervention
A woman works at a part-time job (OFFICE CLEANER),
and complaints of early morning headache, frontal & bilateral, dull in character, varying in intensity, she takes paracetamol & ibuprofen, which only cause relief for 2-3 hours. What is the cause?
A. Drug rebound headache
B. Migraine
C. Tension headache
D. Cerebral tumor
E. Pre-menstrual headache
C. Tension headache
Based on the description of the patient’s symptoms, the most likely cause of her headache is tension headache. Tension headaches are the most common type of headache and are characterized by dull, non-pulsating pressure or aching pain around the forehead, temples, or back of the head and neck. These types of headaches can be caused by different factors including stress, fatigue, poor posture, and lack of sleep.
In this case, the woman works part-time as an office cleaner, and this may involve long hours on her feet, which may lead to fatigue and muscle tension in the neck and shoulders, contributing to her headache. Additionally, her use of paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms suggests that she is experiencing recurrent or chronic headaches.
Drug rebound headache may occur with frequent or overuse of pain medications and can cause headaches that worsen with medication withdrawal. Migraine is characterized by recurrent headaches, often with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound, and is less likely in this case due to the absence of these accompanying symptoms. Cerebral tumor is a rare cause of headache and is usually associated with other neurological symptoms. Pre-menstrual headache is another possible cause of headache, but it is usually predictable in relation to menstrual cycle and is typically associated with other pre-menstrual symptoms.
Patient with asplenia anemia comes for regular blood transfusion, suddenly fell chills and rigors. Blood transfusion stopped and examine patient: BP 110/60, heart rate at 75: T 38.1 degree celcius; RR 20. It is confirmed correct blood bag after checking, what is your next step?
A. Iv fluid
B. Epipen
C. Send home and re-appointment next week
D. Paracetamol
E. Reassure then resume blood transfusion.
A. Iv fluid
The patient with asplenia and anemia who experiences chills and rigors during blood transfusion should be suspected of having a transfusion reaction. In this case, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should be examined for any signs of anaphylaxis, acute hemolytic reaction, febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction, or other potential transfusion reactions.
Since anaphylaxis cannot be ruled out, the patient should be closely monitored and given supportive care such as supplemental oxygen, intravenous fluids, and medications, as appropriate, while the cause and severity of the transfusion reaction are determined.
Therefore, the most appropriate next step in this scenario would be to give the patient supportive care, including IV fluids, and closely monitor for signs of anaphylaxis or other transfusion reactions. Reassuring the patient and resuming the transfusion would not be appropriate until it is confirmed that the transfusion reaction has been resolved and it is safe to resume transfusion. Neither Epipen nor paracetamol would be appropriate as the first-line management of a transfusion reaction.
Which of the following clinical feature is helpful to differentiate Lewy body dementia from Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Parkinsonism
b. Persistent short term memory loss
c. Deterioration of social skills
d. Taking longer to do routine taskse. Forgetting well-known people or places
a. Parkinsonism
The clinical feature that is helpful in differentiating Lewy body dementia from Alzheimer’s disease is Parkinsonism. While both conditions may share similar symptoms, such as memory loss and cognitive decline, the presence of Parkinsonism, which includes symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and impaired movement, is more commonly associated with Lewy body dementia
A 2950-g (6.5-1b) black baby boy is born at home at term. On arrival at the hospital, he appears pale, but the physical examination is otherwise normal.
Laboratory studies reveal the following: mother’s blood type A, Rh- positive; baby’s blood type O, Rh-positive ; hematocrit 38% ; and reticulocyte count 5%. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the anemia?
a. Feto maternal transfusion
b. ABO incompatibility
c. Physiologic anemia of the newborn
d. Sickle-cell anemia
e. Iron-deficiency anemia
b. ABO incompatibility
The most likely cause of the anemia in this scenario is ABO incompatibility.
ABO incompatibility occurs when a mother with blood type O gives birth to a baby with blood type A, B, or AB. In this case, the baby has blood type O, which is compatible with the mother’s blood type. However, if the baby’s blood type is A or B, the mother’s immune system may produce antibodies against the baby’s blood cells, leading to hemolysis and anemia.
Laboratory findings in ABO incompatibility may include:
- Low hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
- High reticulocyte count, indicating increased red blood cell production
- Elevated bilirubin levels, indicating breakdown of red blood cells
- Presence of hemoglobinuria or hemoglobinemia
- Positive direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test, indicating the presence of antibodies on the surface of the baby’s red blood cells.
Feto-maternal transfusion, sickle-cell anemia, and iron-deficiency anemia are less likely causes of anemia in this scenario. Physiologic anemia of the newborn is a common condition seen in the first few months of life and is due to the normal decrease in fetal hemoglobin and increase in red blood cell mass after birth. However, it usually does not lead to significant anemia at birth.
A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of bilateral mastalgia and bilateral nipple discharge with greenish-yellow staining of her brassiere over a six-month period. There is no past or family history of breast problems. She has a past history of whiplash of the neck after a motor vehicle accident two years ago, now settled.
On examination she has a thick bilateral greenish-yellow discharge on periareoclar compression. The discharge is seen to come from multiple ducts on each nipple.
No mass or other abnormality is found. Mammography and ultrasound shows some dilatation of the main ducts behind the nipple, no focal asymmetry or mass is seen. Which one of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Mammary duct ectasia.
B. Occult invasive carcinoma breast.
C. Lobular carcinoma-in-situ.
C. Lobular carcinoma-in-situ.
D. Ductal carcinoma-in-situ.
E. Fat necrosis.
A. Mammary duct ectasia.
Mammary duct ectasia is a benign condition that occurs when the milk ducts under the nipple become inflamed and dilated. It can result in a thick, greenish-yellow discharge from the nipple, as well as breast pain and swelling. The condition is more common in women over 50 years of age and can occur in both breasts.
