RACGP Flashcards

1
Q

Dosage of Folate Supplementation in most women prior to conception and continuing for the first trimester

A

0.5 mg / day

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2
Q

Dosage of Folate Supplementation in high-risk women

A

5 mg/day

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3
Q

All women who are pregnant, breastfeeding or considering pregnancy should take
an iodine supplement of

A

150 μg each day

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4
Q

test for fragile X and karyotype/

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

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5
Q

good evidence* that introducing peanut into the diet of infants who already have severe eczema and/or
egg allergy before 12 months of age can reduce the risk of these infants developing peanut allergy
True or False?

A

True

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6
Q

Encourage dental hygiene twice a day: No toothpaste ______ what age? and low fluoride toothpaste up
to 5 years of age

A

<17 months of age

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7
Q

Encourage dental visits annually after, what age?

A

Encourage dental visits annually after 12 months of age

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8
Q

People ≥65 years of age
Screen for hearing
impairment (II, B)

How often?

A

Every 12 months

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9
Q

is the most common and curable STI in Australia.

A

Chlamydia

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10
Q

The most common adverse effect of radical prostatectomy

A

erectile dysfunction,

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11
Q

What tool to use that can help identify individuals who may require a
more detailed assessment of their family history of cancer, heart disease or diabetes ?

A

Family history screening questionnaire (FHSQ)

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12
Q

Men with infertility suspected or due to
congenital absence of the vas deferens are prone to increase probability for?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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13
Q

What should be done to screen pregnant women for Down Syndrome?

A

Combined maternal serum and
ultrasound screening in first
trimester

Maternal serum screening in
second trimester

Non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT)

at First or Second trimester

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14
Q

What screen is used for pregant women who has significantly increased probabilty for Down Syndrome?

Combined maternal serum and
ultrasound screening in first
trimester*
Maternal serum screening in
second trimester†
(C)
Non-invasive prenatal test (NIPT)‡

A

Fetal diagnostic genetic testing
(C)
Offer referral for genetic
counselling
at First or Second trimeste

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15
Q

What Increases the probability for Fsragile X SYndrome?
These are children or adults of either sex with one or
more of the following features:

A

developmental delay including
intellectual disability of unknown cause
* autistic-like features
* attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
(ADHD)
* speech and language problems
* social and emotional problems, such as
aggression or shyness
* a female with a history of primary
ovarian insufficiency or premature
menopause (aged <40 years)
* adults with ataxia, balance problems
and parkinsonism
* relative with a fragile X mutation

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16
Q

What screening is used for Fragile X syndrome ?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
test for fragile X and karyotype/
comparative genomic
hybridisation by microarray
for other possible causes of
developmental delay
Refer to genetic services for
genetic counselling and testing
at-risk family (I, A)
perform at:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
test for fragile X and karyotype/
comparative genomic
hybridisation by microarray
for other possible causes of
developmental delay
Refer to genetic services for
genetic counselling and testing
at-risk family (I, A)

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17
Q

What is the screening test used for
Haemoglobinopathies and thalassaemias?

A

Test for mean corpuscular
volume (MCV), mean corpuscular
haemoglobin (MCH) and ferritin
Haemoglobin electrophoresis
(III, B)
Blood for deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) studies
Arrange partner testing if: MCV
≤80 fL and/or MCH ≤27 pg and/
or abnormal haemoglobin

How often?
Test couple for
carrier status prior to
pregnancy or in first
trimester

18
Q

What is the *First trimester Down syndrome screening?

A

free beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG), pregnancy associated plasma protein at 10–12 weeks (this also provides risk for
trisomy 18 and Edwards syndrome)
* nuchal translucency screen at 11 weeks, 3 days to 13 weeks, 6 days
* NIPT‡
from 10 weeks for trisomy 21, 18 and 13; not available for MBS rebate. Tests for fetal DNA in maternal blood

Second trimester serum screening:
* beta HCG, unconjugated oestriol, alpha-fetoprotein and inhibin A, ideally at 15–17 weeks; also gives risk for Edward syndrome and
neural tube defects (NTDs)

19
Q

What is the screening tool for the prevention and early detection of tooth decay in children?

A

‘Lift the lip’ screening

20
Q

What to encourage about dental hygiene on : <17 months of age> up
to 5 years of age

A

No toothpaste
and low fluoride toothpaste

twice a day

21
Q

Screen for hearing
impairment (II, B) should be done with the elderly at what age and how often?

A

People ≥65 years of age
Every 12 months

22
Q

What tool to use a to screen for visual impairment in the elderly?