In this case, the bilateral mastalgia and bilateral greenish-yellow nipple discharge are consistent with mammary duct ectasia. On examination, multiple ducts are seen to be involved, further supporting the diagnosis. Additionally, the imaging findings of dilated main ducts and absence of a focal mass or asymmetry also support the diagnosis of mammary duct ectasia.
Woman with LPM last 6wk ago. She has regular 4-6 wk cycle. O/E No mass on abdominal palpitation and clear adnexal cervical Os is Closed .No fever .pain on first day of Mense since long ago but this time pain becomes more severe. What is Diagnosis..??77
1.Endometriosis
2.Dysmenorrhea
3.PID
4.Ectopic pg
5.0varian cyst
2.Dysmenorrhea
Dysmenorrhea is a medical term for painful menstrual periods or menstrual cramps. The woman has a regular 4-6 week cycle and no mass on abdominal palpitation and clear adnexal. Her cervical Os is closed, and there is no fever. The pain on the first day of menstruation since long ago, but this time, the pain becomes more severe, which is consistent with dysmenorrhea.
50 years old eating peanuts, suddenly presented SOB and collapsed. On auscultation, stridor and wheezes present. What to do next?
a. 02 with nasal prong
b. 02 with face mask
c. Bronchoscopy
d. Nebulization with salbutamol
b. 02 with face mask
A man with left knee joint pain and pain in first 2nd metatarsal joint. Also complaints of recent impotence. Dx?
A RA
B. Gout
C. Reactive Arthritis
B. Gout
Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to severe pain, swelling, and redness. It commonly affects the big toe joint, but can also affect other joints such as the knee and foot. Gout can also be associated with other conditions such as kidney stones and impotence.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is another type of arthritis that can cause joint pain, but it typically involves multiple joints and is associated with other symptoms such as morning stiffness and swelling. Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis caused by an infection, typically in the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract, and is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and inflammation.
A picture of an indistinct abscess in the lower lid area of the left eye of a man, redness, a bit swollen and you can see the whitish- yellowish colour of puss there, and it’s swollen to the degree that the eye is partially closed from down upwards, what’s your management?
A. Oral Amoxicillin.
B. IV Flucloxacillin,
C. Incision and drainage.
D. Topical chloramphenicol.
E. Topical Steroids
C. Incision and drainage.
An abscess is a localized collection of pus that typically requires drainage to promote healing and resolution of the infection. In this scenario, the abscess is clearly visible as a reddened, swollen area with whitish-yellow pus. Incision and drainage would involve making a small incision in the abscess to release the accumulated pus and promote drainage. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms, reduce swelling, and facilitate healing.
Oral antibiotics such as Amoxicillin or IV antibiotics like Flucloxacillin may be considered as an adjunctive treatment to help control the infection. However, antibiotics alone may not be sufficient to resolve the abscess completely.
Topical chloramphenicol or topical steroids are not appropriate in this scenario. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic ointment typically used for bacterial conjunctivitis, not abscesses. Topical steroids should be used with caution in the eye area due to the risk of worsening infection or other potential complications
A lady of 28years,G2P1.in labour since 36hours.CTG was done for 30minutes and was normal. After birth.The child has APGAR Score of 5in 1min and 7 in Sminutes.Blood investigation of child was showing metabolic acidosis.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
B.Chest infection
C.Hypoglycaemia
The most likely diagnosis in this scenario is D. Birth asphyxia.
Birth asphyxia refers to a lack of oxygen to the baby’s brain during the birth process. This can occur due to a variety of reasons, including a prolonged labor, umbilical cord prolapse, placental abruption, or other complications during delivery. The prolonged labor (36 hours) in this case is a risk factor for birth asphyxia.
The low APGAR score in the first minute and even at 5 minutes indicates that the baby was not getting sufficient oxygen during birth, which can lead to metabolic acidosis as seen in the blood investigations.
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, chest infection, and hypoglycemia are also possible causes of a low APGAR score and metabolic acidosis in a newborn. However, based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis is birth asphyxia.
54 yo man complains of 6 months of increasing stiffness in the legs and difficulty in walking, o/e wasting right biceps, depression, tendon reflex. What is the diagnosis?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Motor Neuron Disease
C, Parkinson Disease
D. Cervical spondylitis
E. Vertebral Ischaemia
D. Cervical spondylitis
The presence of UMN signs such as spasticity and hyperactive tendon reflexes favors a diagnosis of cervical spondylitis. On the other hand, a diagnosis of MND would require a combination of both upper and lower motor neuron involvement.
A three-year-old child has a generalized seizure lasting 3 minutes. He has the temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius. After 30 minutes, he is seen to be playing
happily with his mother. The MOST appropriate next step in management is:
a) Arrange outpatient neurological review with EEG
b) Perform lumbar puncture
©) Arrange for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray
d) Commence valproate prophylactically
e) None of the above
©) Arrange for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray
The most appropriate next step in management in this scenario is (c) arrange for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray.
A generalized seizure occurring in a child with a fever can be an indication of a febrile seizure. While febrile seizures are usually benign and do not cause any long-term harm, the fever may indicate an underlying infection. Therefore, blood tests such as a full blood examination (FBE) and blood cultures, as well as a chest X-ray should be arranged to identify if there is an underlying infection that may require further treatment.
Performing a lumbar puncture may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not the first-line investigation in this case. Likewise, commencing valproate prophylactically is not recommended in a child who has had a single febrile seizure as it may not be required and has risks related to the medication.
While arranging an outpatient neurological review with EEG may be necessary, it is not the immediate next step. If the underlying cause of the seizure is identified and treated promptly, further investigations and review may be unnecessary.
Therefore, arranging for FBE, blood cultures, and chest X-ray is the most appropriate next step in management to identify any potential underlying infection or risk factors that may require further management.
Previously healthy 25-year-old female has acute loss of vision. She woke up with pain in the eye and reduction in acuity and perception to dark and light. Delays seeing the doctor for 1 weeks then acuity improves. The physician identifies slurred speech and poor rapid alternating movement. Ocular dysmetria present EEG
normal.
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Progressive multi of Leuke encephalopathy
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Post ictal state
E. meningococcal meningitis
A. Multiple sclerosis
MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, including the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves. The symptoms of MS can vary widely and may include vision problems, muscle weakness, difficulty with coordination and balance, and cognitive impairment. The diagnosis of MS is usually made based on a combination of clinical symptoms, imaging studies, and laboratory tests.
The acute loss of vision and pain in the eye, along with the subsequent improvement in acuity, is consistent with optic neuritis, which is a common presenting symptom in multiple sclerosis. The presence of slurred speech, poor rapid alternating movement, and ocular dysmetria are also consistent with other neurological signs that can present in multiple sclerosis.
A 71 year old man is brought to ER with right sided weakness of his arm and leg. His past medical history is significant for M1 3 years ago for which he takes Aspirin 100 mg daily. NCCT scan excludes intracranial
hemorrhage. Doppler USG shows bilateral carotid artery stenosis of about 50%. Which one of the following
would be most appropriate initial management?
A) Add Warfarin
B) Add Clopidogrel
C) Carotid endarterectomy
D) Continue the same dose of Aspirin
E) Increase the dose of Aspirin
C) Carotid endarterectomy
Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves removing the plaque buildup from the carotid artery to improve blood flow and reduce the risk of stroke. In this case, the patient’s symptoms of right-sided weakness suggest a potential transient ischemic attack (TIA) or a small infarct, which may warrant surgical intervention. Adding warfarin (option A) or clopidogrel (option B) may be considered in certain cases, but the initial management for symptomatic carotid artery stenosis is typically carotid endarterectomy
1
. Continuing the same dose of aspirin (option D) is not sufficient for managing the underlying stenosis, and increasing the dose of aspirin (option E) may not provide adequate protection against stroke in this situation.
Child with 3 days history of Malaise. Fever, coryzal and
conjunctivitis develop maculopapular rash and pinpoint white lesion on buccal mucosa. Which is the following likely cause?
A. Varicella
B. Herpes
C. Rubella
D. Rubeola (Measles)
E. Parvovirus
D. Rubeola (Measles)
Post appendicectomy day 7. Comes with diarrhea abdominal pain. Rectum empty. Diagnosis?
A. Resolving paralytic ileus
B. C deficit colitis
D. Clostridium difficile infection. After an appendectomy, the use of antibiotics can disrupt the natural gut microbiota and allow for the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile bacteria. This can cause diarrhea, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to get a proper diagnosis and treatment for this infection, as it can be very serious if left untreated.
Paralytic ileus can occur after surgery such as appendectomy and can cause abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. It is characterized by the temporary loss of function of the muscles in the intestines, which leads to a buildup of gas and stool in the intestines. This can cause discomfort and difficulty passing stool. However, diarrhea is not typically a symptom of paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case would be diarrhea and abdominal pain due to Clostridium difficile infection rather than resolving paralytic ileus.
58 year old man presented with severe lower back pain and tenderness in the lower lumbar, he has weight loss of 10 kg and on examination, there was tenderness over L4-L5 vertebra, On DRE the prostate was enlarged and irregular, what is the most appropriate test that lead you to the diagnosis?
A-PSA
B-PET SCAN
C-spinal CT
D-spinal MRI
E-ultrasound
D-spinal MRI
The presented signs and symptoms suggest malignancy, especially considering the tenderness over L4-L5 vertebra and the weight loss. The spinal MRI is more accurate than X-ray and CT scan in detecting spinal cord compression, assessing the extent of spinal involvement, and identifying metastasis. Additionally, it can help identify if the back pain is arising from the intervertebral discs, spinal cord or nerves, or any other surrounding soft tissue structures. PSA, PET scan, and ultrasound may help with the diagnosis, but spinal MRI is the most appropriate test in this cas
An obstetric USS at 18 weeks all normal history mentioned smoker even in pregnany , 36 week HC and AC low, Fl within normal. Amniotic fluid index low as k causes
A. placental insufficiency
B. Fetal anemia
C. IUGR
D. Congenital Abnormality
A. placental insufficiency
A middle aged woman complaining of continuous burning pain in the maxillary region during last 24 hours. there are some redness over the area of the projection of the maxillary sinus. nothing Saint about nasal symptoms. diagnosis?
A Maxillary sinusitis
B Trigeminal Neuralgia
C Cluster headache
D Varicella infection
E. Simplex infaction
A. maxillary sinusitis.
Sinusitis is an inflammation or infection of the sinuses, which are air-filled spaces located in the bones of the face around the nose and eyes. Maxillary sinusitis refers to inflammation or infection of the maxillary sinuses, which are located on either side of the nose in the cheeks. The continuous burning pain in the maxillary region and redness over the area of the projection of the maxillary sinus could be indicative of maxillary sinusitis. However, a definitive diagnosis would require further evaluation by a healthcare provider, which may include imaging studies or other diagnostic tests.
A 34 year old woman presents with a painful lump in the right upper eyelid. the lump has developed over a course of 3 days. on examination, there is a 1X1.5 cm warm tender lump in the upper eyelid of the right eye. the visual acuity is intact. the eye movements are normal in all directions. the patient appears healthy otherwise and afebrile. which one of the following would be the next best step of management for this patient?
a. CT scan of orbit
b. Flucloxacillin and ceftriaxone IV
c. topical chloramphenicol
d. application of heat and gentle massage
e. incision and curettage of lesion under local anesthesia
D. Application of heat and gentle massage.
The presentation of a painful lump in the upper eyelid of a relatively healthy individual with intact visual acuity and normal eye movements may suggest a chalazion. A chalazion is a small, round, non-tender nodule in the eyelid that develops as a result of an obstruction to the oil glands in the eyelid causing accumulation of secretions and inflammation.