A

Snellen chart

23
Q

How does the hearing impairment screening being performed?

A

A whispered voice out of the field of vision (at 0.5 m) or finger
rub at 5 cm has a high sensitivity for hearing loss, as does a
single question about hearing difficulty

24
Q

What are the other symptom for dementia?

A

Other symptoms may include a decline in thinking, planning and organising, and
reduced emotional control or change in social behaviour affecting daily activities.
Not everyone with dementia has memory problems as an initial symptom

25
Q

What are the otehr clues for dementia?

A

Other clues:
are missed appointments (receptionist often knows), change in compliance
with medications, and observable deterioration in grooming or dressing. Falls may
also be an indication of cognitive impairment

26
Q

What does the strategies that clinicians need to recommend for early intervention and
prevention of dementia:?

A

Increased physical activity (eg 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity walking
or equivalent)
* social engagement (increased number of social activities per week)
* cognitive training and rehabilitation
* diet – the Mediterranean and the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH)
diets
* smoking cessation

27
Q

What screening should be done in
all sexually active people up to 29 years of age and is recommended because of increased prevalence and risk of
complications.10

A

Screening for chlamydia infection

28
Q

should be provided if the patient is HIV positive or there is a history of injecting drug use,
as this increases the risk of transmission.

A

Screening for hepatitis C

29
Q

is the most common and curable STI in Australia.

A

Chlamydia

30
Q

as the most appropriate method for feeding infants (and one that offers
protection against infection and some chronic diseases).85

A

Breastfeeding

31
Q

Absolute CVD risk assessment should be conducted at least every two years in all adults aged

A

> 45 years who are not known to have CVD or to be at clinically determined high risk

32
Q

The most common adverse effect of radical prostatectomy

A

erectile dysfunction

33
Q

is the leaking of urine that may occur during exercise,
coughing, sneezing, laughing, walking, lifting or playing sport. This is more common
in women, although it also occurs in men, especially after prostate surgery.
Pregnancy, childbirth and menopause are the main contributors

A

Stress incontinence

34
Q

is a sudden and strong need to urinate. It is often associated
with frequency and nocturia, and is often due to having an over-active or unstable
bladder, neurological condition, constipation, enlarged prostate or history of poor
bladder habits

A

Urge incontinence

35
Q

is a combination of stress and urge incontinence, and is most
common in older women

A

Mixed incontinence

36
Q

as a result of bladder outflow obstruction or injury. Its symptoms may be confused with stress incontinence

A

Overflow incontinence

37
Q

Who is at average risk for Osteoporosis?

A

Postmenopausal women (aged ≥45
years)
* Men aged ≥50 years

38
Q

Who is at increased risk for Osteoporosis?

A
  • Aged >60 years for men and >50 years
    for women plus any of:
    – family history of fragility fracture
    – smoking
    – high alcohol intake (>4 standard drinks
    per day for men and >2 for women)
    – vitamin D deficiency <50 nmol
    (screening for vitamin D not indicated
    just for risk assessment)*
    – low body weight (body mass index
    [BMI] <20kg/m2
    )
    – recurrent falls
    – low levels of physical activity†
    – immobility (to the extent that person
    cannot leave their home or cannot do
    any housework)
  • Medical conditions and medications
    that may cause secondary osteoporosis
    including:
    – endocrine disorders
    (eg hypogonadism, Cushing
    syndrome, hyperparathyroidism,
    hyperthyroidism)
    – premature menopause
    – anorexia nervosa or amenorrhea for
    >12 months (unrelated to pregnancy)
    before 45 years of age
    – inflammatory conditions
    (eg rheumatoid arthritis)
    – malabsorption (eg coeliac disease)
    – chronic kidney or liver disease
    – multiple myeloma and monoclonal
    gammopathies
    – human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    and its treatment
    – Type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus
    – drugs, especially corticosteroids
    (eg 7.5 mg for >3 months) used for
    immunosuppression including as
    part of chronic anti-rejection therapy
    in organ or bone marrow transplant,
    anti-epileptic, aromatase inhibitors,
    anti-androgen, excessive thyroxine,
    possibly selective serotonin reuptake
    inhibitors (SSRIs)
39
Q

What to do next with the patient that has increased risk for Osteoporosis?

A

Dual X-ray absorptiometry
(DXA) to measure bone
mineral density (BMD)
and management of
risk factors (II, A to III, D
depending on risk factor)
Investigate for causes of
secondary osteoporosis
if indicated by history,
examination findings or
BMD result (Practice
Point)

40
Q

_______of public water supplies has improved dental health and reduced

dental decay

A

Fluoridation

41
Q
A