Application of heat and gentle massage is usually sufficient to treat a chalazion. The heat can help to soften the oil that is blocking the gland and promote drainage while the gentle massage with a clean finger can help to express the contents of the gland. This can provide relief from the inflammation and pain, as well as promote healing of the affected area. Further intervention, such as incision and curettage under local anesthesia, may be required if the symptoms persist or become severe. The use of antibiotics may not be indicated unless there is clinical evidence of infection. CT scan of the orbit is not necessary in the absence of other symptoms or signs suggestive of an orbital complication. Topical chloramphenicol could be used to prevent secondary bacterial infection but it is unlikely to resolve the chalazion.
A man returning from Sudan with fever, malaise, perianal
abscess, diarrhoea. What is the diagnosis-
1.whipworm,
2. fissure,
3.giardiasis
Giardiasis
Giardiasis is an intestinal infection caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia. It is often associated with contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. The symptoms of giardiasis include diarrhea, abdominal cramps, bloating, flatulence, and nausea. In some cases, fever and/or perianal abscess may also be present.
CTG with decelerations which comes with the contractions not before or after them . Beat to beat variability was ok. Heart rate and others were nl. | couldn’t find enough accelerations . What is next?
A. Continue CTG monitoring
B. Fetal blood sampling
C. C section
A. Continue CTG monitoring
A 76-year-old woman comes to the local emergency department with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath after an overseas trip. She is afebrile and hemodynamically stable. She has a history of renal failure, and her EGFR is 25 mmol/l (normal range above 90 mmol/litre) on recent blood tests done one week ago. Chest Xray- shows a peripheral wedge opacity. D-dimers are elevated. What will you do next?
A. Recheck D-dimers
B. Doppler venous ultrasound of lower extremities
C. CT pulmonary angiogram
D. Bronchoscopy
E. CT Chest
C. CT pulmonary angiogram
CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is a diagnostic imaging test that uses computed tomography (CT) angiography to
. It is the preferred choice for diagnosing pulmonary embolism (PE), which is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by blood clots in the pulmonary arteries. In this case, the patient’s symptoms, history of renal failure, and elevated D-dimers raise suspicion for PE, and a CTPA can help confirm or rule out this diagnosis
Elderly woman has a fall. Fractures one vertebra. Only had point tenderness. What do you advice?
A. Rest
B. Exercise
C. Vitd
D. Calcium
A. Rest
Rest: Resting and avoiding activities that may exacerbate pain or further injury is often recommended initially
A 34-year-old woman presented with a history of unilateral headaches accompanied by nasal stuffiness, conjunctival injection and lacrimation. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for prevention of these attacks?
A. 100% oxygen
B. Sumatriptan
C. Paracetamol
D. Verapamil
E. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
Verapamil is the first-line prophylactic therapy for the prevention of cluster headache attacks.
Cluster headache is an uncommon type of headache that is characterized by severe, one-sided head pain. It often involves tearing of the eyes, a droopy eyelid, and a stuffy nose. The pain is typically described as “boring,” burning, or piercing and can come on very quickly, often without warning. Cluster headaches occur in cyclical patterns or cluster periods, where attacks last from 15 minutes to 3 hours and can occur daily or almost daily for weeks or months
You are working as a GP in a very busy metropolitan general practice. A 20-year- old female sex worker comes to your office for a thorough sexual health check up during the first visit. Upon further history, she is fully immunized and is currently asymptomatic. Which of the following is CORRECT when performing the sexual
health assessment of female sex workers?
A. HPV test every two years
B. Hepatitis A serology every 12 months
C. Mid-stream urine for Chlamydia and gonorrhoea PCR every yearly
D. HIV screening with consent yearly
E. Syphilis screening is no longer recommended
D. HIV screening with consent yearly
Under the Sex Work Act 1994 and the Sex Work Regulations 2016 in Victoria, Australia, it is an offence for a sex worker to work if they are aware they have a sexually transmitted infection (STI) including HIV. By law, sex workers working in Victoria are required to have mandatory HIV and STI screening every three months
However, the frequency of sexual health assessments should be determined by the individual sex worker and their doctor
A man with difficulty in intiating unrine and drbbling at end. He empties bladded completely. He doesnt need to wake up at night to void. What is the Cause?
A. BPH
B. Ca prostate
C. Urethral stric
D. Ca bladder
A. BPH
Symptoms related to BPH may include straining during urination, decreased urinary stream, dribbling, feeling that the bladder is not completely empty, and frequent urination, among others. In the provided scenario, the absence of nocturnal voiding indicates that the bladder capacity and storage capacity are adequate.
the most likely cause of a man with difficulty in initiating urine and dribbling at the end, but who empties the bladder completely and does not need to wake up at night to void, is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) (option A)
BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that can cause urinary symptoms such as hesitancy, weak urine stream, and dribbling at the end of urination
BPH is a common condition that affects many men as they age
Urethral stricture (option C) is a narrowing of the urethra that can cause difficulty with urination, but it is less common than BPH and is often caused by injury or infection
Cancer of the prostate (option B) is a less common cause of urinary symptoms and is typically associated with other symptoms such as blood in the urine, bone pain, or weight loss
Cancer of the bladder (option D) is also a less common cause of urinary symptoms and is typically associated with other symptoms such as blood in the urine, pain during urination, or frequent urination
Most common neurological complications regarding CKD
Peripheral neuropathy?
A. delirium
B. Seizures
C. Dementia
D. Labile affect
C. Dementia
Peripheral neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that affects the nerves responsible for transmitting messages to and from the brain to other parts of the body. It is a common neurological complication of CKD, and it can cause various symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and burning pain in the hands and feet.
Dementia, a group of cognitive disorders characterized by memory loss and impairment, is another common neurological complication that can occur with CKD, especially in advanced stages of the condition. The exact cause of dementia in CKD remains unclear, but factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and metabolic disturbances may contribute to its development.
Regarding unilateral undescended testis which one is most commonly associated ?
A. Malignancy
B. Varicocele
C. Indirect inguinal hernia
D. Hydrocele
E. Torsion
A. Malignancy
The most commonly associated condition with a unilateral undescended testis is testicular malignancy.
Evidence suggests that boys with an undescended testis are at an increased risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis remains undescended into adulthood. Therefore, regular surveillance and follow-up are essential for early detection and treatment of testicular malignancy in patients with an undescended testis.
Varicocele, an indirect inguinal hernia, and hydrocele may also occur in cases of undescended testis but are less common. Torsion, which refers to a twisting of the testis on its own blood vessels, is more likely to occur in an undescended testis than in a normally descended one, but it is still relatively uncommon. Therefore, it is important to monitor for signs of testicular malignancy in individuals with unilateral undescended testis.
Old man with her wife. disoriented and confused. has diarrhea for 24hr and H/O prostectomy 1week ago, catheterized for it. IV fluid given yester and conscious level improved. Now he comes with urine output of 20ml/ hr and his RFT is normal. What to do?
A. Give bolus of IV saline
B. Iv furosemide
C. Encourage oral rehyd
D. Catheter flush
D. Catheter flush
It is not uncommon for patients who have undergone prostatectomy and/or have been catheterized to have urinary retention and obstruction, which can lead to decreased urine output and potential complications such as urinary tract infections. The patient’s low urine output is an indication that the catheter may be obstructed or displaced, and therefore, flushing the catheter should be considered as a first-line intervention to alleviate the obstruction. It is also important to assess the catheter for any kinking, dislodgement, or obstruction to ensure proper placement.
A catheter flush involves flushing the catheter with a sterile solution to ensure proper functioning and to clear any potential blockages or obstructions
In this case, the low urine output may be due to catheter-related issues, such as catheter blockage or inadequate flow. Performing a catheter flush can help address any potential issues and improve urine flow
.A case of hyperkalemia. Everyrhing was normal except urea and creatinine was high. what to do?
A. IV norm saline
B. Hemodialysis
C. Ca gluconate
D. Resonium
B. Hemodialysis.
Hyperkalemia refers to a condition in which potassium levels in the blood are abnormally high, and it can be associated with various causes, such as kidney disease, medication side effects, or metabolic disturbances. In this case, the high levels of urea and creatinine suggest a possible underlying kidney disease that may be contributing to the hyperkalemia.
While intravenous normal saline (Option A), calcium gluconate (Option C), and Resonium (Option D) may be used to manage hyperkalemia in some cases, they may not be effective in patients with significant renal impairment, as they may further affect renal function and cause complications. Therefore, the most appropriate next step in this case would be hemodialysis, which can help to rapidly eliminate excess potassium and other waste products from the bloodstream, and also improve kidney function in patients with underlying renal disease.
A 7year old child, blank stare, with twitching of the right arm, chewing the teeth, head turned laterally, lasting 30 to 60 seconds with confusion and drowsy after episodes, how to treat?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Levotiracetam
C. NA Valproate
D. Phenytoin
E. Ethosuximide - if absent
C. NA Valproate
Based on the symptoms described, the child is likely experiencing an absence seizure, also known as a petit mal seizure. Treatment for absence seizures typically involves anticonvulsant medications, and the most commonly prescribed medications are ethosuximide, valproic acid, and lamotrigine
A case of hyperkalemia. Everyrhing was normal except urea and creatinine was high. what to do?
A. IV norm saline
B. Hemodialysis
C. Ca gluconate
D. Resonium
D. Resonium (Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate)
Hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine levels suggests that the patient may have chronic kidney disease and is not able to excrete potassium effectively. In this case, treatment with Resonium can help to remove potassium from the body by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, reducing the potassium levels in the blood. IV normal saline may be used in acute hyperkalemia to temporarily shift potassium into the cells, but it is not a definitive treatment. Hemodialysis is an option in severe cases of hyperkalemia, but it is invasive and may not be necessary in all cases. Calcium gluconate is given intravenously to stabilize the cardiac membrane during hyperkalemia, but it is not a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia and will not decrease potassium levels.
In the case of hyperkalemia with high urea and creatinine, treatment options can include intravenous (IV) normal saline, hemodialysis, calcium gluconate, and resins like Resonium (sodium polystyrene sulfonate). The choice depends on the severity of hyperkalemia and kidney function. IV normal saline can help in mild cases, while hemodialysis is used for severe cases or when kidney function is significantly impaired. Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart, and Resonium helps remove potassium from the body
MVA. young patient brought by the paramedics in Ed, chest pain, SOB .BP 90/60 pulse 125,auscultation : breath sounds decreased and stony dullness, what is next best step ?
A-reassurance
B-antibiotics
C-needle thoracostomy
D-chest tube
DX: Tension Pneumothorax
C. Needle Thoracostomy
While chest tube placement is the definitive treatment for tension pneumothorax, in the case described where the patient has decreased breath sounds and stony dullness, immediate intervention is necessary to relieve the pressure and restore normal breathing
Therefore, the next best step would be to perform a needle thoracostomy, which involves inserting a needle into the chest to release the air that is causing the pressure
This is a temporary measure to stabilize the patient until a chest tube can be inserted to fully drain the air and prevent the pneumothorax from recurring
In this case, needle thoracostomy is the preferred initial intervention to rapidly decompress the pleural space and stabilize the patient. A chest tube can be considered after the needle thoracostomy if further management is needed.
Old man, hearing aids, bila teral ceruman impacted, webers lateralized to right, Rinne positive bilaterally. What is the Dx?
1.otosclerosis
2.5MHL In right side
3.presbycusis
4.conductive deafness right side
5.2.5MNHL In left side
Conductive hearing loss: bone conduction > air conduction (negative Rinne). Sensorineural hearing loss: air conduction > bone conduction (positive Rinne). A flipped 256 Hz fork corresponds to a 15 dB hearing loss.
Conductive deafness right side
You are correct that a positive Rinne test is typically associated with a sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL), rather than conductive hearing loss (CHL). A positive Rinne test indicates that air conduction is better than bone conduction, suggesting that the inner ear and auditory nerve are functioning properly.
Given the symptoms described (bilateral cerumen impaction, lateralization of the Weber’s test to the right), a more accurate diagnosis would be conductive hearing loss on the right side due to the physical obstruction of the ear canal by impacted cerumen. Sensorineural hearing loss would not typically be associated with these symptoms.
The presented symptoms of bilateral cerumen impaction, lateralization of Weber’s test to the right, and positive Rinne test bilaterally suggest that the patient has conductive deafness, which is affecting the right ear. The impacted cerumen is physically blocking the ear canal, thus decreasing the patient’s hearing ability, and is the likely cause of conductive hearing loss. This loss affects the ability of sound waves to pass through the outer and middle ear to reach the inner ear, leading to a muffled sound. Treatment typically involves the removal of the impacted cerumen through irrigation or manual removal by a healthcare professional, which should improve the hearing loss.
A positive Rinne test and lateralization of the Weber’s test to the right indicate that the right ear is affected. Conductive hearing loss occurs when there is a problem in the outer or middle ear that prevents sound waves from reaching the inner ear, and cerumen impaction is a common cause of conductive hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by difficulty in hearing faint sounds and a muffled or distorted hearing, results from problems in the inner ear or the auditory nerve. Therefore, the presentation is more consistent with conductive deafness on the right side rather than sensorineural hearing loss.
What’s the difference between Conductive vs Sensorineural Hearing loss?
Conductive hearing loss (CHL) is a type of hearing loss that occurs when there is a physical problem that prevents sound waves from passing through the middle or outer ear effectively. This type of hearing loss is typically characterized by a decrease in the volume or intensity of sound, and patients often report that sounds seem muffled or unclear. Common causes of CHL include ear infections, cerumen (earwax) impaction, fluid buildup in the middle ear, and damage to the eardrum or ossicles of the middle ear. Treatment may involve medical management, surgery, or the use of hearing aids.
Sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) involves damage to the inner ear or to the nerve pathways that transmit sound signals from the inner ear to the brain. SNHL is usually characterized by a decrease in the clarity and quality of sound. Patients may experience difficulty hearing faint sounds, and speech may sound muffled or distorted. Common causes of SNHL include aging, exposure to loud noises, trauma, and disease. Treatment for SNHL may include hearing aids or cochlear implants, depending on the extent of the damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve. In some cases, medical management can help to address the underlying cause of SNHL.
17 yr sexually active,irregular menstruations but no heavy bleeding. ask for mirena for contraception long term{dyrs)advice?
1.you have to replace mirena in 3 yrs
2.mirena insertion
3.can’t have mirena as she is nulliparous
4. Prescribe OCP
- Mirena insertion
Mirena is a long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) that provides contraception for up to 5 years after insertion. It is a good option for women who want long-term contraception with minimal maintenance. As the patient has irregular and light menstrual bleeding, Mirena may be an appropriate choice. Mirena works by releasing a small amount of a hormone called levonorgestrel, which thickens the cervical mucus, making it difficult for sperm to reach the egg. It also thins the lining of the uterus, which helps to prevent implantation.
Young man hit by squash ball while playing , apart from headache which resolved by analgesic he complained of decreased vision .
On examination his visual acuity 6/12 in left eye, 6/6 in right eye What is most likely the cause?
A) Vitreogus haemorrhage
B) Retinal detachment
C) Zygomatic fracture
D) Orbital floor fracture
B) Retinal detachment
The most likely cause of the decreased vision in the left eye after being hit by a squash ball is a retinal detachment. This condition can occur when a blunt force trauma, like a squash ball hitting the eye, causes the retina to pull away from its normal position. It’s a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly.
A vitreous hemorrhage can also cause decreased vision, and it is frequently associated with blunt trauma, such as a squash ball injury. However, it would not typically cause different visual acuities between the left and right eyes, as the patient in this scenario presents. Vitreous hemorrhage would normally result in an overall reduction of visual acuity. Therefore, while vitreous hemorrhage is a possibility, retinal detachment remains the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms given the differing visual acuities between the left and right eyes.
Patient fell from horse, tibial fracture, with basilar skull fracture : raccoon eyes, CSF leaking, presented after 45 min. what to do next?
A. IV DEXA
B. oral gastric/pharyngeal tube
C. NG tube
D. abx
D. Antibiotics
You are correct. In the case of a basilar skull fracture with CSF leakage, the next best step would be to administer antibiotics (Option D) to reduce the risk of bacterial meningitis. The presence of CSF leakage puts the patient at a high risk of developing an infection, and prompt administration of antibiotics is considered a crucial step in preventing or treating potential infections. Oral gastric/pharyngeal tube (Option B) may also be considered to prevent aspiration of CSF, but immediate administration of antibiotics should be prioritized in this scenario.
Given ECG showing m-spike QRS complex in all leads and given long lead Il. Also on long lead Il, all QRS are M Spike and irregularly irregular. The heart rate calculated is 150. Scenario gives patient with hypertension and BP 150/20. The patient taking only atorvastatin. Not given chest pain clinical features
A. Metoprolol
B. Apixaban
C other anticoagulant
D verapamil
E adenosine
B. Apixaban
There may not be sufficient evidence to answer exactly. However, an irregularly irregular rhythm with a rapid heart rate could suggest atrial fibrillation. Anticoagulation, such as Apixaban, is often used to prevent stroke in atrial fibrillation. Metoprolol and Verapamil can be used to control heart rate. Adenosine is typically used for supraventricular tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation.
It is not clear from the scenario what is causing the M-spike QRS complex in all leads. However, in this case, we can infer that the patient has an irregularly irregular rhythm with a high heart rate of 150 bpm, which could be suggestive of atrial fibrillation (AF).
In view of the patient’s hypertension and AF, the most appropriate choice of medication from the given options would be B. Apixaban, which is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) used for stroke prevention in patients with non-valvular AF and is considered a first-line therapy. This is because patients with AF are at an increased risk of stroke due to blood clots forming in the heart, and anticoagulation is used to reduce this risk.
CXY sigmoid volvulus, Parkinsons patient on drugs. Rectum
empty. Next step of mx ?
The initial treatment for sigmoid volvulus is sigmoidoscopy or flexible endoscopy. The primary objective of the procedure is to untwist the sigmoid loop and decompress the bowel. Therefore, the next best step for this patient would be to perform a flexible sigmoidoscopy. However, given the patient’s comorbidities and medications, consultation with the patient’s physician or gastroenterologist is warranted to determine the appropriate management plan, since sigmoidoscopy carries a small risk of bowel perforation.
A 65 year old woman on MHT for 15 years came for review. When she stopped it 5 years ago, severe hot flushes so she continued. Next step?
a. stop MHT now
B. continue for another few years
c. use only estrogen
B. continue for another few years
Given her age and duration of menopausal hormone therapy (MHT), it may be less favorable to continue due to potential risks such as cardiovascular disease and cognitive impairment. However, her severe hot flushes should be considered. Non-hormonal management approaches or alternative therapies like acupuncture could be explored. It’s crucial to discuss this with her doctor to make an informed decision
18 year old with BMI 31 came for contraceptive. Sexually active. What to screen?
a. Diabestes
b. chlamydia
c. Pap smear
B. Chlamydia
As the patient is sexually active, she should be screened for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), especially since she has a BMI of 31, which increases her risk of comorbidities. Chlamydia is a common STI that can often be asymptomatic and leads to several health complications if left untreated, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, and infertility. Therefore, Chlamydia screening is important for all sexually active individuals aged under 25 years, including those who seek contraceptives.
In a community of 200 people in 200% had 45 diabetics and by 2010 number rose to 50.
What would be incidence per 1000?
A.5
B. 25
C. 50
D. 500
B. 25
The incidence of diabetes in this community from 2000 to 2010 can be calculated by subtracting the initial number of cases (45) from the final number of cases (50), which gives us 5 new cases. Since the population is 200, the incidence per 1000 would be (5/200)*1000 = 25 per 1000. So, the correct answer is B. 25.
A traveller with jaundice, Hep A vaccination done. What’s the possible cause of infection?
A. Hep A
B. HepB
C. HepC
D. Hep D
E. HepE
E. Hepatitis E
The most likely cause of a person with jaundice who has received Hepatitis A vaccine is hepatitis E. Hepatitis A vaccine provides protection against the Hepatitis A virus, but does not provide protection against other types of hepatitis viruses, including hepatitis E.
Hepatitis E virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route, primarily through contaminated water or food. People traveling to countries with poor sanitation are at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis E.
Therefore, the answer is E.
Hemorrhoids with picture how will you manage
A. Band ligation
B. Hemorrhoidal artery ligation
C. Cryotherapy
The management of hemorrhoids depends on the severity of symptoms and the degree of prolapse.
For mild hemorrhoids, conservative measures such as dietary fiber, stool softeners, and topical creams to alleviate itching and inflammation may be recommended.
For more severe hemorrhoids, various surgical procedures may be considered. Band ligation, hemorrhoidal artery ligation (HAL), excisional hemorrhoidectomy, or stapled hemorrhoidopexy are among the most common options.
Regarding the options provided, cryotherapy (freezing the hemorrhoid to cause tissue death) is not a commonly used treatment for hemorrhoids.
Band ligation is a safe and effective intervention and has become the most common method of treating hemorrhoids. In this technique, a rubber band is placed around the base of the hemorrhoid to cut off the blood supply and cause the hemorrhoid to shrink and fall off after a few days.
Hemorrhoidal artery ligation (HAL) uses a Doppler device to locate and ligate the blood vessels that supply the hemorrhoidal plexus. The procedure effectively treats both internal and external hemorrhoids.
Therefore, either band ligation or hemorrhoidal artery ligation may be effective options for the management of hemorrhoids, depending on the individual patient’s preferences and clinical presentation.
What is the disease and the possible cause?
Other factors that may increase the risk of developing Dupuytren’s contracture include smoking, alcoholism, diabetes, nutritional deficiencies, and certain medications used to treat seizures
The condition tends to get worse slowly over time, and it most commonly affects the ring and little fingers
There is no cure for Dupuytren’s contracture, but treatments can relieve symptoms and slow the progression of the condition.
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that causes one or more fingers to bend towards the palm of the hand
It is caused by the thickening and tightening of the tissue under the skin of the palm and fingers
The exact cause of Dupuytren’s contracture is not known, but it is believed to be hereditary, meaning that family history and ancestry play a role
What is the contraceptives that increases the risk of breast cancer?
Estrogen Only pill
What are the types of drugs that can increase the risk of endometrial cancer?
Breast Cancer medications eg Tamoxifen
An 80-year-old woman who had hip fracture following mechanical
fall, being prepped for surgery. now she is alert but is not oriented in
time and place, has inattention and does not retain info. No
relatives to contact. No history of previous mental conditions. What
should be done?
A. Make her sign consent and move on with surgery
B. Do surgery in her best interest
C. Refer to psychiatry for assessment
D. Manage fracture conservatively
E. Postpone surgery till her condition improves
C. Refer to psychiatry for assessment
The surgery should be done in the patient’s best interest (B) after the patient’s mental state has been assessed and treated.
Related
what is the prognosis for an elderly patient with hip fracture
what are the common complications after hip fracture surgery
what is the role of physical therapy in hip fracture recovery
You are running a covid vaccination clinic. Your consent forms
finished and printer out of order. What will you do?
- Cancel the session
- Take verbal consent
- Wait for the printer working
4, Ask the patient to come another day
- Take verbal consent
The staff could document verbal consent in their records and provide patients with a written summary of information about the vaccine to take home. Verbal consent can be considered a valid form of consent in emergency situations, such as when a printer is not working. However, efforts should be made to obtain written consent as soon as possible once the printer is operational again.
An 8 yo child came down with an asthma attack every month for the last 12 months. What to use for prevention?
A. Inhaled Salbutamol
B. Inhaled Fluticasone
C. Inhaled Salbutamol / Fluticasone
D. SCG
B. Inhaled Fluticasone.
Based on the given information, the 8-year-old child has been experiencing asthma attacks frequently over the past 12 months. Therefore, it is likely that the child has persistent asthma, which requires ongoing controller therapy to prevent future attacks. Inhaled fluticasone is a type of corticosteroid medication that is commonly used for the long-term management of asthma. It works by reducing inflammation and swelling of the airways, which can help to prevent asthma attacks.
Child with hereditary spherocytosis is pale and has multiple bruises.
Blood test: HGB 7.8/ WC 2000/ platelets 70000. What’s the cause?
a) Pneumococus
b) Cytomegalovirus
C) RSV
d) Norwalk virus
e) Parvovirus
e) Parvovirus
Parvovirus infection can cause anemia by reducing red blood cell production, leading to symptoms of hemolytic anemia. In individuals with hereditary spherocytosis, a parvovirus B19 infection can worsen anemia and cause a hemolytic crisis.
Middle Aged man with anorexia, weight loss and mass on the
Supraclavicular regions. What next?
A. endoscopy
B. gastroscopy
C, FNAC
D. Laryngoscopy
C, FNAC
The middle-aged man presenting with anorexia, weight loss, and a mass on the supraclavicular region is exhibiting symptoms that are concerning for an underlying malignancy. The most appropriate next step would be to perform a fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) of the supraclavicular mass.
FNAC is a minimally invasive diagnostic procedure that involves inserting a thin, hollow needle into the mass and removing a sample of cells for examination under a microscope. It can help to determine whether the mass is cancerous or benign, and can also provide information about the type of cancer if it is present.
A woman came to your office with her 8 year old girl and ask your
advice about HPV vaccine . what will you do ?
a. give her now
b. advice after 10 years of age best recommended-12-14 yrs
c. needs to get it while he enters to college
d. need it when she begins her sexual relationship
b. advice after 10 years of age best recommended-12-14 yrs
However, it can be safely administered to children as young as 9 years old. So, it would be best to recommend the vaccine in a couple of years, ideally at ages 11 or 12
There was a bipolar hypomania patient who had not been
compliant and had low lithium levels. Questions was asked that
what will you give now?
A. Lithium
B. Olanzapine ans
C. Valproate
D. Lamotrigine
E. Carbamazepine
A. Lithium
Lithium is a mood stabilizer and has been shown to be effective in treating both mania and depressive symptoms of bipolar disorder
External hemorrhoids with picture how will you manage?
A. Band ligation
B. Hemorhaoidal artery ligation
C. Cryotherapy
A. Band ligation
Band ligation: This is a procedure in which a rubber band is placed around the base of the hemorrhoid, cutting off its blood supply and causing it to shrink and eventually fall off.
Hemorrhoidal artery ligation: This is a minimally invasive procedure that uses a specialized instrument to locate and tie off the blood vessels that supply the hemorrhoids, causing them to shrink. Hemorrhoidal artery ligation is typically used for grade II or III hemorrhoids.
Cryotherapy: This involves using freezing temperatures to destroy the hemorrhoid tissue. Cryotherapy is not commonly used for hemorrhoids.
Severe or recurrent cases may require surgical intervention such as hemorrhoidectomy.
Elderly man with hearing aids and bilateral cerumen impaction
positive bilateral Rinne test and Weber’s lateralise to the right ear.
Dx?
A. Conductive hearing loss to the right
B. SMHL in the right
C. Bilateral acoustic neuroma
D. Otosclerosis
A. Conductive hearing loss to the right
A positive bilateral Rinne test indicates that air conduction is better than bone conduction in both ears, which is normal. However, Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear suggests that there is conductive hearing loss in the right ear, as the sound is perceived louder in the affected ear due to cerumen impaction blocking external sounds and making the bone-conducted sound relatively louder
34 year old after severe episode and several episodes of renching
vomiting, took cocaine a night after party , neck swelling crepitation
Bronchial rupture?
A. Oesophageal rupture
B. Pneumothorax
C. Tension phemothorax
D. Subcute emphysema
D. Subcutaneous emphysema.
The patient is presenting with symptoms of neck swelling with crepitation, which is suggestive of subcutaneous emphysema. This can occur due to air leaking from the respiratory tract and spreading into the soft tissues of the neck. In this case, the most likely cause is bronchial rupture, which can occur with severe coughing or vomiting.
There is a polytrauma patient with bladder distended on palpation
and u noticed blood in urethra. How will you proceed?
A. Suprapubic catheter
B. Pass uretheral catheter
C.PCN
A. Suprapubic catheter
Inserting a suprapubic catheter helps to divert urine and avoid further damage to the urethra.